Describe how the two tools of molecular biology—often described as scissors and glue—are used in conjunction with plasmids to make copies of a gene of interest.

Answers

Answer 1

Restriction enzymes act as molecular scissors producing cuts at or near sequence specific regions (i.e, restriction sites) at both the strands of a double stranded DNA molecule. On the other hand, DNA ligase enzymes act as molecular glue and help in joining the fragmented DNA pieces together by forming phosphodiester bonds.

What are restriction enzymes?

Restriction enzymes are naturally found in bacterial and archaebacterial cells. Such enzymes protect these unicellular cells by cleaving and destroying foreign genetic particles injected by bacteriophages (i.e, viral molecules responsible for infecting bacterial cells). Classically, there are four types of restriction enzymes i.e, types I, II, III and IV. Example: EcoRI, EcoRII, HindIII, etc.

What is DNA ligase?

DNA ligase, a specific kind of enzyme helps in connecting fragmented DNA strands by facilitating the creation of a phosphodiester bond. It helps the cells to repair single-strand breaks in their duplex DNA, while other varieties (like DNA ligase IV) may only repair double-strand breaks (i.e. a break in both complementary strands of DNA). DNA ligase uses the corresponding strand of the double helix as a template to repair single-strand breaks, producing the last phosphodiester bond necessary to finish the repair of the DNA. Thus, both DNA replication and DNA repair need DNA ligase. Example: T4 DNA ligase, E.coli DNA ligase, etc.

What is molecular cloning?

In this process, a particular gene of interest or the insert can be introduced into a plasmid vector by producing a cut at both the vector and the gene with the same enzyme thus, producing sticky ends and ligating the two fragmented pieces together to produce a recombinant product.

What is the role of the restriction enzymes in molecular cloning?

The isolated DNA has to be incubated with the specific restriction enzymes under optimal conditions.This helps the restriction enzymes in producing sequence specific cuts at specific restriction sites in the DNA molecules. This catalytic reaction is called restriction digestion.Agarose Gel Electrophoresis helps in analyzing the progression of the restriction digestion reactions.On the other hand, the plasmid vector DNA also has to be processed using similar procedures.

What is the role of the DNA ligase enzymes in molecular cloning?

Ligation is the process of fusing the two DNA fragments together with the enzyme, DNA ligase.The interest molecule and the vector are combined to create the final DNA molecule. As a result, the new hybrid DNA molecule is also referred to as a recombinant DNA molecule, and the technique is known as recombinant DNA technology.

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Answer 2

Restriction enzymes are considered as scissors that cleave DNA into fragments at or near specific recognition sites. DNA ligases act as a glue that helps in joining the DNA strands together by catalyzing the formation of a phosphodiester bond.

What are restriction enzymes?

These are protein isolated from bacteria that cleaves DNA sequences at sequence-specific sites, producing DNA fragments with a known sequence at each end. It helps in recombinant DNA technology and genetic engineering.

What are the DNA ligases?

It is a specific type of enzyme that plays a role in, maintaining genomic integrity by repairing single-strand breaks in duplex DNA in living organisms.

In the gene cloning process, Both the plasmid and the DNA sequence of interest are cut with restriction enzymes to generate compatible overhang sticky ends that allow them to bind. The enzyme DNA ligase joins the fragments with matching ends together to form a single, unbroken molecule of DNA. This produces a recombinant plasmid that contains the target gene.

Hence restriction enzymes act as molecular scissors and ligases act as a molecular glue.

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Related Questions

What would be the sequence of nucleotides made from GCTATG

Answers

The base pair of them would be:

CGATAC

(A goes with T; G, with C)
The sequence would be
CGATAC

A small, flowering plant has white flowers with bright red spots on them. When this flowering plant is self-pollinated, it produces new plants with either red flowers, white flowers, or white flowers with red spots. What is the most likely explanation for this phenomenon?.

Answers

The red and white flower alleles are codominant.

Mendel explain that any trait, for the organism that contains its alleles that should be dominant and recessive. Offspring from the cross of a homozygous red-flowered plant with a homozygous white-flowered plant will have red flowers.

