Option C, The best advice for a patient whose medical history is relevant for tetralogy of Fallot, which has been surgically treated since he was 3 years old, is that he is safe to play any recreation, including baseball.
Despite their cardiac conditions, most kids can engage in some form of physical exercise. However, you should speak with the child's cardiologist about the possible hazards and symptoms to watch out for.
An infection of the heart's inside lining or of the heart valve brought on by bacteria is a potential side effect of tetralogy of Fallot.
In those under 50, between 50 and 75, and beyond 75, the average level (95% CI) of RVSP was 16 mmHg - 39 mmHg, 15 mmHg - 45 mmHg, & 17 mmHg - 52 mmHg, respectively.
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a forest ranger arrives at a community clinic for prophylactic vaccination. which vaccine would be most important to be administered to the ranger?
When a forest ranger visits a neighborhood clinic for prophylactic immunizations, it is crucial that the ranger receive the rabies vaccine.
Who invented the first vaccinations?The first effective vaccine were developed by Dr. Edward Jenner. He discovered that those who had cowpox were resistant to smallpox. Expanding on this findings, English physician William Jenner immunizes 8-year-old James Phipps using material taken from a cowpox sore on a milkmaid's hand in May 1796.
What vaccine means?The vaccine is a substance that boosts the immune system's defenses against disease. Most vaccines are given by needle injection, although some can also be taken by mouth and spray into the nose.
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Which of the following is NOT a proposed factor associated with the increase in vitamin D deficiency among Americans?
Answer
the decreased consumption of vitamin-D fortified milk products
the increase in the use of sunscreen products
the increase in the rates of obesity, which alters the metabolism and storage of vitamin D
the increased consumption of soft drinks
the increased consumption of soft drinks
Answer:
The increased consumption of soft drinks
Explanation:
The correct answer is d) the increased consumption of soft drinks. While all of the other factors listed (a, b, c, and e) have been proposed as potential causes of the increase in vitamin D deficiency among Americans, there is no evidence to suggest that the consumption of soft drinks has increased. Therefore, it is not a valid explanation for the increase in vitamin D deficiency.
a client who is receiving a benzodiazepine asks the nurse about having a dry mouth. which suggestion would the nurse include in the teaching plan for this client?
For dry mouth, the nurse should suggest sucking on hard, sugarless candies or chewing sugarless gum.
Due to the client's increased risk of falling due to dizziness and lightheadedness, the risk of injury would be given priority. If the client complained of issues like dry mouth or constipation, Impaired Comfort would be the proper diagnosis. If the client continued to report experiencing anxiety, ineffective coping would be warranted. There is no proof that the client doesn't understand the pharmacological therapy. Drinking little amounts of water frequently would also be beneficial, but consuming 8 ounces every 2 hours could result in fluid excess. Consuming a diet high in green, leafy vegetables could ease constipation. If the client complained of feeling lightheaded or dizzy, slowly shifting postures would be suitable. The nurse should advise sucking on hard, sugar-free candies or chewing sugar-free gum for dry mouth.
The complete question is:
A client who is receiving a benzodiazepine tells the nurse that his mouth feels really dry. Which of the following would the nurse include in the teaching plan for this client?
A) "Try drinking about 8 ounces of water at least every 2 hours."
B) "Sucking on hard sugarless candy might help you."
C) "Make sure you eat a lot of green leafy vegetables."
D) "Change your position slowly as you get out of bed."
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the nurse is checking a client's surgical incision and notes an increase in the amount of drainage, a separation of the incision line, and the appearance of underlying tissue. which actions should the nurse take to deal with this event? select all that apply.
The actions that the nurse must take to deal with this event is that it is applied to sterile dressing soaked with normal saline to the wound and the registered nurse (RN) and primary health care provider (PHCP) must be notified at once. So the correct options are 2 and 3.
What should be done if increased drainage and parting line separation is observed at a surgical incision?Surgical incisions are those that are given when a surgical procedure is performed, which must be taken care of correctly so that they heal correctly. For this, the wound must be protected from any contact with non-sterile objects, and the wound must be kept clean.
If correct care is not maintained, the wound will begin to drain and if effort is made, the incision line may begin to separate. For this reason, your doctor should be informed of the situation of your wound so that a prompt intervention can be made and appropriate care is given.
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The nurse is checking a client's surgical incision and notes an increase in the amount of drainage, a separation of the incision line, and the appearance of underlying tissue. which actions should the nurse take to deal with this event? Select all that apply.
