Processed foods, like sweets, chips, and soda, often don't have much nutritional value, but they do include dietary fiber, which aids in the movement of food through the digestive system.
What food item doesn't contain dietary fiber?Milk doesn't include any dietary fiber. It is a great source of minerals, including calcium, proteins, and vitamins. Roughage or dietary fibers are mostly obtained from the other three food groups, which include whole grains, whole legumes, fresh fruits, and vegetables.
Which type of dietary fiber aids in digestion?Insoluble fiber helps bulk up the stool by passing through the colon largely undisturbed. Combining soluble and insoluble fiber affects the stool's consistency and other foods' digestion, assisting in the maintenance of appropriate intestinal function.
To know more about Processed foods visit:-
https://brainly.com/question/2804500
#SPJ1
this emerging disease is associated with airborne dust contaminated with urine, feces, or saliva of infected rodents.
Answer: I believe it is hantavirus pulmonary syndrome.
Select the correct answer.
Which of the following is a benefit of walking faster?
A.
Decreasing your anaerobic threshold
B.
Achieving a certain distance in less time
C.
Decreasing your heart rate
D.
Decreasing the amount of calories you burn
Benefits of walking fast includes achieving a certain distance in less time, option B.
What happens when you walk fast?Although speed walking does not burn as many calories as running, it can be an effective workout for raising heart rate, mood improvement, and increasing aerobic fitness level. Walking quickly is an anaerobic exercise was linked to additional benefits for all outcomes, including dementia, heart disease, cancer, and death.
Other benefits of walking fast include, losing body fat and maintaining a healthy weight, completing a specific distance in less time and improving the anaerobic threshold by enhancing oxygen flow.
Find out more on walking fast here: https://brainly.com/question/1480202
#SPJ1
the borderline personality disorder corresponds to which of the following disorder clusters? erratic eccentric anxious depressive
An individual with cluster B mental condition could struggle to regulate their emotions and behave erratically.
What is the opposite of erratic?Eccentric, weird, outrageous, peculiar, quaint, singular, bizarre, and distinctive are some popular synonyms for erratic. All of these phrases refer to "leaving from what is typical, anticipated, or usual," but erratic emphasizes a capricious and unforeseen wandering or deviating.
What results in irrational behavior?It could result from memory, anxiety, or sadness. But, particularly in the elderly, it can also be brought on by a tumor, a concussion, or even an urinary infection. Other side effects of certain drugs include personality changes. It's crucial to discuss any personality changes with your doctor.
To know more about Erratic visit:
https://brainly.com/question/19499243
#SPJ4
an imbalance in electrolyte and water levels can cause major life threatening health issues such as g
An imbalance in electrolyte and water levels can cause major life-threatening health issues such as when you have too important or not sufficient of unspecified minerals in your mass.
This imbalance may be a gesture of a matter like a manner disorder.
Electrolytes are minerals that present off an electrical indictment when they dematerialize in fluids like blood and urine. Your mass makes electrolytes. You likewise get these minerals from bread, drinks, and accretions.
Electrolytes in the house, hankie, urine, and distinctive body fluids disport a critical part in equating body fluids, measuring your heartbeat, and endorsing shivers and muscle events.
Water makes up further than half of your body’s load. Blood and fluid in and around chambers(sounded-off fluid cells) hold a max of this water.
To learn more about health refer to
https://brainly.com/question/13179079
#SPJ4
which of the following is true about environmental tobacco smoke (ets-also known as secondhand smoke)?
The statement "Children are commonly affected by ETS" is true about environmental tobacco smoke.
What is meant by Environmental tobacco smoke (ETS) ?
Environmental tobacco smoke (ETS) is the term used to describe exposure to tobacco smoke that didn't come from your own use of cigarettes, cigars, or pipes, but rather from being around it. The substance in indoor air that comes from tobacco smoking is known as ETS. ETS is also referred to as second-hand smoke, involuntary smoking, or passive smoking. Passive smoking, or involuntary smoking, refers to breathing in secondhand smoke. also known as ETS and environmental tobacco smoke.
Gases and solid particles make up tobacco smoke. In tobacco smoke, more than 7,000 distinct compounds have been found. There are reportedly roughly 70 of these compounds that have been linked to cancer in either people, animals, or both.
To learn more about environmental tobacco smoke from given link
https://brainly.com/question/1544829
#SPJ1
FIIL IN THE BLANK. Obtaining adequate amounts of calcium from foods and performing weight-bearing exercises are good ways for a young person to prevent ______ later in life.
