It is true to say that defective proteins are often degraded quickly, making their effects temporary.
Protein degradation assumes a focal part in numerous cell capabilities. Misfolded and harmed proteins are taken out from the cell to keep away from harmfulness. The convergences of administrative proteins are changed by degradation at the fitting time. Both unfamiliar and local proteins are processed into little peptides as a feature of the versatile safe reaction. In eukaryotic cells, an ATP-subordinate protease called the proteasome is liable for quite a bit of this proteolysis.
Proteins are focused on for proteasomal degradation by a two-section degron, which comprises of a proteasome restricting sign and a debasement inception site. Here we depict how the two parts add to the particularity of corruption. Single amino acid substitutions can do degradation of defective proteins which activates mRNA repair pathways.
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(Complete question) is:
Defective proteins are often degraded quickly, making their effects temporary. Single amino acid substitutions caused by errors in mRNA transcription would not affect protein function. Unlike DNA mutations, mRNA transcripts have short half-lives and are not inherited across many generations. Degradation of defective proteins activates mRNA repair pathways RNA polymerases synthesize many transcripts per gene, so only a small fraction of RNA transcripts would have errors. ch mRNA molecule is only translated once and then degraded. Incorrect At least one of the reasons you have selected does not explain why RNA polymerases do not require rigorous error correction. Transcription can produce many mRNA transcripts that then can be translated into many proteins. If only one of these mRNAs contains an error, not all the copies of that particular protein will contain an error. Additionally, mRNAs and proteins have a finite lifetime and can be degraded while DNA persists from generation to generation. Identify answers that are consistent with these features of transcription and translation.Select statement is true or false.
ou are excited to try your first crispr experiment. you introduce cas9 and one sgrna into a dish of cultured human cells. you then sequence dna from four different cells and obtain the results of sequences 1-4 below. you decide to repeat your first crispr experiment using cas9 and two different sgrnas into a dish of cultured human cells. you sequence dna from three additional cells and obtain the results of sequences 5-7. which type of endogenous dna repair would produce the results in all seven of these cells following a cas9 double-strand break? both neither nhej hr
NHEJ and HR neither. Non-homologous end joining (NHEJ), a kind of endogenous DNA repair that fixes double-strand breaks without the requirement for a matching template, is most likely responsible for the outcomes in all seven cells.
One method for fixing DNA double-strand breaks is non-homologous end joining. NHEJ is also known as "non-homologous." This is because, in contrast to homology-directed repair, which needs homologous sequences to direct repair, the break ends are directly ligated without the requirement for a homologous template.
What makes homologous recombination different from non-homologous recombination?
While non-homologous recombination is the insertion of additional genetic material to the Also known as transgenesis, homologous recombination is the interchange of genetic material between identical strands. NHEJ occurs via three primary three steps:
identifying DSBs, preparing DNA ends, and connecting two of her DSBs if necessary.It is interesting that NHEJ does not require the excision of DNA ends to begin repair and can instead immediately rejoin damaged DNA ends.
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Two mothers took their new babies home from the hospital on the same day. On the first day home, when mother number one was removing the hospital name tag from her baby, she discovered that the other mother's name was on the tag. The other mother was contacted, but she was sure that she had the right baby. She did not want to give up the baby she had brought home from the hospital. Because the identity of the babies was disputed, the issue had to be decided in court. Analyze the data provided in the table and apply the laws of inheritance to solve the problem.
THINK CRITICALLY: what is the only blood type the baby from family one could have? should the babies be exchanged? because A and B blood types are always dominant to blood type O, what other blood type could baby from family two have?
Answer:
Father sex to your mother and the baby born that is you
scientists discovered that the difference between blond and dark hair in humans and other mammals comes down in part to a single nucleotide difference in the dna sequence of an enhancer that lies more than 350,000 base pairs upstream from the coding region of the gene it controls. on average, blonds transcribe this gene less efficiently than people with dark hair. which of the following statements about this blond/dark hair enhancer is correct?
The enhancer is associated with a protein during transcription initiation, about blond/dark hair enhancer is correct.
Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is a polymer made from two polynucleotide chains that coil round each other to shape a double helix. The polymer consists of genetic commands for all recognised organisms and viruses' development, functioning, boom, and replica. Nucleic acids consist of DNA and ribonucleic acid.