1. Turn the client to the side with the knees bent.
2. Apply a sterile dressing soaked with normal saline to the wound.
3. Notify the registered nurse (RN) and primary health care provider (PHCP) at once.
4. Explain to the client that obesity is a risk factor and weight loss should be a future goal.
5. Gently explore the wound with a cotton-tipped aplicator to determine whether evisceration has occurred.
which intervention would the nurse implement to ensure an older adult client's safety when demonstrating mild confusion after surgical repair of an abdominal hernia?
The nurse should activate the position-sensitive bed alarm for the client's safety with mild confusion after the surgical repair of a hernia.
When an internal organ or other body component pushes through the muscle or tissue that surrounds it normally, it develops a hernia. The majority of hernias develop in the abdomen, between the chest and the hips. The spermatic cord and blood arteries going to the testicles pass through the inguinal canal in males. In females, the round ligament that supports the uterus is located in the inguinal canal. Fatty tissue or a portion of the intestine protrudes into the groin at the top of the inner thigh in an inguinal hernia. Femoral hernias, which mostly affect older women, are much less common than inguinal hernias.
Hence, hernia patient should be immobilized to prevent further damage.
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the nurse is teaching a group of high school students about the modes of transmission for infectious mononucleosis. which response informs the nurse that the teaching was effective?
saliva The nurse is informed by the pathways of transmission for infectious mononucleosis and the immune response that the instruction was effective.
Most cases of infectious mononucleosis are spread through oral contact with saliva that has been exposed to the EBV virus. The oropharyngeal and salivary epithelial cells are initially invaded by the virus. Then infectious mononucleosis, since all B cells have EBV receptors, it travels to the underlying oropharyngeal lymphoid tissue and, more particularly, to B lymphocytes. Mono, or infectious mononucleosis, is frequently referred to as the kissing illness. Mono's causing virus was transferred via saliva. Kissing may transmit the disease, but so can sharing a drink or eating utensils with a person who has mono.
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while assisting a paramedic in the attempted resuscitation of a 55-year-old male in cardiac arrest, you should expect the paramedic to:
Expect the paramedic to administer drugs via the IV route to achieve the fastest effect.
What do paramedics actually do?
Respond to 911 requests for emergency medical assistance by doing CPR or applying bandages to wounds. Choose a therapy strategy after determining the patient's condition. Give those who are ill or injured first aid care or life support services. Carefully carry patients in an ambulance.
Is being an EMT difficult?
Programs to become an EMT or paramedic are demanding and time-consuming because they prepare you for a crucial career. You must be willing to put in the effort and master certain abilities for the job. It is impossible to become a paramedic by merely reading a book or doing a few months of school.
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the nurse and the unlicensed assistive personnel (uap) are caring for a client who is sedated and mechanically ventilated with an oral endotracheal tube. which action by the uap requires the nurse to intervene?
The UAP action are As directed, give regular dental care.
The client on mechanical ventilation requires routine oral care, which the UAP can perform. The nurse is within the range of her profession when performing the other tasks.
Unlicensed assistive personnel are paraprofessionals who provide assistance to those with physical disabilities, cognitive decline, and other health needs that affect their everyday lives. Patient care depends heavily on UAPs (those who serve others, patient-care technicians, and certified nursing assistants).
UAP provides direct interest subjects on maintaining personal hygiene, checking vital signs, supplementing, moving, and using the restroom, as well as keeping track of patients' cognition and blood sugar levels. A bedpan, also known as a bed pan, is a container that is often made of porcelain, mineral, or flexible and is used to preserve a patient's health. For both polluted and urogenital discharge, a bedpan can be used.
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the symptoms of diphtheria are due to an exotoxin that blocks proteins synthesis in host cells. t or f
The symptoms of diphtheria are due to an exotoxin that blocks proteins synthesis in host cells. The above statement is True.
Corynebacterium diphtheriae is the cause of the acute, contagious sickness known as diphtheria. The bacterium usually grows locally in the pharynx with the creation of pseudomembranes, or, less frequently, in the stomach or lungs. Systemic toxin distribution then causes lesions in other distant organs. The tonsillar zones, larynx, soft palate, uvula, and nasal canals are frequently affected by acute diseases of the upper respiratory tract. The importance of vaccination in preventing sickness in both children and adults was highlighted by a recent pandemic in Russia.