For a young individual to avoid performing later in life, getting enough calcium from food sources and engaging in weight-bearing workouts are both beneficial.
Similar to muscle, bone is a living substance that gets stronger with exercise. Regular exercisers, including young men and women, typically reach peak bone mass (maximum bone density and strength) earlier than non-exercisers.
The third decade of life is when bone mass rises for the majority of people. We may start to lose bone after that point. Regular exercise can help men and women older than 20 years old prevent bone loss.
Maintaining our muscle power, coordination, and balance through exercise also helps us avoid falling and the subsequent fractures. The elderly and those with osteoporosis should pay particular attention to this.
Learn more about " weight-bearing exercises " to visit here;
https://brainly.com/question/29221679
#SPJ4
Use the scenario of Mr Dambo to answer the questions 4 to 6. Mr. Dambo, 43 years old, reports at clinic with history of chest pains. On physical examination the nurse notices that Mr Dambo has chest in drawings and basal crackles on auscultation.
18. What could be the cause of Mr Dambo's physical examination findings?
A. Pleural effusion
B. Collapsed lung
C. Lobar pneumonia
D. Tension pneumothorax
19. Where would a nurse observe the chest in drawings during the physical examination of Mr Dambo?
A. Interspaces
B. Sternal angle
C. Xyphoid process
D. Costal cartilage
20. What would the Nurse be looking for during palpation of Mr Dambo chest?
A. Masses
B. Crepitation
C. Breath sounds
D. Collapsed lung
1- Collapsed lung, 2- Xiphoid process, 3- Breath sounds. The nurse observes Mr. Dambo's chest drawings during a physical examination and basal crackles during auscultation.
Why is it crucial to examine the chest walls' shape during a physical examination?You can examine your chest to identify any externally apparent indications of respiratory function. Look for any lesions, scars, or wounds on the front, back, and sides of the chest. Assess the symmetry of the chest wall's motion. Keep track of how long the inspiratory/expiratory cycle lasts.
To evaluate the patient's bronchial breath sounds, where would the nurse place the stethoscope?Bronchial, bronchovesicular, and vesicular lung sounds are examples of typical breath sounds. The greatest places to hear bronchial breath sounds are over the trachea on the front of the chest and below the back of the neck on the back side of the chest.
to know more about Physical examination here:
brainly.com/question/14442720
#SPJ1
Which of these is a sign that someone might have an addiction problem and need help from a health care provider?
A. Talks to a teacher about the effects of drugs B. Asks classmates if they've ever tried drugs
C. Gets a speeding ticket on the way to school D. Engages in unnecessary risky behavior
The statement is a sign that someone might have an addiction problem and need help from a health care provider is talk to a teacher about the effects of the drugs that is present in Option A.
What is the addiction?When a person becomes attached to a specific behavior, knowing or not what the outcome will be, then this behavior is called addiction. Addiction, particularly drug addiction, is harmful for teenagers because they lack knowledge about it, so they require assistance in such cases from experts in the health care field.
Hence, the statement is a sign that someone might have an addiction problem and need help from a health care provider is talk to a teacher about the effects of the drugs that are present in Option A.
Learn more about the addiction here.
https://brainly.com/question/27951613
#SPJ1
Which of the following is NOT an example of a compensatory behavior used by people with eating disorders? A. Self-induced vomiting B. Misuse of laxatives C. Singeing on high-energy snack foods D. Excessive exercise
Singeing on high-energy snack foods is not an example of compensatory behavior. Therefore the correct option is c. Singeing on high-energy snack foods.
Compensatory behaviors solely affect people with consuming diseases serve in an endeavor to form up for enjoying eaten and ate calories. They're an offer to abolish guilt, anxiety, repentance, or distinct" bad" sensibilities about the meal eaten and the turn of eating it.
The most well-understood compensatory gest is self-induced vomiting. still, other exemplifications of compensatory actions in eating diseases involve the misuse of laxatives, misusage of diuretics( capsules intended to exclude excess water), abuse of colonics and enemas, and overuse of impulsive exercise.
It can likewise involve engaging in cleanses and drinking solitary teas with laxatives.
To learn more about the disorder refer to
https://brainly.com/question/21431209
#SPJ4
When we happen to touch a hot object sensory immediately passes message to the…?
