A healthy meal from a fast food restaurant might be an avocado, tuna and egg sandwich.
What are the nutritional values of the sandwich?The sandwich consists of two slices of wholegrain bread, half a mashed avocado, 3 tablespoons of grated tuna and 1 boiled egg. The sandwich's carbohydrate source is contained in the two slices of wholegrain bread, which contains an average of 135 calories, whose macros are 72% carbohydrates, 14% fat and 14% protein.
The amount of half an avocado, equivalent to 100gr, has an amount of 160 calories, containing approximately 12gr of fat, which is a monounsaturated fatty acid, a healthy fat if associated with a healthy diet.
The 3 tablespoons of tuna have an average of 53 calories and 12gr of fat. And to complement the ingredients, a boiled egg has 77 calories, and 6.25 grams of protein.
The amount of fat recommended per day by the WHO is 66gr, and that of protein is 48gr, so according to nutritional values, the sandwich is a healthy option for food.
Therefore, it is also important to discuss the amount of sodium used in meals, whose recommended daily amount is 5gr, and meals should be seasoned with healthier herbs and seasonings. This information will affect future food choices through knowledge that gives the opportunity for healthier food choices.
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a client who is living with chronic pain has received a health care provider's order for tens. when applying the device to the client's skin, the nurse should do what action?
Pain that is nociceptive is chronic musculoskeletal pain. Such pain is treated in a staged manner using a combination of non-pharmacological, non-opioid, and opioid analgesics. Start with the lowest intensity and raise it to the right level gradually.
What is the standard of care for chronic pain?
Pain that is nociceptive is chronic musculoskeletal pain. Such pain is treated in a staged manner using a combination of non-pharmacological, non-opioid, and opioid analgesics. Acetaminophen or NSAIDs would be the first line of treatment. Both are successful in treating osteoarthritis and persistent back pain.
The first line of treatment for mild to moderate pain, such as that caused by a headache, skin injury, or musculoskeletal disease, is typically acetaminophen. For the treatment of osteoarthritis and back pain, acetaminophen is frequently given. To lessen the amount of opioid required, it may also be used with opioids.
The objective is to gradually increase function while staying within pain and discomfort tolerance levels. Over a three-month period, patients have been observed to increase their physical strength and endurance by 50 to 100%.
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two parents who are arguing in their infant’s room, with voices raised and getting louder, start to hit each other. the infant is crying. which action should the staff nurse take next? remove infant
C. Remove the infant from the room.
The nurse's top concern is safeguarding the infant against harm as the situation worsens. Therefore, the nurse's initial course of action should be to remove the newborn from this circumstance. According to a study, babies will start to react negatively to furious or scowling facial expressions by the time they are 6 months old. Furthermore, infants that are exposed to conflict may experience elevated heart rates, that also triggers the release of stress hormones.
Hormones- Chemicals called hormones function in the body as messenger molecules. They are created in one area of the body and then go to other areas where they assist regulate how cells & organs function. For instance, the pancreatic beta cells produce the hormone insulin.
The given question is incomplete, find below the complete question,
Q. Two parents who are arguing in their infant's room, with voices raised and getting louder, start to hit each other. The infant is crying. Which action should the staff nurse take next?
a) Try to reason with both of the parents.
b) Call security to come and break up the fight.
c) Remove the infant from the room.
d) Ask one of the parents to leave the room.
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Most of the pharmacy standards that Apply to pharmacy technicians are grouped into the categories of?
Most of the pharmacy standards that apply to pharmacy technicians are grouped into the categories of option a. professional standards, facilities standards, and product storage and distribution standards.
What does a pharmaceutical standard mean?The guidelines for pharmacy professionals outline how to provide safe and efficient care. They are a declaration of the standards that the public has for pharmacists and also represent the standards that pharmacists have expressed for both themselves and their colleagues.
Note that Each and every pharmacist makes a contribution to the delivery and enhancement of patient and public health, safety, and wellbeing. In that capacity, professionalism and safe as well as effective practice are essential. One requirement for pharmacists is that they give patient-centered treatment.
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Most of the pharmacy standards that apply to pharmacy technicians are grouped into the categories of
a. professional standards, facilities standards, and product storage and distribution standards.
b. quality standards, communication standards, and safety and security standards.
c. quality standards, facilities standards, informational security, product storage, and infection control security.
d. operational security, informational security, equipment security, workplace security, and infection control security.
a nurse is preparing to administer an antidepressant medication to an older adult client with depression. which information would the nurse need to keep in mind?
