Cytopathic effects are changes in host cells due to
A) viral infections.
B) protozoan infections.
C) fungal infections.
D) bacterial infections.
E) helminthic infections.
A) viral infections.

Answers

Answer 1

The term "cytopathic effect" describes how viral infections alter the structure of the host cell. Cell lysis is the outcome of the viral infection.

A virus affects the structure of the host cell when it enters. The term for this is "cytopathic effect." When the host cell is lysed by the infected cell or when the cell dies because it is incapable of reproducing, these conditions take place. Cytopathogenic viruses are those that alter the host cell's morphology.

The rounding of cells is the initial symptom of cytopathic impact or viral infection. The host cell's cytoplasm and nucleus both contain the inclusion bodies. These can be located in the patients' blood smears using light or electron microscopy. Syncytia can develop as a result of some viral infections. These substantial clumps of cytoplasm are the result of infected cells fusing together. It is made up of many nuclei.

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Related Questions

one of three actions happen to neurotransmitters when they are released into the synapse: 1. some are chemically destroyed by enzymes found in extracellular fluid, 2. [ ], or 3.[ ].

Answers

The signaling of a neuron, however, is far more fascinating when we take into account its interconnections with other neurons—no pun intended! In order to analyse incoming information and carry out a reaction, circuits are formed when individual neurons link to target neurons and either stimulate or inhibit their activity.

Release of chemical messengers known as neurotransmitters is a necessary part of chemical transmission. Information is sent from the pre-synaptic—sending—neuron to the post-synaptic—receiving—cell through neurotransmitters.

Multiple branches on a single axon enable it to form connections with various postsynaptic cells. Similar to this, numerous presynaptic—sending—neurons can deliver thousands of synaptic inputs to a single neuron.

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Three reactions in glycolysis operate far from equilibrium and are potential sites for major flux control. List the three enzymes and discuss why each enzyme is or is not the major control site of glycolysis.Hexokinase catalyzes the first exergonic step of glycolysis. However, when the source of glucose-6-phosphate is from glycogen in skeletal muscle, rather than free glucose, the hexokinase reaction is not required. Pyruvate kinase catalyzes the last reaction of glycolysis and is therefore not a good candidate for regulation of the entire pathway. Phosphofructokinase catalyzes a very exergonic reaction at Step 3. This is near the beginning of the pathway, but after the entry of glucose-6-phosphate from glycogen, so it can regulate the entire pathway.

Answers

Hexokinases, phosphofructokinase-1, and pyruvate kinase, three enzymes that all catalyse irreversible processes, control glycolysis. In reaction to circumstances both inside and outside the cell, the glycolytic pathway's flow is modified.

Hexokinase catalyses the glycolysis process' initial exergonic step. The hexokinase reaction is not necessary, though, when the source of the glucose-6-phosphate is skeletal muscle glycogen as opposed to free glucose. Pyruvate kinase catalyses the final step in glycolysis, making it an unsuitable option to control the complete system. In Step 3, phosphofructokinase catalyses a highly exergonic reaction. This is after the entry of glucose-6-phosphate from glycogen but close to the beginning of the process, thus it can control the entire pathway.

So, the three enzymes are hexokinase, pyruvate kinase, and phosphofructokinase.

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FILL IN THE BLANK. some prey species use to scare off predators by puffing up (blowfish), spreading their wings (peacocks), or mimicking a predator.

Answers

Some prey species use to scare off predators by puffing up (blowfish), spreading their wings (peacocks), or mimicking a predator Behavioral strategies are the solution.

Predators include weasels, hawks, wolves, mountain lions, and grizzly bears. Because they are carnivores, predators only eat meat. Some predators, like coyotes and bears, are also scavengers, which means they will consume the remains of creatures they haven't personally hunted.

Various Predators

Carnivores Herbivores are their prey, while carnivorous predators kill and devour them. These include creatures that eat plants and plant products, such as cows, buffaloes, goats, sheep, and deer.

Parasites

Small Predators and Large Predators

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what is the vascular cambium

Answers

Answer:

It is a single layer of cells called meristematic cells that lies between the xylem and phloem. It is also called cambial zone.

Explanation:

select the true statements about the citric acid cycle. two molecules of coenzyme a are produced per turn of the citric acid cycle. the citric acid cycle is an aerobic process. the citric acid cycle occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell. the major reactants in the citric acid cycle are acetyl coa, nad nad , gdpgdp , and fadfad . in the citric acid cycle, acetyl-coa is degraded to produce nadhnadh and fadh2fadh2 .