At some point of replica, DNA and the commands it contains are exceeded from adult organisms to their offspring. DNA now serves three awesome capabilities: genetics, immunology, and shape, all of which rely upon the sugar phosphate spine and bases in one of a kind approaches. DNA consists of nucleotide molecules. each nucleotide contains a sugar, phosphate, and nitrogen base organization.
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Which of the following adaptations of the circulatory system occurs shortly after birth? Check all that apply. Check All That Apply A) The foramen ovale closes and seals, blocking blood between the atria from mixing B) Surfactant increases in volume, preventing alveolar collapse C) The ductus arteriosus collapses and stops pulmonary trunk blood from mixing with aortic arch blood D) The ligamentum arteriosum forms
The adaptations of the circulatory system that occurs shortly after birth is that The foramen ovale closes and seals, blocking blood between the atria from mixing and The ductus arteriosus collapses and stops pulmonary trunk blood from mixing with aortic arch blood. That is option A and C.
What is circulatory system?The circulatory system is defined as the one of the major system that consists of a pumping center( the heart) and the blood vessels which helps to deliver oxygenated blood to the body cells.
The developing foetus also has its own fetal circulation within the uterus where by the following bypass occurs:
The oxygenated blood from the inferior vena cava bypassed from the left atrium to the right atrium without entering the left ventricle,The deoxygenated blood from the left atrium is bypassed by the ductus arteriosus to the umbilical artery without being transported to the lungs.Learn more about the heart here:
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A disease called primary ciliary dyskenisia is characterized by abnormal ciliary movements. In these cilia, microtubule functioning is disrupted due to microtubules missing an essential component. This disease could be caused by __________.
lack of dynein proteins
A disease called primary ciliary dyskenisia is characterized by abnormal ciliary movements. In these cilia, microtubule functioning is disrupted due to microtubules missing an essential component. This disease could be caused by lack of dynein proteins.
Large macro- and biomolecules consisting of one or more extended chains of amino acid residues are known as proteins. In living things, proteins have many different jobs, including as speeding up metabolic processes, replicating DNA, reacting to stimuli, giving cells and organisms structure, and transporting substances. The primary way that proteins differ from one another is the arrangement of their amino acids, which is determined by the nucleotide sequence of their genes and typically allows a protein to fold into a certain 3D structure that controls its function.
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The increase in global population due ultimately to agriculture may cause which of the following negative effects? A) increased crowding, leading to poor sanitation B) increased spread of infectious disease C) more rainforests as a result of warming D) an overall cooling of Earth’s atmosphere, causing a new Ice Age to occur
Poor sanitation as a result of increased crowdedness - As human population density rises, the sanitation infrastructure will experience increasing strain.
Which of the following describes how a growing human population affects society?The expansion of the human population has a range of effects on the Earth system, including: increasing the amount of environmental resources being extracted. These resources include minerals, plants, water, and fossil fuels (oil, gas, and coal).
What occurs as population growth picks up?The need for food, water, housing, healthcare, transportation, and other resources will rise the population grows. And all consumption increases the likelihood of major catastrophes like pandemics, and degrades the environment.
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Which of the following will most likely be found in an individual with a gain-of-function GPCR mutation?
A gain-of-function GPCR mutation can cause an increase in the activity of the receptor. This can lead to an increase in the amount of signaling molecules, such as cyclic AMP (cAMP) and calcium ions (Ca2+), which can be found in an individual with a gain-of-function GPCR mutation. Additionally, an increase in G protein activity and/or downstream signaling molecules may also be observed.
A gain-of-function GPCR mutation is a genetic mutation that causes a G protein-coupled receptor (GPCR) to be overactive. This means that the receptor is more responsive to the ligand that it binds to, resulting in the production of more of the downstream signaling molecules.
The most likely thing to be found in an individual with a gain-of-function GPCR mutation is increased levels of the signaling molecules that are produced by the activated receptor. These could include hormones, enzymes, proteins, or other molecules that are involved in the downstream signaling cascade from the activated receptor.
In addition, the individual may also exhibit symptoms that are associated with the increased signaling activity. This could include changes in behavior, physical characteristics, or other physiological changes. For example, if the mutated GPCR is responsible for regulating blood pressure, the individual may experience symptoms related to high blood pressure, such as headaches or dizziness.
Finally, the individual may also have changes in their genetic makeup due to the mutation. This could include changes in gene expression or even changes in the structure of the receptor itself.
