Does the current through R1 increase, decrease, or stay the same? Select the correct answer and explanation.

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

Explanation:

when the switch is closed in the current conducting circuit the resistor r1 sees the same potential difference so the current through r1 stays the same.


Related Questions

How can employees use a code of ethics?
OA. By using it to learn how to negotiate a pay increase
B. By using it to develop new legal responsibilities
C. By referring to it for examples of how to apply ethical standards
OD. By using it to write computer programs that make ethical choices

Answers

Answer:

for this, I would say D

Explanation:

Because instead of deciding what the ethics themselves are, you should set the ethics and create a system that can act on those ethics themselves.

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During a clear, relatively calm day, the relative humidity will tend to ________ from sunrise to early afternoon.

Answers

During a clear, relatively calm day, the relative humidity will tend to decrease from sunrise to early afternoon.

During a clear, relatively calm day, several factors can contribute to a decrease in relative humidity from sunrise to early afternoon:

Increase in temperature: As the day progresses from sunrise to early afternoon, the temperature usually rises due to the sun's heat. Warmer air can hold more moisture, so as the temperature increases, the air has a higher capacity to hold water vapor, resulting in a decrease in relative humidity.Evaporation: During the day, the warmth from the sun can cause surface moisture, such as dew or water on leaves or the ground, to evaporate. As the moisture evaporates into the air, it increases the water vapor content in the air, which can lead to a decrease in relative humidity.Mixing of air: During the early hours of the day, the air near the ground is usually cooler and has higher relative humidity due to factors such as dew formation or overnight moisture. However, as the day progresses, the air near the ground and the upper atmosphere tend to mix due to atmospheric processes, leading to a decrease in relative humidity as the moisture gets distributed throughout the atmosphere.

These factors combined can lead to a decrease in relative humidity from sunrise to early afternoon during clear, relatively calm days. However, it's important to note that local weather patterns, geography, and other factors can affect relative humidity, and it may not always follow this general trend.

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Why is it easy to remove air from balloon and is difficult to remove air from glass bottle?

Answers

Answer:

It is easy to fill air in the balloon but it is very difficult to remove air from a glass bottle. Why? Ans. It is easy to fill air in the balloon but it is very difficult to remove air from a glass bottle because pressure inside the bottle is less than atmospheric pressure.

Explanation:

Answer:

It is easy to remove air from a balloon because the material of the balloon is flexible, and when the air is removed, the balloon collapses and reduces in size. This means that the pressure inside the balloon decreases and makes it easier to remove the remaining air.

On the other hand, it is difficult to remove air from a glass bottle because the material of the bottle is rigid and does not change shape. When air is removed from the bottle, the volume of the bottle does not change, and the pressure inside the bottle remains the same. This makes it difficult to remove the remaining air as it is trapped inside the bottle. Additionally, the narrow neck of the bottle can also make it harder to remove the air as it limits the flow of air in and out of the bottle.

Which transportation mode typically carries bulk food, mining, and chemicals? This mode also rates highest in the capacity/capability category with its ability to carry the largest variety of goods and materials in massive quantities.TruckPipelineWaterAirRail

Answers

The transportation mode typically carries bulk food, mining, and chemicals is (e). rail is the correct option.

Rail ranks highest in the capacity/capability category for its ability to move the widest range of commodities and materials in significant numbers. It frequently transports bulk food, mining materials, and chemicals. The enormous carrying capacity of rail transportation makes it ideal for moving vast quantities of goods, including bulk food, mining supplies, and chemicals. Rail transportation frequently makes use of specialized railcars made for particular types of cargo, making it possible to move these commodities in huge quantities across great distances efficiently and affordably.

Additionally, due to its lower carbon emissions compared to other modes of transportation, rail transportation is often regarded as being environmentally friendly, making it a favored choice for the transportation of large and bulky products.

Therefore, the correct option is (e).

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If the mass of the sun is 3x, at least one planet will fall into the habitable zone if I place a planet in orbits___, ____, ____, and ____, and all planets will orbit the sun successfully.