Answers

The correct statement about the citric acid cycle are:

Two molecules of coenzyme A are produced per turn of the citric acid cycle. The major reactants in the citric acid cycle are acetyl CoA, NAD^+, GDP, and FAD.In the citric acid cycle, acetyl-CoA is degraded to produce NADH and FADH2.

The citric acid cycle is an important metabolic pathway that connects carbohydrate, fat, and protein metabolism. The reactions of the cycle are carried out by eight enzymes, which completely oxidize acetate (a two carbon molecule) in the form of acetyl-CoA into two molecules of CO2 and water.

The citric acid cycle provides the electrons that power the oxidative phosphorylation process, which is our primary source of ATP and energy. As the acetyl group degrades, electrons are stored in the carrier NADH and delivered to Complex I.

The process by which electron transport from the citric acid cycle's energy precursors leads to the phosphorylation of ADP, resulting in the production of ATP, is known as oxidative phosphorylation.

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Which of the following is a molecule that combines with an enzyme to activate it and help it do its job? a) a transport protein b) collagen c) a coenzyme d) a prion

Answers

The molecule that combines with an enzyme to activate it and help it to do its job is called a coenzyme. So option c. is correct.

Coenzymes are organic compounds required by many enzymes for catalytic activity. They are often vitamins or derivatives of vitamins. Sometimes they can act as catalysts in the absence of enzymes, but not so effectively as in conjunction with an enzyme. As with metal-enzyme linkages, there is a range of bond strengths for coenzymeenzyme links, the point of distinction between tightly-bound cofactor and loosely-bound cofactor being arbitrary.

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choose the description of a condition where a positive regulator activates citrate synthase. low [atp/adp] ratio. adp is an allosteric activator of citrate synthase. high [atp/adp] ratio. high atp substrate levels favor product formation. high [nadh/nad ][nadh/nad ] ratio. nadhnadh is a positive allosteric activator. high [citrate]. citrate is a positive allosteric activator.

Answers

Its substrates, acetyl-CoA and oxaloacetate, may be the most important regulators of the citrate synthase process. Both are present in the mitochondria in amounts that are below citrate synthase saturating levels.

What causes citrate synthase to be activated and inhibited?

In the first step of the cycle, when acetyl-CoA and oxaloacetic acid combine to form citrate, citrate synthase controls the rate of the reaction. High levels of ATP, acetyl-CoA, and NADH block it, which suggests that there is already a significant amount of energy available.

That which controls citrate synthase is an allosteric chemical.

Succinyl-CoA, a later step in the cycle, NADH, ATP, or long-chain fatty acyl-CoA can all act as citrate synthase's negative allosteric modulators, depending on the kind of cell.

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1. to calculate the frequency of the brown allele, count the number of blank and divide by the total number of alleles in this population.target 1 of 5 2. in this beetle population, the number of brown alleles is blank.target 2 of 5 3. in this beetle population, the total number of alleles for color is blank.target 3 of 5 4. the frequency of the brown allele in this beetle population is blank.target 4 of 5 5. the frequency of the green allele in this beetle population is blank.target 5 of 5

Answers

To calculate frequency of the brown allele, count the number of brown alleles and divide by  total number of alleles in this population.

Allele frequency is decided by counting how typically the allele seems inside the population and then dividing by the full variety of copies of the gene.

Gene frequency can be defined as the fraction or percentage of a population that contains an allele at a selected locus (Gillespie 2004). It is also extra accurately known as allele frequency.

Relative genotype frequency and relative allele frequency are the most essential measures of genetic variation. Relative genotype frequency is proportion of individuals in the populace that has a specific genotype.

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During the_____blank phase, the inside of the cell becomes positively charged, and during the_____ blank phase, the membrane potential returns to its resting value.

Answers

During the depolarization blank phase, the inside of the cell becomes positively charged, and during the repolarization blank phase, the membrane potential returns to its resting value.

During the depolarization phase, what happens?

The gated sodium ion channels on the membrane of the neuron rapidly open during the depolarization phase, allowing sodium ions (Na+) that are present outside the membrane to rush into the cell. The intrinsic charge of the neuron decreases from -70 mV to -55 mV when the sodium ions swiftly enter the cell.

Depolarization and repolarization: what are they?