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which of the following events in transcription initiation likely occurs last? view available hint(s)for part e which of the following events in transcription initiation likely occurs last? tbp is recruited to the promoter. regulatory transcription factors bind to enhancers. basal transcription factors form a basal transcription complex. rna polymerase binds to the promoter of the gene.
RNA polymerase binds to the promoter of the gene, events in transcription initiation likely occurs last.
A DNA fragment is copied into RNA during transcription. Messenger RNA is created when specific DNA sequences are translated into RNA molecules that can encode proteins (mRNA). Non-coding RNAs are RNA molecules that contain copies of other DNA sequences (ncRNAs). Only 1% to 3% of all RNA samples are mRNA. A minimum of 80% of mammalian genomic DNA can be actively transcribed (in one or more types of cells), with the bulk of this 80% being ncRNA. In contrast, less than 2% of the human genome can be transcribed into mRNA. The RNA is known as messenger RNA (mRNA) if the stretch of DNA is translated into an RNA molecule that encodes a protein. The mRNA then acts as a template for the translation of the protein. Other DNA stretches may be translated into larger non-coding RNAs like ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and long non-coding RNA as well as smaller non-coding RNAs like microRNA, transfer RNA (tRNA), small nucleolar RNA (snoRNA), small nuclear RNA (snRNA), or enzymatic RNA molecules called ribozyme. Overall, RNA is essential for carrying out tasks within a cell since it aids in the synthesis, control, and processing of proteins.
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The process by which mined land is restored to its natural state is known as
A. Restoration
B. Reclamation
C.Re-naturalization
Among the findings by the ACHA's National College Health Assessment is that ____ after drinking alcohol.
Among the findings by the ACHA's National College Health Assessment is that men were more likely than women to injure themselves after drinking alcohol.
Health-related problems and expenses can significantly affect the standard of student and academic life at higher education institutions. The American College Health Association created the American College Health Assessment-National College Health Assessment (ACHA-NCHA), a national research study, to help college health service providers, health educators, counsellors, and administrators gather information about students' habits, behaviours, and perceptions on the most common health topics.
Using the ACHA-National College Health Assessment (NCHA), a renowned research study, you can gather detailed information about the practises, attitudes, and perceptions of your students' health.
to act as the main leadership group in advocating for, educating about, and researching ways to improve the health of college students and the surrounding community.
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all of the following are true statements about meiosis in mammals except: responses it serves as a factor in bringing about variation among offspring. it serves as a factor in bringing about variation among offspring. it follows dna replication. it follows dna replication. it occurs only in reproductive structures. it occurs only in reproductive structures. it produces cells with the haploid number of chromosomes. it produces cells with the haploid number of chromosomes. it produces four genetically identical gametes.
All of the following are true statements about meiosis in mammals except is it produces four genetically identical gametes. Option E.
Meiosis produces gametes containing a complete set of haploid chromosomes. Each gamete contains a different set of DNA because meiosis involves recombination and independent sorting. This creates a unique combination of genes in the resulting zygote. Recombination or crossover occurs during prophase I.
Meiosis is the process by which sperm and egg cells are produced. In males, meiosis occurs after puberty. Diploid cells of the testis undergo meiosis to produce haploid sperm with 23 chromosomes. Meiosis forms four haploid sperm from one diploid cell. Both mitosis and meiosis are processes that describe the generation of new cells.
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Which of the following does NOT influence the pH of the blood and extracellular fluids?
A) respiration
B) blood proteins
C) bicarbonate ions
D) filtration by glomerulus
E) phosphate and ammonia ions
d
filtration by glomerulus is the process which does not influence the pH of the blood and extracellular fluids in human body. it is associated with kidney.
The process of generating urine starts with glomerular filtration. It is the procedure your kidneys utilize to filter extra fluid and waste from your blood into the kidney's urine-collecting tubules, allowing your body to discard them. Each nephron receives blood through a glomerulus, which is a collection of small blood arteries. Smaller molecules, wastes, and fluid—mostly water—can enter the tubule through the glomerulus' thin walls. Larger molecules like blood cells and proteins stay inside the blood vessel. Fenestrated endothelial cells, glomerular basement membrane, and podocytes are three distinct layers of the glomerular filtration barrier.