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When Earth is closer to the sun, there will be hotter climate. A little movement that takes one closer to the sun could lead to a huge impact.

Impact of the distance of the sun

If I put a planet in orbits 2, 6, and 75, all planets will orbit the sun successfully if the sun's mass is 1x, and at least one planet will fall inside the habitable zone.

If I put a planet in orbits 84, 1, and 5, at least one of them will fall into the habitable zone if the sun's mass is 2x, and all planets will orbit the sun successfully.

If I put a planet in orbits 672 and 7, at least one of them will fall into the habitable zone if the sun's mass is 3x, and all planets will orbit the sun successfully.

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Question 55
The presumptive evidence of the presence of coliform in the MPN test is:
a. The color change in the culture media
b. Turbidity of the culture broth
c. The presence of gas from the fermentation of the media
d. Metallic sheen on colonies

Answers

The correct answer is c. The presence of gas from the fermentation of the media is the presumptive evidence of the presence of coliform in the MPN (most probable number) test.

This is because coliform bacteria are capable of fermenting lactose, producing gas as a byproduct. The MPN test involves using multiple tubes of lactose broth that are inoculated with a water sample and incubated to see if any gas is produced, indicating the presence of coliform bacteria.

The presumptive evidence of the presence of coliform in the MPN test is:

c. The presence of gas from the fermentation of the media

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The ampacities listed in Table 310.15(b)(16) are based on temperature alone and do not take _____ into account.

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The ampacities listed in Table 310.15(b)(16) are based on temperature alone and do not take "ambient temperature correction factors" into account.

These factors are necessary to adjust the ampacity values based on the surrounding temperature, ensuring safe and efficient operation of electrical systems. These ampacities are based on the assumed maximum conductor temperature of 90°C (194°F) and take into account the thermal resistance of the insulation. However, the ampacities do not take into account any ambient temperature correction factors, such as the effects of air movement, solar radiation, or other environmental conditions that may affect the temperature of the conductor.

   For example, if the temperature of the conductor is affected by air movement, solar radiation, or other environmental conditions, the ampacity listed in Table 310.15(b)(16) may be too high and the conductor may experience overheating.

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The retentive timer reset (RES) instruction is always given the same address as the timer it resets. true/false

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True. The retentive timer reset (RES) instruction is always given the same address as the timer it resets.

This ensures that the correct timer is targeted and its accumulated value is reset to zero when the RES instruction is executed.The retentive timer reset (RES) instruction is always given the same address as the timer it resets in order to identify the timer being reset. This allows the instruction to reset the timer safely without affecting any other timers in the system.The Retentive Timer Reset (RES) is a feature of a timer that allows it to retain its current value and continue counting or timing after the timer has been reset. This feature is useful in applications where an event needs to be triggered after a certain period of time and the time period needs to be reset or restarted after it has been previously triggered.

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why are icebergs often surrounded by fog? 1. the evaporation from an iceberg condenses into droplets (fog). 2. the air is dryer near an iceberg. 3. the chilled air in the vicinity of an iceberg results in condensation of water vapor in the air (fog). 4. an iceberg attracts vapor from the surrounding air.

Answers

3. The chilled air in the vicinity of an iceberg results in condensation of water vapor in the air (fog). As the cold air from the iceberg meets the warm, moist air around it, the water vapor in the warm air condenses into tiny droplets, forming fog.

This process is similar to how dew forms on grass in the morning. So, icebergs are often surrounded by fog due to the temperature difference between the air around them and the cold air emanating from the ice.Because icebergs barely float to the surface of the water, when moist air passes over the area, it condenses in the nearby area due to the closeness of the frigid temperatures near the iceberg, giving the area a foggy appearance from the condensed water droplets.The chilled air in the vicinity of an iceberg results in condensation of water vapor in the air (fog). As the cold air from the iceberg meets the warm, moist air around it, the water vapor in the warm air condenses into tiny droplets, forming fog.

Large hills of frozen water known as icebergs barely float to the outermost layer of the water bodies.

The speed (v) and frequency (f) of a wave train in a medium are equal, hence the equation for wavelength is v/f. Lambda is a typical representation of wavelength in Greek.