In general, Pattern of inheritance is also termed  as incomplete dominance, that means  neither of the alleles is completely dominant on each other and  both the alleles can appear at the same time. If allele for red flowers is incomplete dominance over the allele for white flowers. Then the combination will be Red + white = pink.

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You use several model organisms in your lab's research. which of your model organisms would you expect to exhibit a higher mutation frequency?

a. D. melanogaster
b. S. typhimurium
c. M. musculus
d. E. coli

Answers

M. musculus is a model organism that would show a greater mutation frequency.

M. musculus is a favorite model organism since its genome is 85% identical to the human genome. Mice are nonetheless simpler to care for, breed, and study despite being bigger than other model species.

M. musculus is a crucial research tool for simulating the progression and development of human diseases in the lab.

Mice and people are biologically similar, and they share many diseases for the same genetic causes. It is simple to genetically modify mice to imitate almost any human disease.

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As a group, the mollusks are morphologically diverse, but they do share several defining features. Complete the following sentences about mollusk characteristics with the correct terms.

Mollusks have a thick epidermal sheet or __________, which covers the dorsal side of the body.

The __________ has been adapted for a number of different functions across the phylum including locomotion, attachment, feeding, and digging.

Mollusks have centralized digestive, excretory, and reproductive systems within a __________.

Many mollusks feed using a rasping, tonguelike structure called the __________.

The __________ is the principle structure used by mollusks to maintain osmotic balance.

Answers

The mantle, muscular foot, visceral mass, radula, and nephridium are characteristics of mollusks.

What is meant by morphological?

a field of biology that studies the structure and form of plants and animals; the structure and shape of an animal or any of the parts. amphibian anatomy. A study and explanation of word production in language, including inflection, derivation, and compounding, is called external and internal eye morphology.

What is an example of morphology?

There are many examples in English, such as "replacement," which is made up of the elements re-, "place," and -ment, and "walked," which is made up of the elements "walk" and -ed. Other languages, like Vietnamese or Chinese, possess very little to no morphology. Many American Indian cultures are quite complicated.

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An important Innovation that mad it possible to pinpoint location at sea was:
maps
clocks
latitude and longitude
stick charts

Answers

An important Innovation that made it possible to pinpoint location at sea was latitude and longitude.

The geographic coordinate system is a spherical or ellipsoidal coordinate system used to measure and communicate positions on Earth as latitude and longitude. It is the simplest, oldest, and most widely used of the various spatial reference systems in use, and serves as the foundation for the majority of others.

Latitudes are horizontal lines that indicate how far north or south of the equator you are. Longitudes are vertical lines that run east or west of the Greenwich Meridian in England. Cartographers, geographers, and others can use latitude and longitude together to locate points or places on the globe.

Latitude lines are measured in degrees north or south of the equator, up to 90 degrees at the North and South poles.

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which of the following physical conditions and lifestyle choices increase(s) the risk of developing heart disease? (select all that apply.)

Answers

Saturated fat, trans fat, and cholesterol-rich diets have been related to heart disease and conditions like atherosclerosis.

What is a heart condition and types of diseases?

Cardiac disease is a general term that refers to many heart conditions. Another term for it is cardiovascular disease, which includes both heart and blood vessel disease. Heart disease comes in a variety of forms. Congenital cardiac disease is one that you might be born with. Over time, several sorts emerge.

The most prevalent form of heart disease is coronary artery disease, often known as coronary heart disease. When a sticky substance called plaque accumulates in the arteries that supply your heart muscle with blood, it happens gradually over time. The plaque restricts or obstructs blood flow to the heart muscle, which might cause additional heart issues.

Heart attacks occur when the heart muscle loses some of its blood supply.When your heart cannot pump enough blood to meet your body's needs, you have heart failure.A problem with your heartbeat's rate or rhythm is called an arrhythmia.Your heart valves or heart muscle may be impacted by further cardiac conditions (cardiomyopathy).

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which processes lead to most genetic variation in sexually reproducing organisms? select all that apply.