The nurse needs to keep in mind that the side effects that can occur in older adults are likely to be significant.
What is antidepressant medication?Antidepressants are medications used to treat major depressive disorder, some anxiety disorders, some chronic pain conditions, and to help manage some addictions. Common side-effects of antidepressants include dry mouth, weight gain, dizziness, headaches, sexual dysfunction, and emotional blunting.
Antidepressant medications are used to treat the symptoms of depression. Antidepressant medications act on chemical substances found in the brain, called neurotransmitters, which are deficient or out of balance in persons with depression.
Medications used to treat depression usually come with side effects. The specific changes you may experience depend in part on the class of drug you're taking.
Common side effects:
Gastrointestinal symptoms: indigestion, diarrhea, constipation, loss of appetite.
ill feeling: headache, dizziness, dry mouth, sweating.
nervousness: restlessness, shakiness, nervous feeling
Changes in heart rhythm: Palpitations, fast heartbeat.
vision changes: blurred vision
Weight changes: unexpected weight loss or weight gain.
Sexual dysfunction: low sex drive
Sleep changes: Insomnia
Hence, The nurse needs to keep in mind that the side effects that can occur in older adults are likely to be significant.
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patient-reported outcomes and factors associated with achieving the minimal clinically important difference after acl reconstruction: results at a mean 7.7-year follow-up
At the 2-year and final follow-ups, respectively, almost 95% and 89% of patients stated that they were happy with the surgical result.
What is ACL?One of two cruciate ligaments found in the human knee is the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL). Due to their crossed configuration, the 2 ligaments are often known as "cruciform" ligaments. Based on its anatomical location, it is also known as the cranial cruciate ligament in the quadruped stifle joint. The word "cruciate" means "cross" in English.
This term is appropriate given that the ACL forms a "X" with the posterior cruciate ligament. It helps to restrain overly vigorous action because it is made of sturdy, fibrous material. This is accomplished by reducing the joint's range of motion.
At the 2-year and final follow-ups, respectively, almost 95% and 89% of patients stated that they were happy with the surgical result.
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Answer:
Explain why six accumulators each of elctromotive foce two volts connect in series can be used to start the engine of a car where as eight dry cell each of electromotive force 1.5v connected in series cannot be used
when preparing to examine a client's sclera and conjunctiva during an eye examination, the nurse should instruct the client to move both eyes to look in which direction?
The nurse should instruct the client to move both eyes to look up when preparing to examine a client's sclera and conjunctiva during an eye examination.
What are sclera and conjunctiva?The conjunctiva can be defined as the eye membrane that covers the sclera, which plays a fundamental role in protecting the eye from the entry of foreign particles into the air. This membrane is located up to the cornea.
Therefore, we can conclude that the conjunctiva is found up to the cornea and therefore it can be visualized when moving both eyes to look up.
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a novice nurse is sharing a newly published research article which outlines a different approach in preventing a wound infection after surgery with a colleague and states the nurse is going to try this new method. which is the best response from the colleague?
Before trying the new method, the nurse should "wait until the method is analyzed to ensure it will be appropriate for their clients".
How should nurses implement newly published research articles?
Nurses assist patients in care and case management, treating health conditions. A novice nurse has 1–2 years of experience, while in some cases they might have less than a year of experience as a novice is a newly graduated nurse.
Before implementing a newly published research article that outlines a different approach to preventing wound infection after surgery, the nurses should study the new practices and confirm it will be appropriate for their patient and they should also make sure that the procedure is suitable for their patient's situation.
In summary, a novice nurse does not have much work experience and as such, the nurse should not conclude that every published research article will be suitable practice for treating their patient.
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an informatics nurse is applying the informatics framework to a clinical situation. which component of the framework would the nurse apply first? wisdom
Data is the component of the nursing framework that the nurse would apply first.
The American Nurses Association provided the following explanation of what nursing informatics is: "a specialty that integrates nursing science, computer science, and information science to manage and communicate data, information, knowledge, and wisdom in nursing practice"
The links between data, Information, knowledge, and wisdom are shown by the D I K W Pyramid. Data comes first in the structure, followed by information, knowledge, and wisdom. Each component constitutes a step on the ladder.