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25. A circular disk of radius 0.015 m rotates with a constant angular speed of 5.0 rev/s. What is the acceleration of a point on the edge of the disk?
A) 0.31 m/s2
B) 1.6 m/s2
C) 9.9 m/s2
D) 15 m/s2
E) zero m/s2

Answers

The acceleration of a point on the edge of the disk is  15 m/s².

To find the acceleration of a point on the edge of the disk, we will use the formula for centripetal acceleration:
a_c = ω²r
where a_c is the centripetal acceleration, ω is the angular speed in radians per second, and r is the radius of the disk.
First, we need to convert the angular speed from rev/s to rad/s. There are 2π radians in one revolution, so:
ω = 5.0 rev/s * 2π rad/rev = 10π rad/s
Now we can plug this into the centripetal acceleration formula:
a_c = (10π rad/s)² * 0.015 m
a_c = (100π² rad²/s²) * 0.015 m
a_c ≈ 14.7 m/s²
The closest answer choice to this value is D) 15 m/s².

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A plane traveling to Europe takes 12 hours to fly 86000 km. What is the planes velocity

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The velocity of the plane is approximately 7166.67 km/h.

The rate at which an item changes its location in a certain direction over a predetermined amount of time is referred to as velocity in the study of physics. Due to the fact that it is a vector quantity, it possesses both magnitude and direction. The direction of velocity describes whether an object is moving in a straight line or along a curved path, whereas the magnitude of velocity represents the object's speed.

To calculate the velocity of the plane, can use the formula:

Velocity = Distance / Time

Given:

Distance = 86000 km

Time = 12 hours

Putting the values, may get:

Velocity = 86000 km / 12 hours

To obtain the velocity in km/h, we divide the distance by the time:

Velocity = 7166.67 km/h

So, the velocity of the plane would be approximately 7166.67 km/h.

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15. table 17.2 lists the temperature ranges that correspond to the different spectral types. what part of the star do these temperatures refer to? why?

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The temperatures listed in table 17.2 refer to the surface temperatures of stars. This is because the spectral types of stars are determined based on the characteristics of their spectra.

which are produced by the outer layers of the star. The spectral types are related to the temperatures of the stars because the temperature of a star's outer layers determines which elements are present and how they emit light, which creates the unique spectral signature for each star.

Therefore, the temperature ranges listed in the table correspond to the different spectral types because they reflect the surface temperatures of the stars that produce those spectra. The temperatures listed in Table 17.2 corresponding to different spectral types refer to the effective temperatures of a star's photosphere.

The photosphere is the outermost layer of a star that emits visible light, making it the part we observe when determining a star's spectral classification. These temperatures are important because they help characterize the star's properties, including its color and brightness, and provide insights into its stage in stellar evolution.

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53. Determine the magnitude of the total magnetic field at the center of the loop (due both to the loop and the solenoid) if the current in the loop is reversed in direction from that needed to make the total field equal to zero tesla.

Answers

The magnitude of the total magnetic field at the center of the loop, when the current is reversed, is twice the magnitude of the magnetic field due to the solenoid alone.

To help you understand the situation, let's break down the problem into steps:
1. Determine the magnetic field at the center of the loop when the total field is zero.
2. Calculate the magnitude of the total magnetic field when the current in the loop is reversed.
Step 1: When the total field is zero, it means that the magnetic field due to the loop ([tex]B_{loop}[/tex]) and the magnetic field due to the solenoid ([tex]B_{solenoid}[/tex]) are equal in magnitude but opposite in direction. In other words:
B_loop = [tex]-B_{solenoid}[/tex]
Step 2: Now, let's reverse the direction of the current in the loop. The magnetic field due to the loop will also reverse its direction:
[tex]B_{loop}_{reversed}[/tex]= [tex]-B_{loop}[/tex]
Now, we want to find the total magnetic field when the current is reversed:
[tex]B_{total}[/tex] = [tex]B_{loop}_{reversed} + B_{solenoid}[/tex]
Since [tex]B_{loop}[/tex] = [tex]-B_{solenoid}[/tex], we have:
[tex]B_{total}[/tex] = [tex]-(-B_{solenoid}) + B_{solenoid}[/tex]
[tex]B_{total}[/tex] = 2 * [tex]B_{solenoid}[/tex]
When the current is reversed, the total magnetic field at the center of the loop is twice as strong as the magnetic field caused by the solenoid alone.