Sensory neurons
The reflex action causes us to immediately pull our hand back if we unintentionally touch a hot object.
Reflex action is demonstrated by the instance where a hand touches a hot object and is immediately pulled back. Here, heat serves as the stimulus, the hand's skin serves as the receptor organ, and the muscles that move the hand serve as the effector organs.
The sensory neurons have skin-surface nerve endings that transmit the heat-induced impulse to the spinal cord. The motor/effector neuron receives it from the relay neuron and sends it on to the muscles, causing the hand to be retracted.
To read more about stimulus refer to:
brainly.com/question/21347989
When we happen to touch a hot object sensory immediately passes the message to the Spinal cord
When a hand touches a hot item and is promptly removed, the skin serves as a receptor, and the muscles operate as an effector organ. The incident of a hand contacting a hot object and quickly retracting it is an exemplification of reflex action. Heat functions as a stimulus, in this case, the skin of the hand is the receptor organ, and the muscles that are responsible for hand movement are the effector organs. The nerve terminals in the epidermis of the sensory neurons transmit heat-induced impulses to the spinal cord. The relay neuron sends it to the effector neuron also known as the motor neuron, which causes the muscles to contract and the hand to be retracted.
Read more about neurons from:
https://brainly.com/question/29521319
tally just heard that her neighbor, rupert, was involved in an automobile accident. if tally concludes that rupert's reckless driving habits caused the accident, she has
Tally just heard that her neighbor, rupert, was involved in an automobile accident. If tally concludes that rupert's reckless driving habits caused the accident, she has made an internal attribution. Correct answer: letter A.
Tally has made an internal attribution, because she has concluded that Rupert's own actions (in this case, his driving habits) caused the accident. Internal attributions are attributions that are made to explain an event or behavior as being the result of internal factors such as the individual's traits, abilities, or motivations.
The Power of Internal AttributionsAre ways in which human beings explain and understand the behavior of others. These attributions are based on the idea that a person's behavior is the result of his or her internal characteristics, abilities, or motivations. For example, if someone is late for a meeting, we might make an internal attribution that that person is disorganized or unpunctual.
These internal attributions have the power to significantly influence our opinions and judgments of others, as well as our own behavior.
Tally just heard that her neighbor, rupert, was involved in an automobile accident. If tally concludes that rupert's reckless driving habits caused the accident, she has:
a. Made an internal attribution.
b. Made a self-serving attribution.
c. Made an external attribution.
Learn more about Internal Attributions:
https://brainly.com/question/12634565
#SPJ4
many theorists today believe that personality disorders should be classified using: categories. emotionality traits. dimensions. sociability factors.
The answer to the statement above about the classification personality disorder is true.
The correct answer choice is option a.
What is meant by personality disorder?Personality disorder simply refers to an aspect of mental disorder which an individual has ill or odd way of thinking which results in a particular behavioral pattern.
However, this mental disorder is a function of certain emotionality traits which also affect the sociability of an individual.
In conclusion, we can now deduce from the explanation given above that personality disorder is an unhealthy mental condition and needs to be properly taken care of.
Complete question:
Many theorists today believe that personality disorders should be classified using: categories. emotionality traits. dimensions. sociability factors
a. true
b. false
Read more on personality disorder:
https://brainly.com/question/25764595
#SPJ1
which of the following are all common forms of viruses? group of answer choices packet tampering, worms, cakes, and trojan viruses polymorphic, sniffer, splogs, and denial-of-service viruses backdoor program, worm, trojan-horse viruses all of the choices
worms, Trojan-horse infections, and backdoor programs are all common form of viruses.
Viruses are not Trojan horses. This malicious software pretends to be a legitimate application. Trojan horses can be just as harmful as viruses despite not replicating themselves.
A worm replicates itself on the same computer, while a Trojan tries to spread over the network. -A worm collects data and sends it to a server, whereas a Trojan hides before spreading throughout a network. Exe files are used by viruses to spread. System weaknesses are exploited by worms in their attacks. A Trojan horse is a sort of malware that enters a program and appears to be useful software.
learn more about infection here;
https://brainly.com/question/26229132
#SPJ4
____is a psychotic disorder characterized by major disturbances in thought, emotion, perception, and behavior.
Schizophrenia is a psychotic disorder characterized by major disturbances in thought, emotion, perception, and behavior.
What is a psychotic disorder?