DATA:- (Foundation for information) The simplest elements of the framework .Information:- (Data and context) In a certain context, data has the meaning attributed to it. It is a set of information that has been analyzed, arranged, or structured.Knowledge:-(Information and Meaning) Information that has been combined in a way that defines relationships and interactions.Wisdom:- (Knowledge, insight and Action) a suitable use of knowledge to control and address the human issues.To Know more about Nursing Informatics visit:
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a client at 38 weeks' gestation has an ultrasound performed at a routine office visit and learns that her fetus has not moved out of a breech position. which intervention does the nurse anticipate for this client?
Since the client at 38 weeks' gestation has an ultrasound performed at a routine office visit, the intervention does the nurse anticipate for this client is option B: External cephalic version.
What is the External cephalic version?An external cephalic version occurs when a fetus is turned from breech to cephalic before birth. Although the typical window is 37 to 38 weeks of pregnancy, it can be done as early as 34 to 35 weeks.
When a woman's inlet measurement is just adequate) and the fetal lay and position are satisfactory, a trial birth is undertaken. This entails letting labor progress normally for as long as the presenting part continues to descend and the cervix continues to dilate.
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See options below
Which intervention does the nurse anticipate for this client?
a) Vacuum extraction
b) External cephalic version
c) Trial labor
d) Forceps birth
a stroke patient can recognize the sound of his wife's voice but cannot recognize her face when she stands next to him. which brain region has most likely been damaged?
Answer:
Fusiform Gyrus
Explanation:
The fusiform gyrus is said to play a role in facial recognition. It is located on the inferior portion of the temporal lobe.
the nurse assesses that a fetus is in an occiput posterior position. the nurse predicts the client will experience which situation related to this assessment?
the nurse is assessing a newborn in the nursery. the nurse notes the infant has episodes in which breathing ceased for 20 seconds on 2 occasions. the nurse correctly recognizes this condition as:
The nurse is assessing a newborn in the nursery, so she notes the infant has episodes in which breathing ceased for 20 seconds on 2 occasions and the nurse correctly recognizes this condition as apnea.
Apnea could be a probably serious upset within which respiration repeatedly stops and starts. If you snore loudly and feel tired even once a full night's sleep, you would possibly have sleep disorder. the most varieties of sleep disorder are: clogging sleep disorder, the additional common kind that happens once throat muscles relax.
It's normal for newborn baby to own short pauses in respiration. In child symptoms of apnea, these pauses are too long, and therefore the heart slows down an excessive amount of. this can be additional common in premature babies born before thirty seven weeks. Symptom could be a pause in respiration.
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Describe professional negligence and give an example
Professional negligence is defined as it is a term that occur when a professional done mistakes in their duty.
What is professional negligence?Professional Negligence can be a somewhat confusing term but essentially, it is when a professional, for example, a solicitor or barrister, surveyor, accountant, architect, or independent financial adviser, has failed to professional negligence is also termed malpractice. It occurs when a professional breaches a duty to a client and must be able to satisfy the Court that the professional owed you a duty of care, that they breached that duty, and this caused you financial loss which was reasonable. It is necessary to show that the professional did not comply with the standard of care owed. Negligence will be established only if the professional has made an error that no reasonable member of that profession would have made, in the same circumstances.
So we can conclude that professional negligence occurs when a professional breaches a duty to a client.
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the nurse is observing a client who is sitting alone in the day room and is intently focused on a nearby empty chair. suddenly the client begins laughing hysterically and making frantic hand gestures at the chair. when the nurse approaches the client, the client looks over at the chair, whispers something unintelligible, and shakes their head. how would the nurse best assess the client’s behavior in this situation?
Say "Tell me what's going on" as you calmly approach the client
This sort of fervently unpleasant impact is conveyed through exuberant scenes of laughing while also sobbing, or by other fervent performances. This results from a neurologic problem or brain injury as a byproduct. Some people may chuckle when they experience emotions other than amusement, such worry or scorn, even without a diagnosis. Unwanted laughing can also result from neurological conditions. A syndrome known as pseudobulbar affect (PBA) is characterized by bursts of uncontrolled and inappropriate sobbing or laughter. PBA is not regarded as a mental disorder; rather, it is a neurological defect.
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the nurse is performing an assessment of a client who has experienced a traumatic event. in understanding the client’s ability to cope with the event, what question would the nurse ask first?
The nurse would ask first question is, How have you previously dealt with a stressful situation?
Stressful Situation- Being overburdened with labor or responsibilities. working a hard day. being poorly managed, having ambiguous job objectives, or not having any influence over how decisions are made. working under hazardous circumstances.