Answers

Processes that lead to most genetic variation in sexually reproducing organisms are

(a) Random fertilization

(b) Crossing over

(c) Independent assortment of chromosomes in meiosis

What is genetic variation ?

Genetic variation is the difference in DNA between people or between populations. Genetic recombination and mutation are two of the many factors that cause genetic variation. Genetic variation is primarily caused by mutations, but other processes like genetic drift also play a role.

In sexually reproducing organisms, crossing over is the process that results in the greatest genetic variation. Gamete formation occurs during meiosis.

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you explain to the child's parents that the role of the mitochondria is multiple choice to transport proteins to the cytoplasmic membrane. to produce the energy currency, atp, for a cell. to break down toxins in the body. to initiate dna replication during cell division. to protect the body from bacterial invaders.

Answers

You explain to the child's parents that the role of the mitochondria would be to produce the energy currency, ATP, for a cell.

So, the correct option is B.

The traditional function of the mitochondria is called oxidative phosphorylation, which produces ATP by using the energy generated through the oxidation of the food we ingest. The majority of biochemical and physiological functions, including growth, mobility, and equilibrium, all require ATP as their main energy source. The mitochondria in the cell use the oxygen already present to transform the chemical energy from the meal into energy that can be used by the host cell.

Within the mitochondria, a procedure known as oxidative phosphorylation takes place. For the purpose of making ATP, mitochondria oxidize their substrates, which generates heat. The cytosol and mitochondria may be up to 10 °C hotter, according to new theories.

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When cells in the artery wall take up ______ in an uncontrolled fashion, they become_____ cells.

Answers

When cells in the artery take up LDL cholesterol (bad cholesterol) in an uncontrolled fashion, they become foam cells.

What is LDL cholesterol?

It is often called as the bad cholesterol because it collects in the walls of our blood vessels, raising the chances of health problems like a heart attack or stroke. Low-density lipoprotein is a tiny blob made up of an outer rim of lipoprotein with a cholesterol center.

What are foam cells?

These are formed through lipid accumulation that exceeds the homeostatic capacity of macrophages triggers lipid droplet formation, which results in the foamy appearance of these macrophages.

The formation of foam cells occurs when macrophages engulf an excess of many types of LDL, including oxidized LDL (OxLDL) and minimally modified LDL (mmLDL), which result in the death of the macrophages once they become oversaturated with LDLs.

Mostly smooth muscle cells (SMCs) are the abundant cells in human atherosclerotic lesions and are suggested to contribute at least 50% of atheroma foam cells.

Hence with the accumulation of LDL cholesterol the cells of the artery wall divide in an uncontrollable fashion, they become foam cells

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Crick and brenner performed a set of experiments with viral dna designed to determine the nature of the genetic code. What were their conclusions?.

Answers

Answer:

- The genetic code has no punctuation.

- The genetic code is read in increments of three nucleotides.

Explanation: The genetic code does not have contain spaces nor reads 4 nucleotides

The genetic code has no punctuation, the genetic code is read in increments of three nucleotides.

what is genetic code ?

The genetic code is the code the instructions contained in our DNA and  the essential materials represented by using the “codons” found in mRNA, as mRNA carries information from the DNA to the site of protein synthesis.

Genetic code stores hereditary information  passed from  from parent to child and is stored in the form of DNA is used to build RNA, proteins, and ultimately cells, tissues, and organs.

DNA uses a chemical language which store information in a very efficient manner. DNA has four letters of nucleotides Adenine, Cytosine, Guanine, and Thymine/Uracil.

Thymine and Uracil are very similar  where Thymine is slightly more stable and is used in DNA. Uracil is used in RNA.

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what is the sec system and how are proteins targeted there? where is the signal sequence encoded? does it matter if its at the n-terminus or c-terminus of the gene? explain why. quilet

Answers

During inclusion of the expanding polypeptide chain into the ER, a signal sequence at the amino (N) terminus of secretory proteins—which targets them to the ER—is eliminated.

What is structure of gene ?

The N-terminus of several proteins contains signal sequences that help those proteins discover their proper place outside the cell membrane. For passage through the cell membrane and out of the cell, the protein is marked with a signal sequence.