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(324-10(E)) Use of FCC systems in damp locations shall be _____.

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The use of FCC systems in damp locations should be done with caution and only when the equipment is specifically designed and labeled for such use.

According to the National Electrical Code (NEC) Article 100, a damp location is an area that is protected from weather but still subject to moisture. When it comes to using Federal Communications Commission (FCC) systems in damp locations, the NEC requires that they shall be identified for use in such locations.

The identification can be done through a variety of ways, including labels, markings, or instructions that come with the equipment. Additionally, the FCC system should be installed in such a way that it does not come in direct contact with moisture, which can compromise its performance and safety.

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Question 43 Marks: 1 Exposure of the gonads (ovaries or testes) is necessary to cause genetic effects from ionizing radiation.Choose one answer. a. True b. False

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a. True. Exposure of the gonads (ovaries or testes) is necessary to cause genetic effects from ionizing radiation.

Exposure to ionizing radiation can cause genetic effects without direct exposure of the gonads. Radiation can cause genetic damage to cells as it passes through the body and can be absorbed by any part of the body, including organs, tissues, and cells. When this radiation is absorbed, it can damage the DNA of the cells, leading to mutations and the potential for genetic effects. Therefore, direct exposure of the gonads is not necessary for genetic effects from ionizing radiation.

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electromagnetic wave propagating in the z direction has at some instant its electric field vector pointing in the y direction. in which direction does a magnetic field vector point at this instant?

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If an electromagnetic wave propagating in the z direction has its electric field vector pointing in the y direction at a particular instant, then its magnetic field vector would be pointing in the x direction.

An electromagnetic wave consists of oscillating electric and magnetic fields that are perpendicular to each other and to the direction of wave propagation. In your case, the wave is propagating in the z-direction, and the electric field vector is pointing in the y-direction. To find the direction of the magnetic field vector, we can use the right-hand rule. Point your thumb in the direction of wave propagation (z-direction) and your fingers in the direction of the electric field (y-direction). The direction in which your palm faces will give you the direction of the magnetic field vector.
Following this rule, the magnetic field vector will point in the x-direction. So, at this instant, the magnetic field vector is pointing in the x-direction.

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Which one of the following statements best explains why a constant magnetic field can do no work on a moving charged particle?
a) The magnetic field is conservative.
b) The magnetic force is a velocity dependent force.
c) The magnetic field is a vector and work is a scalar quantity.
d) The magnetic force is always perpendicular to the velocity of the particle.
e) The electric field associated with the particle cancels the effect of the magnetic field on the particle.

Answers

d) The magnetic force is always perpendicular to the velocity of the particle. When a charged particle moves in a magnetic field, it experiences a force perpendicular to both the magnetic field and its velocity.

Since work is defined as the product of the force and the displacement, and the magnetic force is always perpendicular to the direction of motion, it does no work on the particle. The magnetic field is not conservative, as it cannot be described by a scalar potential function. The magnetic force is velocity dependent, but this does not explain why it cannot do work. The magnetic field is indeed a vector, but this alone does not explain why it cannot do work. The electric field associated with the particle may cancel the effect of the magnetic field on the particle in some cases, but this is not a general explanation for why a constant magnetic field cannot do work on a moving charged particle.

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a rocket with mass 1.2*10^6 has a relativistic kinetic energy of 2.6*10^23 how fast is the rocket moving toppr

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The rocket is moving very close to the speed of light, with a velocity of approximately 0.99999999999999999997 times the speed of light.

What is Kinetic Energy?

Kinetic energy is the energy possessed by an object due to its motion. It is defined as the work needed to accelerate a body of a given mass from rest to its current velocity.