Psychotic disorders are mental health conditions that affect a person's thoughts, emotions, and behaviours. They cause people to experience delusions, hallucinations, and disorganized thoughts and behaviours. These symptoms can interfere with a person's ability to function in day-to-day life. Common examples of psychotic disorders include schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, delusional disorder, and bipolar disorder with psychotic features. Treatment for psychotic disorders typically involves a combination of antipsychotic medications, psychotherapy, and support services. With appropriate treatment and supportive care, many people with psychotic disorders can lead fulfilling lives.
One example of a psychotic disorder is schizophrenia. Patients with bipolar disorder may also display psychotic symptoms. Alcohol as well as some drugs, brain tumours, brain infections, as well as stroke are some other conditions that can result in psychosis. The psychosis's underlying cause will determine the course of treatment. Talk therapy and medications to control symptoms may be used.
To know more about psychotic disorder from given link
https://brainly.com/question/28199511
#SPJ1
as a clinician treating schizophrenia, you know that which of the following statements about second-generation antipsychotic drugs is true? group of answer choices
They do not considerably outperform first-generation medications in terms of alleviating adverse effects is the second-generation antipsychotic drugs.
Second-generation antipsychotics function by inhibiting serotonin receptor antagonist activity as well as D2 dopamine receptors. Serotonin receptors of the 5-HT2A subtype are most often engaged.Antipsychotics can typically lessen anxiety or aggressiveness after a few hours of treatment, but other symptoms, including hallucinations or delusional thinking, may take many days or weeks to go away. Conventional, and typical, antipsychotics like haloperidol, fluphenazine, & chlorpromazine have long been used to treat schizophrenia. Second gen antipsychotics (SGAs), commonly referred to as antipsychotic drugs, are a more recent family of antipsychotic drugs used to treat bipolar disorder, schizophrenia, and other associated mental diseases.
(As a clinician treating schizophrenia, you know that which of the following statements about
second-generation antipsychotic drugs is true?
a. They are not significantly more effective than first-generation drugs for treating negative symptoms.
b. Ultimately, they may decrease a patient's risk for diabetes and hypertension.
c. Most have more extrapyramidal side effects than first-generation drugs.
d. They have no adverse side effects.)
Learn more about drugs
https://brainly.com/question/4447845
#SPJ4
researchers analyzing the effectiveness of a vocational skills building program for formerly incarcerated individuals want to examine whether or not their participation in the program increases their vocational aptitude. vocational aptitude is measured using a 50-point continuous scale (with higher values indicating more vocational aptitude), and individuals are measured on vocational aptitude prior to entering the program, as well as immediately after completing the program. which one of the following tests would be appropriate for this analysis?
Vocational aptitude tests are suitable for measuring vocational aptitude before entering school and immediately after graduation.
Vocational aptitude tests cover a wider range of skill areas than school aptitude tests. For example, one of the most widely used task tests, differential ability, measures verbal, numerical, abstract, and mechanical reasoning. abstract relationships; writing speed and accuracy; and language usage.
Vocational skill is a collection of skills that make it easier to request, perform, and get the most out of a job. These skills are in high demand and coaching in these skills is usually inexpensive. Professional skills do not take long to complete coaching.
Learn more about vocational skills here : https://brainly.com/question/15133224
#SPJ4
social security and medicare benefits are typically available (choose best answer) multiple choice question. only to individuals who were not eligible to participate in a 401(k) plan. only to individuals whose income level at retirement falls below the poverty line. to individuals who paid payroll or self-employment tax during their working lives.
For their portion of the prescription medication coverage, Medicare enrollees with low incomes and resources are qualified for Extra Help. Individuals.
Should I pay on Medicare when I reach 65?The majority of persons who are 65 or older who have worked and paid Their taxes long enough are eligible to receive free Medicaid hospital insurance (Part A). By making a monthly premium payment, you can enroll in Medicare Part B medical insurance. A significant role Part B premium will be required from some beneficiaries having higher salaries.
What age do i must be in order to qualify for Medicare?For those who are 65 or older, there is Medicare. Three months before to turning 65, you are first eligible to enroll in Medicare. If you are disabled, have ESRD, or have ALS (commonly known as Lou Gehrig's illness), you could be able to acquire Medicare earlier.
To know more about Medicare visit:
https://brainly.com/question/14011571
#SPJ4
_____was a runaway slave from Colossae.
Philemon
Epaphras
Epaphroditus
Timothy
Answer;
Philemon was a runaway slave from Colossae.