The "N-terminus" or "amino terminus" refers to the chain's free amine end, while the "C-terminus" or "carboxyl terminus" refers to the chain's free carboxylic acid end. These two protein termini are chemically distinct from one another, therefore it makes sense that they would have various chemical properties.

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which of the following describes the resting membrane potential of a neuron?
A. a voltage difference of 0 millivolts (mV) across the membrane
B. a voltage difference across the plasma membrane, with more positive membrane potential inside
C. a voltage difference across the plasma membrane when the neuron has been stimulated
D. a voltage difference that is chiefly a reflection of the electrochemical Na+ gradient across the plasma membrane
E. a state in which the flow of positive and negative ions across the plasma membrane is precisely balanced

Answers

A voltage difference across the plasma membrane when the neuron has been stimulated describes the resting membrane potential of a neuron.

A relatively static membrane potential that is commonly referred to as the trans-membrane voltage ground value. A cell's resting membrane potential is defined as the electrical potential difference across the plasma membrane when it is not excited. The electrical potential difference across a cell membrane has traditionally been expressed by its value inside the cell relative to the extracellular environment.

Once a cell has reached its resting potential, it can undergo depolarization. During depolarization, the membrane potential rapidly changes from negative to positive. For this rapid shift to occur within the cell, several actions must occur along the plasma membrane.

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Which of the following structures or molecules is required in order for motor proteins to facilitate movement of chromosomes toward the poles in mitosis?
A. intact centromeres
B. ATP as an energy source
C. actin microfilaments
D. intact cohesin

Answers

Motor proteins are necessary for the movement of chromosomes toward the poles during mitosis and require ATP as an energy source in the form of structures or molecules.

What is required for mitosis to occur?

However, a cell must go through a stage known as interphase before it can begin the active phases of mitosis. During this time, the cell develops and generates the different proteins required for division.

What entities are in charge of the chromosomes' motion?

moving the chromosomes with energy (microtubules) The bipolar spindle, which is the most noticeable structure in a mitotic cell and is composed of microtubules and related motor proteins, exerts the force necessary to move the chromosomes and cause their segregation.

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first drag labels to the appropriate targets at the left to identify the parts of the chloroplast in this diagram. then drag labels to the appropriate targets to identify the structures involved in the light reactions.

Answers

a. stroma, b. thylakoid membrane, c. thylakoid space, d. photosystem II, e. electron transport chain, f. photosystem I, g. ATP synthase these labels will go to identify the structures involved in the light reactions.

The photosystem, a multi-protein complex, is where the conversion of light energy into chemical energy occurs. The thylakoid membrane contains photosystem II (PSII) and photosystem I, two different types of photosystems (PSI). In order to excite electrons and absorb solar energy, each photosystem is essential. "Energy carrier" molecules carry these energized electrons, which fuel the light-independent reactions.

A light-harvesting complex and a reaction center make up photosystems. Two unique chlorophyll molecules are located in the reaction center and receive light energy from pigments in the light-harvesting complex.

An electron from the chlorophyll pair is excited by the light and moves to the main electron acceptor. Afterward, the excited electron needs to be changed. In photosystem II, oxygen is produced as a waste product when water splits, providing the electron. The chloroplast electron transport chain is where the electron enters photosystem I.

The two photosystems react to distinct light wavelengths, deliver their powered electrons to various locations, and oxidize various low-energy electron sources.

In the light-independent reactions, also referred to as the Calvin cycle, the energetic electrons from the light-dependent reactions provide the energy to transform carbon dioxide molecules into carbohydrates. The light-independent reactions are occasionally referred to as the Calvin cycle due to the cycle-like aspect of the process.

Even though they don't use light as a reactant and can thus happen day or night, the products of the light-dependent reactions are required for the light-independent processes to function. The energy-carrying molecules ATP and NADPH, which are not dependent on light, fuel the synthesis of new carbohydrate molecules. Once the energy has been transferred, the energy carrier molecules return to the light-dependent processes to obtain further energized electrons.

In addition, a number of the enzymes involved in the light-dependent processes are activated by light.