We can use the relativistic kinetic energy equation to solve for the velocity of the rocket:

K = (γ - 1)m[tex]c^{2}[/tex]

where K is the relativistic kinetic energy, m is the mass of the rocket, c is the speed of light, and γ is the Lorentz factor, which is given by:

γ = 1 / sqrt(1 - v^2/[tex]c^{2}[/tex])

where v is the velocity of the rocket.

Solving for γ, we get:

γ - 1 = 2.2908*[tex]10^{8}[/tex]

γ = 2.2908*[tex]10^{8}[/tex]+ 1

γ = 2.2908*[tex]10^{8}[/tex]

Substituting γ into the Lorentz factor equation and solving for v, we have:

v = c * sqrt(1 - 1/[tex]γ^{2}[/tex])

v ≈ 0.99999999999999999997c

where c is the speed of light. So the rocket is moving very close to the speed of light, with a velocity of approximately 0.99999999999999999997 times the speed of light.

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a runner completes one complete lap around a 400m track, and finishes exactly where she started. what is her linear distance with respect to the starting position?

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When a runner completes one lap around a 400m track and finishes exactly where she started, her linear distance with respect to the starting position is zero.

This is because the linear distance is the shortest distance between two points, and in this case, the runner started and ended at the same point.

However, it is important to note that the distance covered by the runner is not zero - she has covered a distance of 400 meters by completing one lap around the track.



It is common for people to confuse linear distance with total distance covered, but they are not the same thing. Linear distance refers to the shortest distance between two points,

while total distance covered refers to the overall distance traveled by an object, regardless of the path taken. In this case, the runner covered a total distance of 400 meters by running one lap around the track,

but her linear distance with respect to the starting position is zero because she ended up at the same point where she started.



In conclusion, the runner's linear distance with respect to the starting position is zero, even though she covered a total distance of 400 meters by completing one lap around the 400m track.

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5.33: Find the work done by friction. (SI: J)A 1.37kg book slides 1.26m along a level surface. The coefficient of kinetic friction between book and surface is 0.154.

Answers

The work done by friction for a 1.37kg book slides 1.26m along a level surface is -2.66J.

The work done by friction is given by the formula W = -f × d, where f is the force of friction and d is the distance traveled.

The force of friction can be calculated using the formula f = μ × N, where μ is the coefficient of friction and N is the normal force.

Since the surface is level, the normal force is equal to the weight of the book, N = m × g.

Thus, the force of friction is f = μ × m × g.

Plugging in the given values, f = 1.37kg × 9.81m/s² × 0.154 = 2.113N.

The work done by friction is then W = -f × d = -2.113N × 1.26m = -2.66J.

Therefore, the work done by friction is -2.66J.

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a simple test to determine the overall amount of particles of extremely small size in a water sample is

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A simple test to determine the overall amount of particles of extremely small size in a water sample is the turbidity test.

The simple test to determine the overall amount of particles of extremely small size in a water sample is known as a turbidity test.

Turbidity is a measure of the cloudiness or haziness of a fluid caused by the presence of suspended particles, such as sediment, algae, or other microscopic matter.

The test involves shining a light through a water sample and measuring the amount of light that is scattered or absorbed by the particles in the water.

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12. What is the magnitude of the angular acceleration of the grindstone?
A) 0.50 rad/s2
B) 1.0 rad/s2
C) 4.5 rad/s2
D) 9.0 rad/s2
E) 18 rad/s2

Answers

9.0 rad/s2, which is the magnitude of the angular acceleration of the grindstone.

The magnitude of the angular acceleration of the grindstone can be calculated using the formula:
angular acceleration = change in angular velocity / time
We are not given the change in angular velocity, but we are given information about the tangential acceleration and radius of the grindstone. We can use these values to find the angular acceleration.
The tangential acceleration of the grindstone can be calculated using the formula:
tangential acceleration = radius x angular acceleration
We are given that the tangential acceleration is 2.25 m/s2 and the radius is 0.25 m. Therefore, we can rearrange the formula to find the angular acceleration:
angular acceleration = tangential acceleration / radius
angular acceleration = 2.25 m/s2 / 0.25 m
angular acceleration = 9.0 rad/s2
Therefore, the answer is D) 9.0 rad/s2, which is the magnitude of the angular acceleration of the grindstone.