Depolarization is the process of bringing a cell's membrane potential to a higher positive value. Repolarization is the process by which the membrane potential shifts from a positive to a negative value. The inner membrane becomes less negative after depolarization.

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pick the correct match. no cell wall, only plasma membrane: no large vacuole, only small ones: no chlorophyll or chloroplasts: cell plate and no centrioles in cell division: cleavage furrow plus centrioles in cell division: presence of cell wall plus plasma membrane: large hypertonic vacuole: chloroplasts:

Answers

Cell walls and plasma membranes are integral components of a cell’s structure and function. The cell wall is a rigid layer of non-living material that surrounds the cell membrane and gives the cell shape and protection. The plasma membrane is a phospholipid bilayer that controls the passage of substances in and out of the cell, as well as providing structure.

Vacuoles are membrane-bound organelles that store materials such as proteins, carbohydrates, ions, and metabolic wastes. Vacuoles can range in size from tiny organelles known as microvacuoles to large vacuoles, such as the central vacuole of a plant cell, which can take up to 90% of the cell’s volume.

Chlorophyll is the photosynthetic pigment found in chloroplasts, the organelles that produce energy for the cell. Chloroplasts contain a number of other pigments and enzymes needed for photosynthesis, and are found only in photosynthetic organisms, such as plants and algae.

Cell division is the process by which a cell divides into two new daughter cells. During the process of cell division, a variety of organelles and structures, including cell plates and centrioles, play a role in dividing the genetic material of a cell. In cleavage furrow plus centriole cell division, centrioles are involved in forming the cleavage furrow that divides the cell into two new cells. In contrast, in cell plate plus no centriole cell division, a cell plate is formed that separates the two new cells, but centrioles are not involved.

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Answer:

Cell walls and plasma membranes are integral components of a cell’s structure and function. The cell wall is a rigid layer of non-living material that surrounds the cell membrane and gives the cell shape and protection. The plasma membrane is a phospholipid bilayer that controls the passage of substances in and out of the cell, as well as providing structure. Vacuoles are membrane-bound organelles that store materials such as proteins, carbohydrates, ions, and metabolic wastes. Vacuoles can range in size from tiny organelles known as microvacuoles to large vacuoles, such as the central vacuole of a plant cell, which can take up to 90% of the cell’s volume. Chlorophyll is the photosynthetic pigment found in chloroplasts, the organelles that produce energy for the cell. Chloroplasts contain a number of other pigments and enzymes needed for photosynthesis, and are found only in photosynthetic organisms, such as plants and algae.Cell division is the process by which a cell divides into two new daughter cells. During the process of cell division, a variety of organelles and structures, including cell plates and centrioles, play a role in dividing the genetic material of a cell. In cleavage furrow plus centriole cell division, centrioles are involved in forming the cleavage furrow that divides the cell into two new cells. In contrast, in cell plate plus no centriole cell division, a cell plate is formed that separates the two new cells, but centrioles are not involved.

Explanation:

ADH (Anti-diuretic hormone) is important in maintaining homeostasis in mammals. ADH is released from hypothalamus in response to high tissue osmolarity (=less water in blood). In response to ADH, the collecting duct and distal tubule In the kidney become more permeable to water; which Increases water reabsorption Into caplllaries: The amount of hormone released is controlled by a negative feedback loop. Based on the model presented, what is the relationship between ADH release, osmolarity and production of urine? poni As tissue osmolarity rises, more ADH is released, causing less water to be excreted 05 urine As tissue osmolarity rises, less ADH is released, causing less water to be excreted as unne As tissue osmolarity rises more ADH is released, causing more water t0 be excreted as urine As tissue osmolarity rises, less ADH is released, causing more water to be excreted 0: unne Tivo of the above

Answers

Bases on the model presented, the relationship between ADH release, osmolarity and production of urine can be presented as: As tissue osmolarity rises, more ADH is released, causing less water to be excreted.

ADH is the Anti-Diuretic Hormone released by the hypothalamus, but stored in the posterior pituitary. It is also called vasopressin and plays two roles in the body. It is involved in the constriction of blood vessels as well as maintaining the osmolarity of the body.

Osmolarity can be defined as the concentration of solutes in the body in per liter solvent. It is necessary to maintain the osmolarity of the body in order to prevent any diseases.

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HELP Please, I really need help with this project.

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In a Section A, the number of seals are less in number. And In section B, number of seals are more in number.

What are Seals?