Although the most prevalent location of infection in children is the upper respiratory tract mucosa, localisation of diphtheria in adult patients in a newly reported pandemic that occurred in the former USSR was rare. Unusual locations of infection in adult patients with oral mucosal lesions included the tongue, upper and lower lips, hard and soft palate, and buccal mucosa.
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which procedure has typically resulted in patients becoming permanently listless, immature, and uncreative?
A lobotomy has typically resulted in patients becoming permanently listless, immature, and uncreative or lethargic.
A lobotomy, also known as a leucotomy, is a type of psychosurgery used to treat mental illnesses such as mood disorders and schizophrenia. Psychosurgeries are methodologies that involve physically removing or modifying a portion of the brain.
The goal of a lobotomy is to calm the body or reduce agitation, and many early patients have shown these results. However, many people experienced apathy, passivity, lack of initiative, poor concentration, and a general decrease in the depth and severity of their emotional response to life.
Frontal lobotomy was developed in the 1930s to treat mental illness and to address the pressing issue of overcrowding in mental institutions at a time when no other effective treatment options were available.
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When basing an agency clinical protocol on an evidence-based clinical practice uideline, which of the following courses of action is of questionable effectiveness? a. Selectively include in the protocol the evidence on which the protocol is based - b. Make the staff aware of the new protocol and communicate the expectation that they will follow it c. Design the protocol to closely adhere to the recommendations of a soundly produced guideline d. Develop a strategic plan to introduce the protocol
When basing an agency clinical protocol on an evidence-based clinical practice guideline, the courses of action is of questionable effectiveness is to Set a standard of care by making the staff aware of the guideline and communicating the expectation that they will follow it.
clinical protocol are prospective human subjects-based biomedical or behavioral research investigations that aim to provide specific answers about biomedical or behavioral treatments. These include both well-known treatments and cutting-edge ones that need additional research and comparison, including novel drugs, vaccinations, dietary options, nutritional supplements, and medical technologies. Clinical trials provide data on dosage, safety, and efficacy. They are only put into practice after receiving clearance from the nation's ethics commission or health authorities, if therapeutic permission is required. These groups are in charge of determining the risk/benefit ratio for the experiment; their approval just indicates that it may proceed without implying that the medication is "safe" or "effective."
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within an infected host, only about 1% of influenza virus particles that are produced are capable of infection. why? the reason is that 99% of particles do not contain:
only about 1% of influenza virus particles that are produced are capable of infection. the reason is that 99% of particles do not contain: C.) many viral particles will be produced that do not contain the required genes to be infectious.
The influenza (Flu) virus. The two primary subtypes of human influenza viruses are A and B. Flu A and B viruses that often transmit among humans are to blame for the annual seasonal flu outbreaks. The genes that make up the surface proteins allow flu A viruses to be divided into sub-types. The Orthomyxoviridae family of viruses includes influenza viruses. This family comprises of encapsulated viruses with segmented negative-sense single-strand RNA as their genome.
within an infected host, only about 1% of influenza virus particles that are produced are capable of infection. why? the reason is that 99% of particles do not contain?
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a 23-year-old man was struck across the face with a baseball bat. his eyes are swollen shut, he has massive facial bruising and deformities, and he has blood in his mouth. your most immediate concern should be:
A 23-year-old man was struck across the face with a baseball bat. his eyes are swollen shut, he has massive facial bruising and deformities, and he has blood in his mouth. your most immediate concern should be:Airway compromise.
Some people may suddenly get more bruises than usual, or they may develop abrupt, inexplicable bruising or blood patches under the skin. This might result from: a drug, such as blood thinners or aspirin (anticoagulants). a disease that results in the accumulation of toxins in the blood or tissues (sepsis).
When blood isn't clotting properly, bleeding may be more severe or last longer than usual. A bruise develops whenever this blood is unable to escape from under the skin's surface. Von Willebrand disease can cause tiny, perhaps even undetectable injuries to result in lumpy or massive bruises.
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which is the most reliable birth control method for the nurse to recommend to a client with type 1 diabetes?
The most reliable birth control method for the nurse to recommend to a client with type 1 diabetes is the diaphragm with spermicidal gel.
A diaphragm is a type of birth control that resembles a little saucer and is composed of soft silicone. It is folded in half and inserted into the vagina to conceal the cervix. An effective contraceptive is a diaphragm. It serves as a physical barrier over your cervix, preventing sperm from attaching to an egg.