Explanation:
Where can a skin puncture be performed
Answer: The third and fourth fingers are the preferred sites because the thumb has a pulse, the index finger may be calloused or sensitive, and the fifth finger has insufficient tissue depth to prevent bone injury.
____is credited with effectively campaigning for the improved treatment of the mentally ill, resulting in the first mental hospital in connecticut opening in 1824.
The Dorothea Dix is credited with effectively campaigning for the improved treatment of the mentally ill, resulting in the first mental hospital in Connecticut opening in 1824.
What is mentally illness ?
A mental illness is characterized as a medical disorder that affects a person's thinking, feelings, or behavior (or all three), and that results in the person experiencing anguish and having trouble doing daily tasks. Mental illness can range from moderate to severe, just like many other disorders.
What is Friends Asylum ?
Originally known as "The Asylum for Persons Deprived of the Use of Their Reason," Friends hospital "was founded by Quakers.
The examination of Dorothea Dix's notable reform initiatives that led to the construction or expansion of 32 state hospitals for the insane comes next. Additionally, she is credited with relocating the mentally sick from overcrowded jails and poorhouses to state-run mental hospitals.
Therefore, Dorothea Dixis credited with effectively campaigning for the improved treatment of the mentally ill, resulting in the first mental hospital in Connecticut opening in 1824.
Learn more about mentally illness from the given link.
https://brainly.com/question/933852
#SPJ1
To help adolescents meet their increased RDA for calcium, the Healthy U.S.-Style Dietary Patterns indicate that adolescents should consume of dairy foods (or fortified dairy alternatives) per day. A) 1 cup B) 2 cups C) 3 cups D) 5 cups
To help adolescents meet their increased RDA for calcium, the Healthy U.S.-Style Dietary Patterns indicate that adolescents should consume 2 cups of dairy foods.
What is the RDA of vitamin D?Vitamin D is a substance that we need to eat, but our bodies also make it into a hormone. It has a long history of assisting the body retain and absorb calcium and phosphorus, both of which are necessary for bone formation. It is a fat-soluble vitamin. Additionally, laboratory studies shows that vitamin D reduces inflammation, controls infections, and slows the development of cancer cells. Vitamin D contains receptors in numerous physiological organs and tissues, suggesting that it may have important functions beyond bone health. Scientists are currently investigating new potential uses for this vitamin.
The daily dose of vitamin D provided by the Recommended Dietary Allowance for healthy persons helps them maintain strong bones and a regular calcium metabolism. It suggests limited solar exposure.
The recommended daily amount (RDA) for adults is 600 IU (15 mcg) for men and women, and 800 IU (20 mcg) for people over 70.
To learn more about RDA visit:
https://brainly.com/question/29360971
#SPJ1
FILL IN THE BLANK. For men, binge drinking is defined as consuming ____ drinks or more in a row and for women, it is ______ or more drinks in a row.
The definition of binge drinking is having 5 or more in one sitting for men and 4 or more in one sitting for women.
For males, how many constitute a binge?Excessive drinking consists of: binge drinking 4 or more are considered a binge for women (one occasion is equal to 2-3 hours). Five or more are consumed in a single binge for men.
For men, what does the definition of binge drinking mean?More than five (for men) or four (for women) consumed in a span of two hours is considered binge drinking. The BAC will typically increase to 0.08 g/dL with this. Nearly 90% of the by people under the age of 21 is consumed binge-style.
To know more about drinking visit :-
https://brainly.com/question/24053880
#SPJ4
Commercial ice creams often have _____ as a result of air pumped into the mixture during manufacture, which makes them softer, creamier, and more economical
All of the following are true of oxytocin except?
-It promotes uterine contractions.
-It triggers prostate gland contraction.
-It is responsible for milk expression from the mammary glands.
-It is produced in the hypothalamus.
-It is stored in the anterior pituitary.
Except for being kept in the anterior pituitary, the preceding are true of oxytocin.
The natural hormone oxytocin promotes uterine contractions during delivery and nursing following childbirth. The male & female reproductive systems as well as some elements of human behavior are also impacted.
The posterior pituitary gland produces two hormones: oxytocin & vasopressin also referred to as the antidiuretic hormone.
The potential for the protein to act in a neuroendocrine manner controlling was established by the release of oxytocin near the long teleport vessels trying to connect the hypothalamus the with anterior pituitary gland as well as the presence of short portal vessels trying to connect the posterior lobe towards the anterior pituitary gland.