The adrenal medulla produces the hormone adrenaline when someone perceives a situation as stressful, preparing the body for just a response of flight or fight.
Adrenaline and cortisol, among other stress hormones, are released by the nervous system in response to a threat, rousing the body to take rapid action. Your breathing quickens, your pulse quickens, your muscles tense up, and your senses sharpen.
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15. fritz jk, waddell bs, kitziger kj, peters pc, gladnick bp. is dislocation risk due to posterior pelvic tilt reduced with direct anterior approach total hip arthroplasty? j arthroplasty. 2021;36(11):3692-3696. doi:10.1016/j.arth.2021.07.003
Demonstrate no elevated risk for THA dislocation in patients who underwent a DA approach and had a PSCD 0 mm.
What causes dislocation after hip replacement?Impingement is the most typical dislocation mechanism. A dislocation that shifts the head to the anterior or posterior can be brought on by osteophytes on either the acetabular or femoral side, capsular tissue, or scar tissue. The abductors and adductors exert force on the femur, proximizing it.
The surgeon performs an anterior hip replacement by making a small incision close to the front of the hip to enable the removal of worn-out bone and cartilage and the implantation of an artificial hip without injuring nearby muscles and tendons. Patients are discharged from the hospital earlier than they otherwise might be.
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nurses at the city safe hospital must successfully pass a professionally developed and validated test to be promoted in their jobs. recently, the hospital discovered that african-american and hispanic nurses taking the test scored significantly lower than white nurses, and none qualified for promotion. therefore, based on
Nurses at the city safe hospital must successfully pass a professionally developed and validated test to be promoted in their jobs and recently, the hospital discovered that African-American and Hispanic nurses taking the test scored significantly lower than white nurses, and none qualified for promotion is therefore, based on Ricci v DeStefano.
The City Safe Hospital ought to use the test scores in creating promotions to avoid discrimination against white nurses. Discrimination can be providing by crafting a solid promotion policy, keeping the process fair and equitable, and affirmative action requires a more stringent process and also develop the proper systematic rules for eligibility of promotion.
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a patient undergoes a total laryngectomy along with a radical neck dissection, as well as emergency endotracheal intubation. the coder assigns code 31365 and 31500-51. according to cpt guidelines, this code assignment is
The whole larynx is removed during a total laryngectomy. Your pharynx may also be removed in part. Total laryngectomy with radical neck dissection is 31365.
What is meant by total laryngectomy?The whole larynx is removed during a total laryngectomy. Your pharynx may also be removed in part. The mucous membrane-lined passageway between your esophagus and nasal passages is known as your pharynx. To access the area, the surgeon will make a cut in your neck.
All laryngeal structures and a portion of the upper trachea are removed during a total laryngectomy treatment, which results in the airway being disconnected and leaving a permanent breathing hole in the neck (tracheostomy).
Your sense of smell won't be as strong as it once was after a laryngectomy. You need air to pass through your nose in order to smell things. This no longer happens spontaneously since your mouth and nose are no longer connected to your breathing.
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puckett jr, pickering jw, palmer sc, et al. low versus standard urine output targets in patients undergoing major abdominal surgery: a randomized noninferiority trial. ann surg. 2017;265(5):874-881. doi:10.1097/sla.0000000000002044
A perioperative urine output goal of 0.2 mL/kg/h is non-inferior to the standard goal of 0.5 mL/kg/h and results in significant intravenous fluid sparing.
This target should be used in surgical patients who do not have any significant risk factors for kidney injury. The low group received 3170 mL (95% confidence interval 2380-3960) intravenous fluids versus 5490 mL (95% confidence interval 4570-6410) in the standard group (P = 0.0004), and was non-inferior for neutrophil gelatinase-associated lipocalin [14.7 g/L (interquartile range 7.60-28.9) vs 18.4 g/L (interquartile range 8.30-21.2); Pnoninfer After surgery, effective renal plasma flow increased in both groups, but more in the standard group (Pnoninferiority = 0.125).
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a 5-year-old is being prepared for diagnostic cardiac catheterization, in which the catheter will be inserted in the right femoral vein. what intervention should the nurse take to prevent infection?
According to the statement Prior to the surgery, avoid taking a blood sample from the right femoral vein.
What is the purpose of a catheter?When patients have trouble urinating on their own, they typically utilize a urinary catheter. Additionally, it can be used to aid with several tests and to empty the bladder prior to or following surgery.