A diaphragm should be used in conjunction with spermicide for optimal results (cream or gel that kills sperm). Chemicals in spermicide prevent sperm from migrating, preventing them from reaching an egg. The spermicide is kept in a position close to your cervix by the diaphragm.
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one of the primary factors that the nurse considers when setting priorities for the client in the acute care setting after cardiac surgery is the client's:
One of the primary factors that the nurse considers when setting priorities for the client in the acute care setting after cardiac surgery is the client's condition.
What is cardiac surgery?A cardiac surgery is the type of surgery that is being carried out by a cardiac surgeon in the heart or on the great blood vessels such as the pulmonary trunk or aorta.
There are various types of cardiac surgery that includes the following;
Coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG).Heart valve repair or replacement. Insertion of a pacemaker or an implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD). Maze surgery. Aneurysm repair, andHeart transplant.After cardiac surgery, the client should be placed in an acute care setting where various nursing interventions would be carried out based on their conditions.
The care rendered to these patients should be prioritized to limited any mismanagement and enhance their recovery.
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Sleep improves the memory consolidation process which may be one reason why distributing practice sessions is more successful than massing practice. t/f
It is true that sleep improves the memory consolidation process which may be one reason why distributing practice sessions is more successful than massing practice.
Since at least the early 19th century, researchers have been examining the connection between sleep and memory. Brain plasticity, the structural changes within synapses that produce associations between stimuli, is a byproduct of memory, the cognitive process of storing and recalling previous experiences, learning, and recognition. While the long-term preservation of memories can take additional minutes, days, or even years to fully consolidate and become a stable memory that is accessible, stimuli are encoded in milliseconds (more resistant to change or interference). As a result, while the creation of a particular memory happens quickly, the development of a memory is frequently an ongoing process.
Hence, sleep provides memory building and processing information.
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Because alcohol consumption can reduce the risk of developing some types of chronic disease, medical personnel should recommend that non-drinkers begin drinking alcohol occasionally to reduce their health risks.
false
The given statement "Because alcohol consumption can reduce the risk of developing some types of chronic disease, medical personnel should recommend that non-drinkers begin drinking alcohol occasionally to reduce their health risks," is false.
How does drinking alcohol lower the risk of heart disease?Moderate alcohol consumption has been linked in certain studies to a decreased risk of heart disease death.
But interpreting the cause and impact of those research is challenging. Red wine drinkers might have higher salaries, which are frequently linked to more education and better access to healthful foods. A heart-healthy diet may be more likely to be followed by red wine consumers.
There is some proof that drinking alcohol in moderation may assist to slightly increase "good" HDL cholesterol levels. Additionally, because to the antioxidants it contains, red wine in particular has been said to protect the heart.
But you can get those advantages without popping a bottle. Exercise can help increase HDL cholesterol levels, and other meals including fruits, vegetables, and grape juice all contain antioxidants.
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a patient requests that disclosures made from her medical record be limited to specific clinical notes and reports. given hipaa requirements, how must the hospital respond?
The hospital must accept the request but does not have to agree to it. a patient requests that disclosures made from her medical record be limited to specific clinical notes and reports. given HIPAA requirements,
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA) is a federal law that mandated the development of national standards to guard against the disclosure of sensitive patient health information without the patient's knowledge or consent. For the purpose of enforcing Administrative Simplification, HHS established five rules: the Privacy Rule, the Transactions and Code Sets Rule, the Security Rule, the Unique Identifiers Rule, and the Enforcement Rule. If the topic of the rumour is not a patient with rights under the HIPAA Privacy Rule, it is not a HIPAA violation; even if the person is an employee of a Covered Entity and the rumour pertains to a patient under their care, it is not a violation of HIPAA.
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fifty-year-old denise complains of nausea and fatigue, and her doctor notes a sharp decrease in estrogen levels. what is mostlikely happening to denise
Due to the menopausal state the denise feels nausea and fatigue and the low levels of estrogen in her boby.
What is estrogen ?
Estrogen, often known as oestrogen, is a sex hormone that is important for the development and control of the female reproductive system as well as secondary sex characteristics. Estrone (E1), estradiol (E2), and estriol (E3) are the three primary endogenous estrogens with estrogenic hormonal action (E3). Estradiol, an estrane, is the most powerful and common. Another oestrogen, estetrol (E4), is only generated during pregnancy.