The complete question is:

First, drag labels to the appropriate targets at the left to identify the parts of the chloroplast in this diagram. then drag labels to the appropriate targets to identify the structures involved in the light reactions.

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Not all parts of a gene code for a protein. A non-coding section is called an intron. You know that base sequences are transcribed into mRNA and
then translated into protein. How might a cell prevent an intron from being expressed as a protein? (1 point)
O remove the intron before translation occurs
O copy the intron before transcription occurs
O remove the intron before transcription occurs
O copy the intron during translation

Answers

The cell prevents the intron from being expressed in the protein by removing it before translation begins. So the correct option is A. remove the intron before translation occurs.

What is an intron?

The intron is a region of DNA that will be part of the RNA transcript but will be removed from the mature transcript before translation to protein takes place. Introns are not regions of DNA that will form a protein but will be part of the regulation of gene expression. Also by using alternative splicing different regions of a single gene could be used to produce different proteins.

The introns will help to have an efficient splice since at the beginning of these there will be acceptor sites to receive and generate the splice.

Therefore, we can confirm that the correct option is A. remove the intron before translation occurs.

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in experiments by greene and colleagues (1987) with the tephritid fly zonosemata vittigera and the jumping spider phidippus apacheanus, the purpose for gluing housefly wings onto the bodies of the tephritid fly was to in experiments by greene and colleagues (1987) with the tephritid fly zonosemata vittigera and the jumping spider phidippus apacheanus, the purpose for gluing housefly wings onto the bodies of the tephritid fly was to control for the effect of wing waving in preventing predation.

Answers

Experiments by Greene and colleagues (1987) with the tephritid fly (Zonosemata vittigera) and the jumping spider (Phidippus apacheanus) aimed to test the effectiveness of wing markings to prevent predation.

How do tephritid flies mimic the territorial display of jumping spiders?

The tephritid fly Zonosemata vittigera (Coquillett) has leg-like patterns on its wings and a wing-waving display that together mimics the aggressive territorial display of the jumping spider (Salticidae). Zonosemata flies initiate this display when chased by a jumping spider, causing the spider to turn backwards and retreat. Wing transplantation experiments showed that effective mimicry required both wing patterns and wing wave representations.

Zonosemata flies transplanted with housefly wings and houseflies transplanted with zonosemata wings were attacked by jumping spiders. Similar experiments showed that this mimicry does not protect zonosemata from non-salt predators. This is a new form of sign stimulus mimicry that may occur more commonly.

As such, tephritid flies mimic the territorial display of jumping spider predators.

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Chooe two different type of cell and explain how they are adapted for tbe job they do in your body

Answers

Red blood cells and epidermic cells are examples of specialised cells. Through cell differentiation, these mature cell types are created.

What is cell differentiation ?

Cell differentiation is the difference in gene expression that results in the creation of various cell types that are specialised to carry out particular tasks.

For instance, hematopoietic stem cells express the haemoglobin gene to produce red blood cells with certain functions, including the ability to carry oxygen to all of the body's cells.

Additionally, epidermic cells are tailored to offer protection and mechanical strength.

Red blood cells and epidermic cells are two examples of specialised cells. Through cell differentiation, these mature cell types are created.

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which accessory structure of the hair is likely to be malfunctioning in a patient with a dry scalp?

Answers

 The hair is likely to be malfunctioning in a patient with a dry scalp hypodermis.

The hypodermis is the lowest layer of skin on your body. It has many critical functions, which include storing strength, connecting the epidermis layer of your pores and skin on your muscle tissues and bones, insulating your body, and protecting your body from harm. As you age, your hypodermis decreases in length, and your pores and skin starts to sag.

Adipose tissue present in the hypodermis consists of fat-storing cells called adipocytes. This stored fat can function as a strength reserve, insulate the frame to save you warmness loss, and act as a cushion to protect underlying systems from trauma.

The subcutaneous tissue, also known as the hypodermis or superficial fascia, is the layer of tissue that underlies the pores and skin. The terms originate from subcutaneous in Latin and hypoderm in Greek, each of which implies “beneath the pores and skin,” as it is the deepest layer that rests just above the deep fascia.