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a farmer growing wheat is in wheat and may hedge by wheat futures. group of answer choices short; long short; selling long; buying long; selling
A farmer growing wheat is in wheat and may hedge by wheat futures long; selling.
In the field of finance, long selling (or going long) on a security or an investment implies that associate degree capitalist buys that security or investment with the prospect of keeping it for a few time as a result of he or she believes that its value (or value) goes to extend within the end of the day.
Wheat is used for breadstuff, pastries, pasta, and pizza, has been the principal cereal crop since the eighteenth century. Wheat was introduced by the primary English colonists and quickly became the most crop of farmers who sold-out it to urban populations and exporters.
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A diploid organism receives 9 chromosomes from mom and 9 chromosomes from dad. The chromosomal number for this individual is 2n = 2x = 18. What would be the chromosomal number of a hexaploid individual born from the same parents? a) X (haploid set chromosome number is 9) then 6X = 54 chromosomes. b) Hexaploid has 6 chromosomes more than its diploid 18 + 6 c) Hexaploid is always 6 chromosomes less than diploid 18-6 d) Both a and b e) None of the above
The chromosomal number of a hexaploid individual born from the parents having 9 chromosomes each will be: (a) X (haploid set chromosome number is 9) then 6X = 54 chromosomes.
Hexaploid is the condition where a cell consists of 6 copies of the total chromosomes. Since the parents contain 9 chromosomes therefore the 6 copies will form a total of 6 × 9 = 54 chromosomes.
Chromosomes are the compact form of genetic material. They are comprised of DNA and histone proteins. The structure of DNA consists of 2 sister chromatids joined together at the constricted DNA region called centromere. The transmission of genetic material from parent to offspring takes place in this chromosomal form.
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a water flow rate below______ gpm may facilitate bacterial growth in an infrequently used hot water line.
A water flow rate below 1.5 gpm may facilitate bacterial growth in an infrequently used hot water line.
Binary fission, a process that causes bacteria to divide into two daughter cells, is the basis of bacterial growth. The daughter cells that result are genetically identical to the original cell, assuming no event takes place. As a result, germs start to proliferate. Not often do the two daughter cells from the division live. However, the bacterial population experiences exponential growth if the average number of survivors exceeds unity.
The basic method requires bacterial enumeration (cell counting) by direct and individual (microscopic, flow cytometry, direct and bulk (biomass), indirect and individual (colony counting), or indirect and bulk (most probable number, turbidity, nutrient uptake) methods. This measurement of an exponential bacterial growth curve in batch culture was traditionally a part of the training of all microbiologists. Models bring theory and measurements into harmony.
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Watch the video clip of cells in the small intestine. Name the general location along the villus where the
following processes occur:
Cell Division:
Cell Differentiation:
Apoptosis:
Cell division: The bottom of the villus in the crypt. Cell differentiation: Ascending the villus. Apoptosis: Apex of the villus.
There are two types of cell division: mitosis and meiosis. Most of the time when people refer to “cell division,” they mean mitosis, the process of making new body cells. Meiosis is the type of cell division that creates egg and sperm cells. Mitosis is a fundamental process for life.
The process by which a parent cell divides into two daughter cells is known as cell division. Cell expansion and chromosome replication come before cell division, which usually happens as part of a prolonged cell cycle. Meiosis produces haploid gametes for sexual reproduction by reducing the number of chromosomes from two of each kind in the diploid parent cell to one of each kind in the daughter cells. Cell division occurs through the process of mitosis, which results in daughter cells that are genetically identical to their parent cells. In cell biology, the cell cycle includes the process of mitosis, in which duplicated chromosomes are split into two new nuclei.
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complete the concept map to classify general sensory receptors by structure, stimulus detected, and body location. drag the appropriate labels to their respective targets. view available hint(s)for part a resethelp
Sensory receptors are primarily classified as chemoreceptors, thermoreceptors, mechanoreceptors, or photoreceptors on the basis of by structure, stimulus detected, and body location. drag the appropriate labels to their respective targets.
What is sensory receptor ?photoreceptor which is A specialized neuron able to detect and react to light.
mechanoreceptor receptor that provides an organism with information about mechanical changes in its environment such as movement, tension, and pressure.
baroreceptor where A nerve ending that is sensitive to changes in blood pressure.
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which of the following factors favor the survival and reproduction of darker-skinned individuals? select all that apply.