All vertebrates and certain insects manufacture estrogens. The prevalence of estrogenic sex hormones in both vertebrates and insects shows that they have a long evolutionary history. In both men and women, estrogens circulate at lower quantities than androgens. While guys have substantially lower oestrogen levels than females, estrogens nonetheless play vital physiological roles in males.
Due to the menopausal state the denise feels nausea and fatigue and the low levels of estrogen in her boby.
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a client has come to the clinic requesting a hepatitis a and b vaccination before leaving on a tropical vacation. after assessing the client, the nurse should prioritize what finding to communicate to the provider?
The nurse should make it a priority to inform the provider that the client takes corticosteroids to treat rheumatoid arthritis.
Steroids can be directly injected into a joint, administered intramuscularly or intravenously, or taken orally. Steroids significantly reduce joint edema and soreness and fast alleviate RA symptoms including pain and stiffness. The most common treatment for RA, which significantly impairs a person's ability to carry out daily tasks, is the use of steroids.
Joint linings are impacted by rheumatoid arthritis, which results in painful swelling. Rheumatoid arthritis-related inflammation can result in joint deformity and bone degradation over an extended period.
Rheumatoid arthritis has no known cure, however, physiotherapy and medicines can reduce the disease's course.
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The question is -
A client has come to the clinic requesting a hepatitis A and B vaccination before leaving on a tropical vacation. After assessing the client, the nurse should prioritize what finding to communicate to the provider.
-The client uses marijuana two to three times per month
-The client received the annual influenza vaccine seven days ago
-The client has type two diabetes that is controlled by diet
-The client takes corticosteroids to treat rheumatoid arthritis
the nurse assesses the neurovascular status of a client who had surgery to repair a fractured hip. which assessment data for the affected leg indicates that the client has developed a neurologic complication?
The client has acquired a neurologic consequence that is tingling sensations, according to the evaluation data for the afflicted leg, the nurse evaluates the neurovascular state of a patient who underwent surgery to repair a broken hip.
Patients may have diminished feeling, lack of sensation, dysesthesia, neuropathy, tingling, or needle-like sensations if the neurovascular condition is disturbed. In the patient's endovascular assessment flowsheet in the EMR, it should be noted that a nerve block, as well as an epidural, may have affected the patient's feelings.
Check to see if the pain is out of proportion to the damage. Pain will arise from any impairment to neurovascular status owing to damaged sensory nerves and reduced blood flow.
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Cindy is 63 years old and at risk for osteoporosis. Which of the following dietary supplements would be the MOST helpful to minimize bone loss?
A) mangesium and fluroide
B) vitamin K and niacin
C) thiamin and phosphorus
D) calcium and vitamin D
D) calcium and vitamin D
Cindy is 63 years old and at risk of osteoporosis. Of the following dietary supplements that are MOST helpful for minimizing bone loss are D. calcium and vitamin D
What is bone loss?Osteoporosis or calcification of the bones is a disease that occurs when the bones begin to experience continuous loss. The inside of a healthy bone normally appears to have many tiny spaces, much like a honeycomb. Bone loss will make these spaces wider.
This increases the risk of disorders of the bone structure, such as fractures due to osteoporosis. People with osteoporosis usually have a high risk of experiencing hip fractures, wrist fractures, and spinal fractures.
Vitamins that can be consumed to prevent osteoporosis are calcium, vitamin D, magnesium, vitamin K, and vitamin K2.
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the student nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a client being discharged status post mi. what should the nurse include in the teaching plan? select all that apply.
(p. 3) one of the general principles of psychoactive drugs is that "every drug has ____________."
One of the general principles of psychoactive drugs is that "every drug has multiple effects.
What is a Drug?This is also referred to as medication and it consists of chemical compounds which are used to treat different types of sicknesses and illnesses.
Psychoactive drugs on the other hand are different forms of substances that, when taken in or administered into one's system, affects the mental processes, such as perception, consciousness and examples include alcohol, caffeine etc.
One of the general principles of psychoactive drug use is that its effect depends on the individual's history and expectations and then every drug has multiple effects due to the differences in the body composition of individuals thereby making it the correct choice.
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a nurse is educating a client who has parkinson's disease and family regarding possible adverse effects of carbidopa-levodopa. the nurse emphasizes which should be a closely monitored effect?