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Nearly all stimuli destined for the cerebral cortex must first pass through the ________.

Answers

Nearly all stimuli destined for the cerebral cortex must first pass through the Thalamus.

Thalamus is located in the central part of the brain, it receives sensory messages, such as touch and sends the messages to the appropriate part of the brain to be interpreted. Only sensory information that is not relayed by the thalamus into the cerebral cortex is information related to smell.

Sensory information generally travels from the body to the spinal cord before reaching the brain. This information travels up by using first, second, and third-order neurons. First-order neurons receive impulses from skin and send them to the spinal cord.

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Genetic information is bundled into packages of

Answers

Genetic information is bundled into packages of DNA known as chromosomes. These chromosomes are thin thread-like structures that appeared during the process of cell division.

which of the following chordates are not vertebrates? answer lancelets and tunicates lancelets and lampreys tunicates and lampreys echnioderms and lancelets

Answers

The chordates that are not vertebrates are: (1) lancelets and tunicates.

Chordates are the organisms that belong to the phylum Chordata of Kingdom Animalia. The characteristics that separate them from rest of the organism are: a notochord, a dorsal hollow nerve cord, pharyngeal slits, etc. These characters sometime definitely appear at some stage of the development of an animal.

Vertebrates are the animals that definitely possess a vertebral column or backbone for their whole life. The backbone is composed of several small bones joined together to provide a perfect posture to the body. The example of vertebrates are: amphibians, reptiles, birds, and mammals.

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what is the maximum recombination frequency between any two genes? % enter only a number/numeral in the provided box.

Answers

Recombination frequency between two genes cannot be greater than 50% Due to random assortment of genes that produces 50% recombination.

When recombination frequency is 50%  the maximum recombination frequency that can be observed, they have suggestive loci that are either on separate chromosomes, or are located very far apart on the same chromosome.

Hence, For two genes in any organism, specific nominal value is given that is recombination frequency the two will be between 0% and 50%. While  Genes on separate or non-homologous pair in chromosomes will have a recombination frequency of 50% and they will be unlinked.

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Neisseria gonnorrhoeae is a gram-negative diplococcus that typically causes symptomatic infections in males. The presence of neisseria gonorrhoeae is urethral pus is diagnostic for gonorrhea in males. What would be observed in a positive gram stain?.

Answers

The observation in Positive Gram stain of Neisseria Gonorrhea would be pair of red spheres, that is option C is correct.

N. Gonorrhea is a kind of bacterial infection which is responsible for spreading sexually transmitted diseases in individuals and is a communicable disease. The disease can be treated by medical professionals and if not treated may cause infertility. The symptoms of Gonorrhea include pain during urethral discharge and even pain in testicles of men. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a kind of Gonorrhea that usually attacks the reproductive organs of both males and females. It usually causes the reproductive tract blockage and urethral pus is generated in the mucous membrane of the reproductive tract. In women, the fallopian tube, uterus and cervix become infected. It shows gram positive stain due to the oxidase reaction which causes it to change to red colored colonies and under microscope, it resembles as pair of red spheres. However, in general, N. Gonorrhea is gram negative bacteria.

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Complete Question:

Neisseria gonorrhea is a Gram-negative diplococcus that typically causes symptomatic infections in males. The presence of Neisseria gonorrhoeae is urethral pus is diagnostic for gonorrhea in males. What would be observed in a positive Gram stain?

a. paired red rods

b. paired purple rods

c. paired red spheres

d. paired purple spheres

your friend emails you for help with the identification of an elongated invertebrate that she has found in a moist forest in africa. in her initial email, she describes the animal as having a complete digestive tract, a head, segmentation and appendages on each segment. you tell her that based on this information...

Answers

It may be an annelid or an arthropod. To be sure, we want to recognize whether or not the animal has a cuticle. It may be an annelid or an arthropod. To make certain, we need to recognize whether or not the animal has a cuticle.

The notochord is changed with a spinal wire within the case of humans who're vertebrate chordates. This difference is the main feature that separates invertebrate chordates from vertebrate chordates or animals with a backbone.