Seals are pinnipeds, which are the only mammals that feed in the water and breed on land. They are divided into three different families: phocidae, which includes eared seals, otaridae, which includes non-eared seals, and odobenidae, which includes walruses.

Seals have a thick coating of blubber that protects them from the cold; a transparent membrane covers their eyes; their nostrils close; and their blood circulation to most of their organs is decreased while diving.

Seals have the ability to snooze underwater and even surface for air without waking up.

Therefore, In a Section A, the number of seals are less in number. And In section B, number of seals are more in number.

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according to the standard curve above, what is the approximate concentration of a solution whose absorbance at 635nm is 0.60?

Answers

The basic idea is to use a graph plotting Absorbance vs. Concentration of known solutions. Once you have that you can compare the absorbance value of an unknown sample to figure out its concentration.

You will compute the concentration using Beer's law.

Beer's law is expressed as A = mCl.

(A = absorption, m = molar extinction coefficient, C = concentration, and l = 1 cm path length)

You ought to have the data set that was employed to build the standard curve. Concentration (an independent variable) should be shown on the x-axis of the graph, and absorption (a dependent variable) should be shown on the y-axis.

You must choose the equation for the line and add a line of best fit to the data points. The formula for the equation should be y=mx + b.

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You have sequenced the genome of the bacterium Salmonella typhimurium, and you are using BL.AST analysis to identify similarities within the S. typhimurium genome to known proteins. You find a protein that is 100 percent identical in the bacterium Escherichia coli When you compare nucleotide sequences of the
S. typhimurium and coli genes, you find that their nucleotide sequences are only 87 percent identical.
a. Explain this observation.
b. What do these observations tell you about the merits of nucleotide- versus protein-similarity searches in identifying related genes?

Answers

A) change in the DNA nucleotide sequence, particularly at the nucleotides coding for the third position of a codon, can occur without changing the translated protein because the triplet code is excessive.

B) suggest about the relative advantages of searching for related genes based on nucleotide similarity vs protein similarity.

Protein clusters are expected to evolve and change more gradually than the characteristics that encode them. The majority of codons are adaptable in their nucleotide locations, which allows the DNA sequence to accumulate modifications without affecting protein structure. Given that amino acid modifications may alter the structure and functionality of the protein, protein groupings will grow and diverge all the more gradually. Since the succession of amino corrosives is essentially forced, natural selection will eliminate many deleterious amino corrosive modifications. As a result, the pace of advancement in the amino corrosive succession will slow down, and the amino corrosive arrangement will have more prominent grouping protection as compared to the nucleotide arrangement.

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Most people have observed it "rain" in the produce department of grocery stores, where water spra
green leafy vegetables from a misting system. How does this practice help to keep vegetables fresh
crisp?




A:Extra water creates a hypertonic solution around plant cells, which causes water to diffuse
the cell plasmolysing the cells.


B:Extra water creates a hypotonic solution around plant cells, which causes water to diffuse
the cell creating turgor pressure.


C: Extra water makes plants shiny, increasing the likelihood that consumers will purchase the
plants.


D:Extra water creates an isotonic solution around plant cells, which causes water to diffuse i
and out of the plant cells making them flaccid.

Answers

B. Hypertonic means filling the cells of the plants with water due to osmosis, so they get plumper and are more hydrated so last longer.

C is valid for why shops use mist but NOT for why fruit stay fresh like the question asks

if, however, it possesses two recessive alleles, the term homozygous_____can be used to describe its genotype, and it will exhibit a recessive phenotype.

Answers

This happens as a result of the fact that some alleles are more dominant than others, which means that their phenotype will cover up the phenotypic brought on by the recessive alleles.

The dominant allele will be exclusively expressed, as opposed to both alleles contributing to a trait. Although latent, the recessive allele will be A heterozygous genotype is one in which an organism possesses both a dominant and a recessive allele. This genotype is designated as Bb in our example. Finally, homozygous recessive refers to the genotype of an organism with two recessive alleles. This genotype is denoted as bb in the example of the eye color. two identical alleles present at a specific gene location. Two normal alleles or two alleles with the same variation can both be present in a homozygous genotype.

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for sneaky snakes, being rude (r) is dominant to being respectful (r). complete the cross below, and determine the phenotype (dominant : recessive) ratio.