Learn more about oxytocin at
https://brainly.com/question/8492292?referrer=searchResults
#SPJ4
10. When setting boundaries, what should be the main point of your message?
A. Emphasize the choice you are making for yourself.
B. Meet other people's expectations for your behavior.
C. Establish a moral code that applies to all situations.
D. Judge others for the choices that they are making.
Answer:
A
Explanation:
which of the following is a condition common to basketball and volleyball plsayers characterized by pain irritation immediately inferior to the patella quizet
Patellar tendinitis is a condition common to basketball and volleyball players characterized by pain irritation immediately inferior to the patella.
Patellar tendinitis is a common overuse injury, caused by repeated stress on your patellar tendon. The stress results in tiny tears in the tendon, which your body attempts to repair. But as the tears in the tendon multiply, they cause pain from inflammation and weakening of the tendon.
Usually, pain from patellar tendinitis is on the front part of your knee, just below your kneecap.
Jumper's knee, also known as patellar tendonitis, is a condition characterized by inflammation of your patellar tendon.
To learn more about patellar, click here:
https://brainly.com/question/29610148
#SPJ4
True or False: Of the many sugars that can be present in the urine, only glucose and galactose signify a pathologic condition.
True. Only the presence of glucose and galactose, two of the various sugars that can be found in the urine, indicates a pathologic situation.
Pathologic behavior: what is it?When someone behaves in an excessive and undesirable manner and exhibits intense feelings that they are unable to control, you can refer to that person or their conduct as pathological. His chronic, bordering on pathological jealousy. When someone behaves in an abnormal and inappropriate manner, you can refer to that person or their conduct as pathological.
What are the repercussions of pathology?Greek word pathologikos, which means "treatment of diseases" and where pathos is "suffering," is where the word "pathological" originates. Anyone who studies that works with disorders, from their origin to their indications, may identify the pathological repercussions of the disease, or how it affects its victims.
To know more about pathologic visit:
https://brainly.com/question/29486857
#SPJ4
Arthur is 65 years old, and his BMI classifies him as obese. Which of the following is he LEAST likely to be at risk for?
A) dementia
B) cognitive decline
C) type 1 diabetes
D) Alzheimer's disease
The correct option is A ; Dementia , The greater a person's BMI, the greater their percentage of body fat. - A BMI of less than 20 may suggest underweight. - If your BMI is between 20 and 25, you are generally at a healthy weight for your height. Obesity is defined as a BMI greater than 35.
According to the BMI weight status classifications, anyone with a BMI between 25 and 29.9 is considered overweight, while anyone with a BMI greater than 30 is considered obese.
Obesity is typically induced by overeating and inactivity. If you ingest a lot of energy, especially fat and carbohydrates, but don't burn it off through exercise and physical activity, your body will store a lot of it as fat.
Learn more about to Obesity visit here;
https://brainly.com/question/11366349
#SPJ4
(T/F) If you did not correct the underwater weight for the air remaining in the lungs at the time of measurement you would underestimate body fatness.
If you did not correct the underwater weight for the air remaining in the lungs at the time of measurement you would underestimate body fatness. - True
As the amount of air which is remaining in the lungs is called residual air.
To determine how effectively a person's lungs are working, doctors do tests that measure residual air volume. After exhaling, it's customary to still have some air in your lungs to prevent lung collapse.
If the remaining volume in the lungs is not directly measured or precisely calculated, error may be added.
A person's age and height can be used to determine residual volume, or it can be assessed using gas dilution techniques.
Hence, The answer is True
For more questions on residual air
https://brainly.com/question/9500884
#SPJ4
Patient presents for an excision of a sacral pressure ulcer with ostectomy, with primary suture. CPT Code: ____________________
Patient presents for an excision of a sacral pressure ulcer with ostectomy, with primary suture. CPT Code: 15933
Although a pressure ulcer first appears as a minor skin wound, it can later spread to the underlying tissue and even the bone. Surgeons advise surgical removal of the ulcer with ostectomy in serious situations where the lesion has spread to the bone. The surgical excision of a bone's fragment is known as an osteotomy. Additionally, because a significant quantity of tissue is sacrificed during the procedure, the afflicted area is closed using a technique known as flap or skin graft surgery. Pressure ulcers progress via 4 phases. Typically, surgery is not needed in stages 1 and 2.
learn more about ostectomy here
https://brainly.com/question/13694276
#SPJ4