Because they boosted fitness for early human populations living in tropical Africa, darker skin tones developed. Darker skin prevents the breakdown of circulating folate. Some human groups left Africa in search of less severe UV rays.
What factors decide which people have a higher chance of surviving and reproducing?According to natural selection, organisms in a group acquire characteristics that help them survive and procreate. Because advantageous features are more likely to be handed down through natural selection, people who possess them have a higher chance of survival.
Therefore, black skin is a natural sunscreen that shields against UV radiation and safeguards vitamin B folate, which is why natural selection prefers dark skin near the equator.
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the age pyramid below shows the age structure or a mystery population or animal. this animal reaches sexual maturity very early in life, and this population's size and age structure are stable over time. which statement below about this populations fecundity and mortality rates is most likely true?
o Its fecundity and mortailty rates are both high o its fecundity rate is high but its mortality rate is low o Its fecundity and mortality rates are both low o Its fecundity rate is low but its mortality rate is high
The age pyramid indicates that the fecundity and mortality rates of this population are both high. This is necessary for the population to remain stable over time and replace individuals that die with new individuals.
The age pyramid below shows the age structure of a mystery population or animal. This animal reaches sexual maturity very early in life, and this population's size and age structure are stable over time. This suggests that the fecundity and mortality rates of this population are both high.
The age pyramid indicates that the population consists of a large number of young individuals, which suggests that the fecundity rate of the population is high. This is because a high fecundity rate is necessary to maintain a stable population size, and the population must be able to replace individuals that die with new individuals. Therefore, the population must be able to reproduce quickly, which can be seen from the large number of young individuals in the age pyramid.
At the same time, the population must also have a high mortality rate in order to maintain its stable size. This is because the population must be able to replace the individuals that die quickly enough to fill the space left by the deceased, which can be seen from the fact that there is a relatively even distribution of individuals across different age groups.
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When a person is exposed to an antigen for the first time, the immune reaction is called the ____________ response.
The immune reaction is referred to as the primary response when a person is initially exposed to an antigen.
What does the word "immune" mean?If you are immune to something, it usually has no impact on you; examples include being immune to a sickness or criticism. You cannot be damaged by anything if you are immune to it. For instance, a plea deal may grant you immunity from prosecution.
Why is the immune system weak?Loads of things, such as food, certain drugs, infections, or having an autoimmune illness, can lower immune system function. You could have a compromised immune system if you regularly catch colds, struggle to recover from infections, feel consistently tired, or suffer stomach problems.
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select the true statement about antibody-mediated immune responses, also known as humoral immunity. it is only effective at fighting toxins that have invaded a cell. it is most effective at fighting pathogens outside of a cell. it is only effective at fighting viruses. it is most effective at fighting pathogens that have invaded a cell.
It is most effective at fighting pathogens outside the cells.
What is Immunity?
Immunity is the body's capacity to fend off pathogen invasion.People are constantly exposed to pathogens, which are foreign agents that cause disease. Examples of these agents include bacteria and viruses.Humoral Immunity is one of the types of immunity.HUMORAL IMMUNITY
Using antibodies against pathogen-specific antigens, the humoral immune response protects against infections that are free in the blood.Immune system defense protein known as an antibody, or immunoglobulin, is synthesized in reaction to the occurrence of an antigen, or potentially infectious materials. Therefore, it together forms a network of antigen-antibody mediated immune responses.An antigen is a biomolecule that binds to a particular antibody and their reaction generates the response. The primary cell type responsible in the humoral immune response is B cells. A foreign antigen, such as one produced by a disease, will cause B cells in the body that recognize that antigen to start producing antibodies as a defense against the foreign invader(pathogen). Hence, this type of immunity is most effective at fighting pathogens outside the cell i.e., in the body fluid.To learn more about humoral immunity from the given link:
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connect here to help me understand this question
1) Note that in a dialysis Machine, the part that prevents the loss of plasma protein and red blood cells is the Semipermeable membrane. in the image above, this is labeled as the dialysis membrane.
2) During dialysis, the normal glucose concentration of the blood is typically maintained by adding glucose to the dialysis solution. The dialysis solution is typically held in a large, hollow fiber membrane called a dialyzer, also known as an artificial kidney.
3) Two waste substances that are removed from the blood by the dialysis machine are:
Creatinine; andUrea.What are creatinine and Urea?Urea is a waste product created by the body when protein is broken down. It is generally eliminated in the urine by the kidneys after being taken from circulation.