Answers

For sneaky snakes, being rude (r) is dominant to being respectful (r). complete the cross below, and determine the phenotype (dominant : recessive) ratio RRSS

According to the question, the female snake will have genotype rrss while the male snake will have genotype RRSS. The genetic combination "RS" will be present in the four identical gametes that the male snake produces, whereas the genetic combination "rs" will be present in the four identical gametes that the female snake produces.

The genotypes of their offspring are displayed in the connected cross. According to the genotype "RrSs," which merely says, all of their offspring will be heterozygous dominant and, as a result, phenotypically harsh and cunning. The "Punnett square diagram" makes it clear that all of their progeny will have this genotype. Additionally, it eliminates the possibility of producing children that carry the rrss gene, which may make them trustworthy and receptive.

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given the free energy diagrams we have provided you, which of the following pairs of coupled reactions (listed below in the answer choices) would not provide sufficient free energy input to drive the non-spontaneous reaction in that pair of reactions? select all that apply o A&C o D&A o E&A o A&B
o D&B

Answers

The free energy diagrams A & B pairs of the coupled reaction would provide sufficient free energy input to drive the non-spontaneous reaction.

A nonspontaneous reaction is a reaction that does not favor the formation of products at the given set of conditions. In order for a reaction to be nonspontaneous, it must be endothermic, accompanied by a decrease in entropy, or both. If the reactants have a lower ΔG than the products, there will be an increase in free energy and the reaction is nonspontaneous.

An endothermic reaction is any chemical reaction that absorbs heat from its environment. The absorbed strength affords the activation strength for the reaction to arise. an indicator of this kind of response is that it feels bloodless.

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Select all that apply
Indicate which of the following are functions of saliva. (select all that apply)
Multiple select question.
helps cleanse the mouth and teeth
moistens food particles
initiates chemical digestion of carbohydrates
initiates chemical digestion of proteins
dissolves molecules so they can be tasted
aids in mechanical digestion

Answers

Functions of saliva include helping cleanse the mouth and teeth, moistening food particles, initiating chemical digestion of carbohydrates, and dissolving molecules so they can be tasted (options 1, 2, 3 and 5).

What is the saliva?

Saliva is a secretion of the body which contains many enzymes required to digest foods but also can be helpful to eliminate pathogenic agents such as bacteria and viruses before entry to the organism.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that the saliva is a very useful secretion of the saliva glands which served to digest foods.

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A figure of transport across the cell membrane is shown below. A and B are the two transporters transporting either ions and/or glucose. Match the transporter/molecule to the statement. Transporter A is involved in this type of transport Transporter B is imvolved in in this type o: transport In Transporter B Glucose is moving In Transporter B Sodium ions are moving In Transporter A Sodium ions are moving

Answers

In the given image, (1) Transporter A is involved in: Antiport Active Transport.

(2) Transporter B is involved in: Symport Active Transport.

(3) In Transporter B Glucose is moving: inside the cell.

(4) In Transporter B Sodium ions are moving: inside the cell.

(5) In Transporter A Sodium ions are moving: outside the cell.

Antiport Active Transport is a type of secondary active transport where two molecules pass through a channel protein in opposite direction. This type of transport if called co-transport. One molecule in this moves along the concentration gradient while the other moves against its concentration gradient.

Symport Active Transport is also a type of secondary active transport and co-transport. Here both the molecules move in same direction. However one moves along its concentration gradient while the other moves against its concentration gradient.

The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:

A figure of transport across the cell membrane is shown below. A and B are the two transporters transporting either ions and/or glucose. Match the transporter/molecule to the statement. Transporter A is involved in this type of transport Transporter B is involved in in this type o: transport In Transporter B Glucose is moving In Transporter B Sodium ions are moving In Transporter A Sodium ions are moving.

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In the third step of the cloning procedure,all of the plasmids that were created in the second step are incubated with bacteria. The bacteria do not have an ampR gene on their own chromosome.
As shown above at least four classes of bacteria result. Notice that only one class contains the vgp gene.
To help sort out those bacteria that have the vgp gene, scientists first attempt to grow the bacteria both in a medium with ampicillin and in a medium without ampicillin. Demonstrate your understanding of this step by sorting the four bacterial classes based on where they will grow.
Sort the bacterial class into the appropriate category.
becaterial class: -no plasmid, -nonerecombinant plasmid, -recombinant plasmid but no vgp gene, -recombiant plasmid with vgp gene
will ONLY grow in medium without ampicillin:
will ONLY grow in medium containing ampicillin:
will grow in both media:

Answers

The four bacterial classes based on where they will grow.Only grow in medium without ampicillin No plasmid.