What negative affects might a catheter have?The greatest danger of utilizing a urinary catheter is the potential for bacterial ingestion. This may result in an infection of the bladder, urethra, or, less frequently, the kidneys. Urinary tract infections are this group of infections (UTIs).
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the nurse is caring for a client who has a gastrostomy tube feeding. upon initiating care, the nurse aspirates the gastrotomy tube for gastric residual volume (grv) and obtains 200 ml of gastric contents. what is the priority action by the nurse?
Answer: Place the client in a semi-Fowler's position with the head of the bed at 45 degrees.
an adult patient becomes unresponsive while you are attempting to clear their obstructed airway. after providing 30 compressions, you open the patient’s mouth and look for an object. if you do not see the object, which action should you attempt next?
Lean back and cover either their mouth or nose with your mouth. Give them two steady breaths of air. Pinch your nose if you are breathing through your mouth.
Briefing :Start CPR right away, starting with compressions, if an adult, child, or infant who has suffered from a foreign body airway obstruction becomes unresponsive after the rescuer has dispatched someone to activate the emergency response system. CPR is performed exactly the same way on an unconscious choking victim. Unresponsive people who are choking shouldn't be given breaths.
What should be performed as soon since an airway obstruction is corrected?The head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver is the easiest and most efficient one to use during treatment while under sedation when any soft tissue airway obstruction develops. The airway is effectively opened in this position.
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one study found a reduction in the rate of cardiovascular events during standard time in particular, suggesting that the chronic effects of daylight saving time may lead to a higher risk of adverse health problems when compared with standard time.
Daylight saving time effect on our heart.
Does Daylight Savings Time Affect Your heart?Daylight saving time takes a toll on your heart. One study found a 24 percent increase in heart attacks on the Monday after daylight saving time starts. Another found the risk of stroke is 8 percent higher on the two days following the time change.
After the European Union decided to ask citizens about their opinions on daylight saving time, a small percentage of European citizens said they did not want to change the time twice a year. However, there are still concerns about the biomedical and clinical significance of this position, and consensus is lacking. An international group of experts convened in August 2018 to review the literature on the many effects potentially attributable to circadian variation caused by daylight saving time and to clarify and define whether daylight saving time observance should be considered a hazardous or risky behavior in terms of health and well-being. Accordingly, the authors of the first version of the Consensus on the Effects of Daylight Saving Time on the Circadian Time System concluded that:
(1) although the exact mechanisms are not currently certain, there is sufficient literature demonstrating the negative effects of daylight saving time on various levels of the circadian time system, either in relation to the master circadian clock and several peripheral oscillators on which adequate organic function depends;
(2) there is evidence of the potentially negative effects of daylight saving time-induced disruption of the circadian time system associated with various adverse health outcomes, daylight saving time should be eliminated.
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an 80-year-old client comes to the clinic reporting shortness of breath. when listening to the client's lungs, the nurse hears crackles (intermittent, high- and low- pitched popping sounds in the lower bases of the lungs) during inspiration. in which conditions might the nurse auscultate crackles? select all that apply.
Since an 80-year-old client comes to the clinic reporting shortness of breath. when listening to the client's lungs, the conditions might the nurse auscultate crackles are:
2. Acute respiratory distress syndrome
3. Pneumonia
4. Pulmonary edema
Where do you Auscultate for crackles?Crackles are most audible during the first, deep breathes at the posterior lung bases. If the small airways remain open during the duration of the examination, these fine crackles will go away after numerous such breaths or deliberate coughing. Additionally crucial is the crackle's timing.
Note that Pneumonia, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and heart failure are clinical situations where crackles may be present.
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an 80-year-old client comes to the clinic reporting shortness of breath. when listening to the client's lungs, the nurse hears crackles (intermittent, high- and low- pitched popping sounds in the lower bases of the lungs) during inspiration. in which conditions might the nurse auscultate crackles? select all that apply.I painless spin 2. Acute respiratory distress syndrome, 3. Pneumonia, 4. Pulmonary edema
a 35-year-old patient undergoing initial therapy for acute myeloid leukemia has tolerated the chemotherapy well. however, 6 days after the initiation of chemotherapy and ~10 days after the insertion of an indwelling transthoracic intravenous device (hickman catheter), he develops a fever. examination is negative except for erythema and tenderness at the insertion site and along the subcutaneous tunnel. blood cultures and chest x-ray are negative. the most appropriate course of action at this point is to
The most appropriate course of action to take at this point is to terminate the indwelling transthoracic intravenous device (hickman catheter).