Chondrichthyans (sharks, skates, rays, and chimeras) and osteichthyans (bony fishes and tetrapods) are the best vertebrate corporations with extant (dwelling) representatives that have a mineralized skeleton.

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the ____ duct receives lymph from the indicated area of the body

Answers

The thoracic duct receives lymph from the indicated area of the body.

The thoracic duct passes thru the aortic hiatus of the diaphragm into the posterior mediastinum continuing cephalad among the aorta and azygos vein till about the extent of the fifth thoracic vertebra wherein it passes at the back of the esophagus.

The thoracic duct extends from the twelfth thoracic vertebra to the foundation of the neck. The thoracic duct is formed from the abdominal confluence of the left and right lumbar lymph trunks, as well as the left and right intestinal lymph trunks among T12 and L2.

It enters the thorax thru the aortic starting of the diaphragm between the aorta and the azygos vein. within the posterior mediastinum, the thoracic duct lies anterior to the vertebral column, the proper intercostal arteries, and the hemiazygos veins as they pass to open into the azygos vein.

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based on just the anatomy, how can you distinguish the sympathetic division from the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system?

Answers

The sympathetic division and indeed the parasympathetic division are the two parts of the self-regulating nervous system.

What is the purpose of parasympathetic nerves?

In calm "rest and digest" situations, the parasympathetic system predominates, whereas the sympathetic nervous systems activates the "fight or flight" response in stressful circumstances. The essential roles of the PNS are to govern body processes like metabolism and urine and also to store energy for subsequent use.

How do sympathetic and parasympathetic differ?

Your nervous system is balanced by the parasympathetic portion of your autonomic nervous. Your body's "fight or flight" response is regulated by your sympathetic nervous system, while the "rest and digest" response is regulated by your parasympathetic nervous system.

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In the ________ phase of the sdlc, developers identify the features and functions needed in the new system.

Answers

The features and features required for the new system are determined by developers during the Analysis of the SDLC.

Describe the SDLC with an example:

A technique for producing software and is of the best standard and cheapest in the shortest period of time is known as software development, commonly referred to as SDLC. An organization may quickly create high-quality software that has been thoroughly tested and is ready for use in production thanks to the SDLC's well-organized phases.

The SDLC principle is what?

The software life cycle is a method for developing software that includes designing, coding, testing, and deployment. The phases of the SDLC are designed to assist organizations by providing predictable deliverables, visibility into budgets and timeframes, and control in software development.

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Which of the following is NOT evidence that a chemical reaction has occurred?

Question 3 options:

Gas production


Changes in properties


Change in size


Changes in temperature

Answers

Answer:

change in size is the answer

The right temperature, ph, and precursor molecules could have allowed ______ molecules to form membrane-like structures.

Answers

The formation of membrane-like structures from phospholipid molecules may have been possible given the proper ph, temperature, and precursor molecules.

What does a membrane look like?

The body holes that open to outside are lined with some of these membranes, also known as mucosae. Mucus line the inside of the digestive tract. The sexual, excretory, and respiratory tracts are more examples.

What functions do membranes serve?

More and more often, aquifers, surface water, etc effluent are converted into process water using membranes. Membranes are currently competitive with traditional methods. Tractor trailer membranes are a prerequisite for the membrane technology procedure.

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what structure forms when the head of a rib connects to the body of two vertebrae? vertebral notch articular process demifacet facet

Answers

The structure formed when the head of a rib connects to the body of two vertebrae is option D: facet.

The head's two convex facets connect to two nearby vertebrae. The ligaments of the head and the intercapital ligament help to reinforce the synovial planar (gliding) joint that results from this. A bone's facet is any smooth or nearly flat surface. A demifacet, which is actually half of a facet, is where a portion of the costal cartilage or the head of the rib articulates and is where they are typically seen.

Facets are synovial joints having cartilage lining, synovial fluid lubrication, and a joint capsule covering. The back can move freely and without excessive twisting thanks to healthy facet joints.

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Answer:

demifacet

Explanation:

in the thoracic vertebrae if the head of a rib articulates with two adjacent the vertebral bodies, the area of articulation is called a demifacet

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