Creatinine, on the other hand, is a waste product generated by the body that is generally eliminated by the kidneys. It is created by the breakdown of muscle tissue and is generally present in modest levels in the blood.
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which of the following statements is true? all cells are made up of smaller cells. eukaryotic cells don't have a nucleus but often have a flagella. in all cells, the plasma membrane controls what enters and exits. prokaryotic cells don't have a nucleus, but they still have a plasma membrane that separates their dna from their cytoplasm.
The correct statement is "in all cells the plasma membrane controls what enters and exit."
Let us have a look at all sentences.
(i) All cells are made up of smaller cells. This is an incorrect statement. According to the theory of cell, all existing cells in any organism is born from or are produced by the other living cells. So it can be said that the cells are made from the pre-existing cells but that cell makes another cell like its own but the smaller cells doesn't make the other cells. So this proves that the statement is incorrect.
(ii) Eukaryotic cells don't have a nucleus but often have a flagella is an incorrect statement. All cells are having nucleus that control the functioning of the cells. The eukaryotic cells are the modern cells having many different new cell organelles. There are eukaryotic cells which have the flagella but it is wrong to say that these cells don't have a nucleus or all eukaryotic cells have flagella.
(iii) In all cells, the plasma membrane controls what enters and exits. This is a correct statement as the plasma membrane is the outermost layer of the cells. This acts like the border of the cells. This border or the outer membrane is very sensitive and doesn't allow everything to pass through the cells. So this is a correct statement.
(iv) Prokaryotic cells don't have a nucleus, but they still have a plasma membrane that separates their dna from their cytoplasm. This is an incorrect statement. We already have seen in point (ii) that all the cells have a nucleus. The cells can be divided into prokaryotic (old cells not having the proper organelles) and eukaryotic (new cells having different organelles that control the functioning of the cells) cells. This can be said that in prokaryotic since not many organelles are present so the main functioning of the cell is controlled by the nucleus.
Therefore, the only correct statement about cell is that in all cells, the plasma membrane controls what enters and exits.
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ou are excited to try your first crispr experiment. you introduce cas9 and one sgrna into a dish of cultured human cells. you then sequence dna from four different cells and obtain the results of sequences 1-4 below. you decide to repeat your first crispr experiment using cas9 and two different sgrnas into a dish of cultured human cells. you sequence dna from three additional cells and obtain the results of sequences 5-7. which type of endogenous dna repair would produce the results in all seven of these cells following a cas9 double-strand break? both neither nhej hr
Neither NHEJ nor HR. The results of all seven cells are most likely due to a non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) mechanism, which is a type of endogenous DNA repair that repairs double-strand breaks without the need for a matching template.
Non-homologous end joining is a pathway that repairs double-strand breaks in DNA. NHEJ is called "non-homologous". This is because the breakends are directly ligated without the need for a homologous template, in contrast to homology-directed repair, which requires homologous sequences to direct repair. What is the difference between homologous recombination and non-homologous recombination Homologous recombination is the exchange of genetic material between identical strands, whereas non-homologous recombination is the addition of new genetic material to the Also known as transgenesis. NHEJ occurs through three main steps:(1) recognition of DSBs, (2) processing of DNA ends, (3) connection of two her DSBs as appropriate. It is noteworthy that NHEJ can also directly rejoin broken DNA ends and does not require excision of DNA ends to initiate repair.
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An individual who is
XXY
has Kleinfelter's syndrome. Select all the possible places during meiosis in the mother or father where non-disjunction could create a gamete that results in Kleinfelter when mated with a normal gamete. meiosis I in the father meiosis II in the mother meiosis II in the father meiosis I in the mother
Nondisjunction of the X chromosome occurs during prophase of meiosis I in females, resulting in Klinefelter's syndrome, XXY males. Only males are afflicted by Klinefelter syndrome, which is caused by a genetic anomaly.
What happens in Klinefelter's syndrome?Klinefelter syndrome is sometimes called Klinefelter's, KS or XXY. It is where boys and men are born with extra X chromosome. There are 2 types of chromosome that are the sex chromosomes, that determine the genetic sex of a baby.
Klinefelter syndrome is caused by an additional X chromosome and this chromosome carries extra copies of genes, which interferes with the development of the testicles and they produce less testosterone than usual.