What is acute myeloid leukemia?Acute myeloid leukemia is defined as the cancer of the bone marrow which is characterized with an increase in the production of white blood cells that are immature.
The clinical manifestations that presents with the acute myeloid leukemia is related with the following:
Low number of red blood cellsLow number of normal white blood cellsLow blood platelet countsHigh number of leukemia cellsBleeding and clotting problems,Bone or joint pain andSwelling in the abdomen.One of the effective treatment used for the management of acute myeloid leukemia is chemotherapy through the use of indwelling transthoracic intravenous device (hickman catheter).
After the insertion of an indwelling transthoracic intravenous device (hickman catheter), it is the work of the nurse to observe the patient for an adverse effect due to the use of the catheter.
The development of fever after insertion signifies an unintended effect, therefore the catheter should be terminated and an alternative route of drug administration should be used for the chemotherapy.
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a client approaching end-of-life reports dyspnea as being 7 on a scale from 0 to 10. which action will the nurse take to assist this client?42159807/chapter-7-end-of-life-care-flash-cards/
In order to assist the patient, the nurse must assist the patient in easing the discomfort that occurs with Dyspnea. One example would be to ensure that they are placed on oxygen.
What is the Dyspnea Scale?Dyspnea is defined as shortness of breath. A dyspnea scale is a way to describe shortness of breath when exercising. The scale can be used during pulmonary rehabilitation exercises or at home.
During exercise or chores, a healthcare specialist will educate one on how to utilize the Rating of Perceived Dyspnea (RPD) scale.
This scale allows one to rate their level of shortness of breath. RPD is measured on a scale of 0 to 10.
A score of 0 indicates that one is experiencing no shortness of breath. At 10, the patent is out of breath and must discontinue the exercise or activity.
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a nurse is working on a community project that will teach first responders how to be prepared for a pandemic flu. select the priority intervention from the following statements.
The priority intervention from the limit person-to-person transmission.
Briefing :When a disease spreads across continental boundaries, it is referred to as a pandemic. The emergence of quick international travel increased the possibility of pathogenic microorganism pandemic transmission. Implementing public health measures to lessen person-to-person transmission must be the main response strategy.
Pathogenic microorganism :An organism that can infect a host with disease is known as a pathogenic organism (person). The World Health Organization (WHO) listed potentially harmful bacteria, viruses, toxins, parasites, and chemicals as hazards that may be present in food. organisms, such as bacteria, viruses, or cysts, that can infect a host and cause diseases like typhoid, cholera, or dysentery (such as a person).
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stephen complains to his doctor of frequent urination and extreme thirst. over the past 3 months, he also lost 12 pounds without dieting. his doctor sends him for tests to see if he has
Since Stephen complained to his doctor of frequent urination and extreme thirst, his doctor should send him for tests to see if he has diabetes.
What is diabetes?Diabetes can be defined as a type of disease which occurs when sufficient (enough) insulin is not being produced by the pancreas or when the body does not respond properly to the ones that are being produced.
This ultimately implies that, diabetes is a type of disease that is typically related to a malfunctioning pancreas.
Based on medical records, some of the symptoms of diabetes include the following:
High frequency of hunger.Loss of weight.Frequent urination.Tingling hands or feet.Fatigue Blurry visionHigh appetite for water or an extreme thirst.In this context, we can reasonably infer and logically deduce that Stephen is most likely suffering from diabetes based on the symptoms he is experiencing.
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a patient is being evaluated for acute respiratory distress syndrome (ards). on assessment of the patient, the nurse notes tachypnea, dyspnea, and confusion. for which test would the nurse expect to prepare the patient to confirm the diagnosis of ards?
The diagnosis of acute respiratory distress syndrome, ARDS is mostly based on the physical exam, chest X-ray and oxygen levels.
The signs and symptoms of ARDS can differ in intensity, depending on cause and severity and also the presence of underlying heart or lung disease.
Symptoms include:
Extreme shortness of breath.
Unusual rapid breathing.
Low blood pressure.
Confusion
Extreme tiredness.
Treatment for ARDS aims at increasing blood oxygen levels, providing breathing support and treating the underlying cause of the disease. Most of the ARDS patients are placed on a mechanical ventilator in hospital.
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