When a nurse is discussing the potential side effects of carbidopa-levodopa with a client who seems to have Parkinson's disease & their family, she underlines that involuntary movements should be a constantly watched impact.
Parkinson's disease, also known as shaking palsy and paralysis agitans, is treated with a carbidopa and levodopa combination. A problem of the brain's central nervous system is Parkinson's disease.
Parkinson's disease is an ongoing ailment that impairs both the nervous system's ability to function and the parts of the body that the nervous system regulates. The symptoms emerge over time. The first symptom could be a small tremor in only 1 hand. Although tremors are common, the illness may also cause stiffness or make you move more slowly.
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the nurse has identified short- and long-term goals for a client after surgery to remove a leg tumor. when determining interventions for the goals, which questions are important for the nurse to consider? select all that apply.
The nurse should think carefully about the following queries: Compatibility between the treatments and other anticipated therapies ?Are the interventions supported by evidence? Are the interventions practical and do they call for the nurse's resources?
The needs of their businesses in the immediate term and the pursuit of their long-term objectives are a perpetual juggling act for advisors. The fact that short- and long-term perspectives are typically out of sync at a given time further complicates matters and adds to the confusion and irritation. Expanding on each child's vocabulary and encouraging more verbal language; introducing the indigenous program "Empowering Our Youth" into our classroom; and further developing the children's resilience through our resilience program are some of the things we will be exploring and developing for each child individually.
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which is not true about vitamins? vitamins do not provide the body with energy. vitamins are measured in micrograms or milligrams. vitamins do not have calories. vitamins do not contain carbon.
Answer:
"vitamins do not contain carbon" is not true
a patient confides in the nurse that she is in menopause and that she does not want to take hormone replacement therapy because she has a family history of breast cancer. she tells the nurse she is taking soy, calcium, and a vitamin as an alternative therapy. what would the nurse advise the patient to do?
The nurse advise the patient to do Stop giving her the calcium supplement.
The patient can receive nursing advice to stop using a calcium supplement. Products containing calcium, iron, or zinc may lessen the effects of estrogen. If osteoporosis is a worry, the patient may have to consider if it would be better for her to continue the calcium and stop the soy. In order to maintain health, especially for a menopausal woman, it is important to reduce the amount of carbohydrates in the diet and to walk 2 miles each day. However, using soy as an alternative treatment for menopause symptoms and signs is unrelated to these recommendations.
Menopause
A woman's natural fall in estrogen levels as she enters her 40s or 50s.One year has passed since the last period, which is the indicator of menopause. Hot flashes and vaginal dryness are typical symptoms. There can also be sleep problems. These symptoms taken together can result in anxiety or depression.
Treatments for menopause, which is a natural process, concentrate on symptomatic relief. Topical lubricants or estrogen are used to alleviate vaginal dryness. The intensity and frequency of hot flushes can be lessened with medication. Oral hormone therapy may be employed in unique situations.
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Prevention efforts that are aimed at a specific subgroup of the population considered at-risk for developing mental health problems are called __________ interventions.
a. tertiary
b. selective
c. universal
d. indicated
a client at 7 weeks' gestation tells the nurse in the prenatal clinic that she has been bothered by episodes of nausea throughout the day. which interventions would the nurse recommend? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
a client at 7 weeks' gestation tells the nurse in the prenatal clinic that she has been bothered by nausea throughout the day. To treat this,Focus on and repeat a rhythmic chant.Sit upright for 30 minutes after meals.
An uneasy feeling in the stomach called nausea frequently precedes vomiting. While nausea and vomiting are not diseases, they are signs of a variety of illnesses, including: motion sickness or seasickness; the first trimester of pregnancy; medication-induced vomiting; High pain thresholds, psychological strain, gallbladder disease, food poisoning, Infections, Overeating, a response to specific fragrances or odorants, heart attack, head injury, or concussion skull tumor, Ulcers, some types of cancer, bulimia, or other mental conditions, delayed stomach emptying, gastroparesis, use of toxins or excessive alcohol Appendicitis and bowel obstruction.
A client at 7 weeks' gestation tells the nurse in the prenatal clinic that she has been bothered by episodes of nausea, but no vomiting, throughout the day. What should the nurse recommend? Select all that apply.
1
Focus on and repeat a rhythmic chant.
2
Sit upright for 30 minutes after meals.
3
Take low-sodium antacids after meals.
4
Drink carbonated beverages with meals.
5
Eat small, frequent meals and eat dry crackers in between.
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