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a binary system that is detected from the drop in luminosity as one star passes in front of the other is called

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A binary system that is detected from the drop in luminosity as one star passes in front of the other is called an eclipsing binary.

An eclipsing binary is a type of binary star system consisting of two stars that orbit around their common center of mass. From the perspective of an observer on Earth, the two stars periodically eclipse each other as they move in front of one another during their orbits. This causes the combined brightness of the system to fluctuate, with the light curve showing a regular pattern of dips in brightness as the stars eclipse each other.

Eclipsing binaries are important astronomical objects because they allow us to measure the physical properties of stars more accurately than would be possible for a single star. By studying the properties of the eclipses, such as their duration and depth, astronomers can determine the sizes, masses, and temperatures of the stars in the system. This information can provide important insights into the evolution of stars and the structure of our galaxy.

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If two identical sound waves arriving at the same point are in phase, the resulting wave, compared to the original waves, will have (A) an increase in speed (B) an incre…
If two identical sound waves arriving at the same point are in phase, the resulting wave, compared to the original waves, will have
(A) an increase in speed
(B) an increase in frequency
(C) a larger amplitude
(D) a longer period

Answers

If two identical sound waves arriving at the same point are in phase, the resulting wave, compared to the original waves, will have (C) a larger amplitude.

When two sound waves are in phase, their peaks and troughs align perfectly. This alignment causes constructive interference, which results in the combined wave having a larger amplitude.

The amplitude is a measure of the energy in the wave, so a larger amplitude means a louder sound or greater intensity.

The speed (A) and frequency (B) of the combined wave remain unchanged because these properties depend on the medium through which the sound waves travel and not on the interaction between the waves.

The period (D) of the combined wave also remains unchanged because it is the inverse of the frequency.

In summary, when two identical sound waves are in phase and arrive at the same point, they create a new wave with a larger amplitude due to constructive interference, while other properties like speed, frequency, and period remain the same.

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The correct option is (C) a larger amplitude.

When two identical sound waves are in phase, their peaks and troughs align, resulting in constructive interference. This means that the amplitude of the resulting wave will be the sum of the amplitudes of the original waves. Therefore, the resulting wave will have a larger amplitude compared to the original waves.

The amplitude of a sound wave is related to the loudness of the sound. So, when two identical sound waves arrive at the same point in phase, their amplitudes add up, resulting in a wave with a larger amplitude and thus a louder sound.

Neither the speed nor the frequency nor the period of the wave changes when the waves are in phase, as these properties are determined by the medium through which the wave is traveling and the source of the wave, and not by the interference of waves.

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Question 14
Perhaps the most "infamous" incidence of radiation-induces illness involved:
a. Women who painted watch dials
b. Individuals who received radium injections for arthritis
c. Children who were treated for ringworm in the 1920s
d. Teenagers who had acne

Answers

Answer:

(a) women who painted watch dials - they also had the habit of licking their brush to provide better contrast of the numerals with the underlying face of the watch (or clock)

the combination of processes which result in the movement of water from the earth's surface into the atmosphere is known as

Answers

The combination of processes that result in the movement of water from the earth's surface into the atmosphere is known as the hydrologic cycle.

The mix of cycles that outcome in the development of water from the world's surface into the environment is known as the water cycle or hydrologic cycle. The water cycle comprises of a few stages, including vanishing, happening, buildup, precipitation, penetration, and spillover. Dissipation happens when water changes from a fluid state to a gas because of intensity. Happening is the interaction by which water is set free from plants into the environment.

Buildup happens when water fume in the climate cools and changes back to a fluid state, framing mists. Precipitation happens when water tumbles from the climate to the world's surface as downpour, snow, slush, or hail. Penetration is the cycle by which water saturates the ground, while spillover is the progression of water over the world's surface. The water cycle is crucial for the world's biological systems and assumes an imperative part in supporting life in the world.