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which statement below best describes why diabetics are two times more likely to develop cardiovascular disease than non-diabetics?
Atherosclerosis results from high cholesterol levels brought on by diabetes.
What shade of urine do individuals who have diabetes produce?When excessive sugar accumulates in the urine, diabetes can result in murky urine. Furthermore, your urine may smell pleasant or fruity. Insulin can also cause kidney problems or raise the likelihood of urinary tract infections, both of which can cause murky urine.
What causes disease primarily?Even though not all people with type 2 diabetes are overweight, obesity and a poor diet are two of the most typical risk factors. About 90% to 95% of diabetes cases in the US are caused by these factors.
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A. Insertion
B. deletion
C. frameshift
D. substitution
A lead to T transversion in the second nucleotide of codon 6 of the beta-globin gene causes sickle-cell anemia, hence option D substitution is the correct option.
What is sickle-cell anemia?The beta-globin gene makes hemoglobin S, which polymerizes in the deoxygenated state.
This causes physical distortion or sickling of erythrocytes, containing an A to T point mutation that is the source of the condition.
Therefore, sickle erythrocytes encourage hemolysis and vaso-occlusion, two of the disease's key symptoms, hence option D substitution is the correct option.
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Which of the following statements about the relationship between photosynthesis and cellular respiration is true?
a. In cellular respiration, the biochemical pathways of photosynthesis run in reverse.
b, In photosynthesis the biochemical pathways of cellular respiration run in reverse.
c. Cellular respiration occurs only in animals and photosynthesis occurs only in plants.
d. Cellular respiration is catabolic and photosynthesis is anabolic.
In contrast to respiration, photosynthesis stores energy in organic molecules.
What is a case study of photosynthesis?
The most famous examples are plants because, with the exception of a very small number of parasitic or mycoheterotrophic species, they all have chlorophyll and can make their own sustenance. The other major class of eukaryotic photosynthetic organisms is the algae.
What makes photosynthesis so crucial?
Because plants employ photosynthesis to convert co2 into oxygen when exposed to the sun, it is significant. Animals to survive, whereas plants purify the air by removing harmful carbon dioxide
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During the labs in this class, the actions of the hamstrings and quadriceps muscle groups were often analyzed. Think about knee flexion in the following three scenarios:
Sitting on the edge of a table with knee in full extension, then flex your knee to approximately 90 degrees of flexion.
Lie prone on a table with your leg straight, then flex your knee to approximately 90 degrees.
Stand upright, then squat and flex your knee to approximately 90 degrees.
Which functional muscle group and what type of contraction is working/taking place in each of the above 3 situations. Explain, in detail, why there are differences in each scenario. This is a 10 point question, so be sure to discuss each scenario individually, as well as comparing their similarities and/or differences.
The answers include the following:
Sitting on the edge of a table with knee in full extension, then flex your knee to approximately 90 degrees of flexion employs the use of hamstring and eccentric contraction.Lie prone on a table with your leg straight, then flex your knee to approximately 90 degrees employs the use of biceps femoris and eccentric contraction.Stand upright, then squat and flex your knee to approximately 90 degrees employs the use of quadriceps and concentric contraction. What is Eccentric contraction?This is the type of contraction which is characterized by the total length of the muscle increasing as tension is produced while concentric contraction is characterized by the shortening of the muscle.
The muscles which are involved when an individual squats are quadriceps, gluteal which are found in the legs.
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The spadix relies on the skunk cabbage's massive root system, which stores appreciable quantities of starch. In the root system of the skunk cabbage, starch is broken down to yield ______ which is catabolized via glycolysis, the citric acid cycle, and the electron transport chain. The oxidation of glucose provides the • cofactors _____ (NADH and QH2) required to keep electron transport going so that thermogenesis can occur.
In the root system of the skunk cabbage, starch is broken down to yield starch is broken down to from glucose. which is catabolized via glycolysis, the citric acid cycle, and the electron transport chain.
The oxidation of glucose provides the cofactors NADH (NADH and QH2) required to keep electron transport going so that thermogenesis can occur.
It's an unusual trick called thermogenesis. Skunk cabbage uses oxygen to generate heat. Oxygen reacts with starch from the roots, breaking molecular bonds and releasing energy in the form of heat. According to one study, skunk cabbage consumes as much oxygen as a similarly sized mammal.
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