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what is the weight of a cubic meter of cork? could you lift it? (use 400 kg/m3 for the density of cork.)

Answers

400 kg is the weight of a cubic meter of cork and lifting it is impossible.

To find the weight of a cubic meter of cork, we need to multiply its density by the volume. In this case, the density is given as 400 kg/m³, and the volume is 1 cubic meter. Here's the calculation:
Weight = Density × Volume
Weight = 400 kg/m³ × 1 m³
Weight = 400 kg
The weight of a cubic meter of cork is 400 kg.
As for lifting it, that would depend on your physical capabilities. For most people, lifting 400 kg is not possible without the help of specialized equipment.

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The weight of a cubic meter of cork can be calculated using the given density of 400 kg/m³. A very strong individual or a team of people working together might be able to lift it, though it would still be a challenging task to find the weight, you simply multiply the volume (1 cubic meter) by the density:

Weight = Volume × Density
Weight = 1 m³ × 400 kg/m³
Weight = 400 kg

So, the weight of a cubic meter of cork is 400 kg. Whether or not you could lift it depends on your physical strength. The average person would likely struggle to lift this weight, as it's well above the recommended limit of 25 kg for manual lifting according to health and safety guidelines.

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which curve accurately describes the hydrostatic force distribution along the tank wall of a static fluid?

Answers

The curve that accurately describes the hydrostatic force distribution along the tank wall of a static fluid is a parabolic curve.

This curve represents the hydrostatic pressure distribution, which increases linearly with depth below the fluid surface.

In a static fluid, the hydrostatic pressure at any point depends only on the depth and the density of the fluid.

As the depth increases, so does the pressure, creating a parabolic distribution of pressure along the tank wall.

The highest pressure is at the bottom of the tank, where the depth is greatest, while the pressure decreases as the height above the fluid surface increases.

The parabolic distribution of pressure is commonly observed in a variety of applications, including in water tanks, swimming pools, and dams.

It is important to accurately calculate the hydrostatic pressure distribution in order to ensure the structural integrity of these systems and prevent any potential failures or leaks.

Overall, the parabolic curve accurately describes the hydrostatic force distribution along the tank wall of a static fluid due to the linear increase in pressure with depth below the fluid surface.

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Question 72
The shorter the wave length
a. The higher the frequency and lower the energy
b. The lower the frequency and energy
c. The lower the frequency and higher the energy
d. The higher the frequency and energy

Answers

Option d is correct. The shorter the wavelength of a wave, the higher its frequency and energy.

This is because frequency is inversely proportional to wavelength, meaning that as wavelength decreases, frequency increases. Additionally, energy is directly proportional to frequency, so as frequency increases, energy also increases. The relationship between the wavelength (λ) and frequency (f) of a wave is described by the equation f = c/λ, where c is the speed of the wave. This equation tells us that as the wavelength of a wave decreases, its frequency increases, and vice versa. This equation tells us that as the frequency of a wave increases, its energy also increases.

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astronauts on a distant planet set up a simple pendulum of length 1.1 m. the pendulum executes simple harmonic motion and makes 100 complete oscillations in 247 s. what is the magnitude of the acceleration due to gravity on this planet?

Answers

The formula for the period of a simple pendulum is T  2π√L g, where T is the period, L is the length of the pendulum, and g is the acceleration due to gravity. Therefore, the magnitude of the acceleration due to gravity on this distant planet is approximately 4.52 ms².

We are given that the length of the pendulum is 1.1 m and that it makes 100 complete oscillations in 247 s. The period of the pendulum can be calculated by dividing the time by the number of oscillations: T 247 s  100  2.47 s. Using the formula for the period of a simple pendulum, we can solve for the acceleration due to gravity, g  4π²L  T²  4π²  1.1 m 2.47 s²  4.52 m s².Therefore, the magnitude of the acceleration due to gravity on this distant planet is approximately 4.52 m s².Understand the definition of a pendulum in physics. Learn how Newtonian mechanics describes the motion of pendulums, their period and frequency, through equations

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