Only grow in medium containing ampicillin:

NONE

Grow in both media:

Recombinant plasmid with vgp gene

Nonrecombinant Plasmid

Recombinant plasmid with no vgp gene

Genera appeared to be commonly liable to ampicillin and amoxicillin are Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Corynebacterium, Clostridium, Escherichia, Klebsiella, Shigella, Salmonella, Proteus and Pasteurella, even though many of those bacteria have acquired resistance.

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which of the following statements regarding natural selection is false? natural selection depends on the local environment at the current time. natural selection starts with the creation of new alleles that are directed toward improving an organism's fitness. natural selection and evolutionary change can occur in a short period of time (a few generations). natural selection can be observed working in organisms alive today.

Answers

Statement which is false regarding natural selection is a)natural selection depends on the local environment at the current time. So, correct option is a.

Natural selection is the differential endurance and generation of people because of contrasts in aggregate. It is a critical system of evolution, the adjustment of the heritable qualities normal for a populace over ages. Charles Darwin advocated the expression "natural selection", standing out it from counterfeit choice, which in his view is purposeful, though natural selection isn't.

Variety exists inside all populaces of organic entities. This happens mostly in light of the fact that irregular transformations emerge in the genome of a singular organic entity, and their posterity can acquire such changes. Over the lifetimes of the people, their genomes associate with their surroundings to cause varieties in characteristics. The climate of a genome remembers the sub-atomic science for the cell, different cells, others, populaces, species, as well as the abiotic climate.

Hence, option a  is correct.

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(Complete question) is:

which of the following statements regarding natural selection is false?

a)natural selection depends on the local environment at the current time. b)natural selection starts with the creation of new alleles that are directed toward improving an organism's fitness.

c)natural selection and evolutionary change can occur in a short period of time (a few generations).

d)natural selection can be observed working in organisms alive today.

When phage nucleic acid is incorporated into the nucleic acid of its host cell and is replicated when the host DNA is replicated, this is considered part of which cycle?

Answers

When phage nucleic acid is incorporated into the nucleic acid of its host cell and is replicated when the host DNA is replicated, this is considered part of the Lytic cycle.

A variety of different cycles that bacteriophages may employ in order to infect their bacterial hosts:

The lytic cycle: After infecting a bacterium, the phage hijacks the bacterium to produce numerous phages before extinguishing the cell (lyse) to kill it.

The lytic cycle: One of the two cycles of viral reproduction is called lysogeny, and the other is called the lytic cycle. Lysogeny is described by the integration of the bacteriophage nucleic corrosive into the host bacterium's genome or the development of a roundabout replicon in the bacterial cytoplasm.

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match the functional property of muscle tissue with its description.1. contractility (click to select)2. excitability (click to select)3. extensibility (click to select)4. elasticity (click to select)

Answers

The functional property of muscle tissue with its description are

1. Contractility- A muscle shortens forcefully.

2. Excitability- A muscle responds to a stimulus.

3. Extensibility- A muscle can stretch beyond its normal resting length and still contract

4. Elasticity- A muscle recoils to its original resting length after having been stretched.

The dense central layer of the core is made up of cardiac muscle tissue. It is one of the three types of muscles in the body, the other two being skeletal and sleek. A thin outer layer called the epicardium (also known as the visceral pericardium) and an inner endocardium surround the heart muscle. Numerous connective tissue sheaths cover thousands of muscle fibers that make up each skeletal muscle. Fasciculi are the distinct clusters of muscular fibers that make up a muscle.

Smooth muscle has a non-striated pattern because it is made up of thick and thin filaments that are not grouped into sarcomeres. Microscopically, it will appear to be consistent. An excessive amount of globulin and simple protein can be found in the protoplasm of sleek muscle.

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Which of the following is NOT true regarding adolescence in Western cultures?
a. Sexual maturation in adolescence begins earlier.
b. Teens are entering adolescence later.
c. Independence from parents emerges later.
d. Social approval is imperative during adolescence

Answers

Answer:

B. Teens are entering adolescence later is NOT true.

Explanation:

In Western cultures, adolescents generally begin to go through puberty and experience the physical and emotional changes associated with adolescence around the ages of 11-12 for girls and 12-13 for boys. This is earlier than in previous generations, and the age at which people enter adolescence has been decreasing over time.

For genotype: lacIS lacP+ lacO+ lacZ - lacY+ / F' lacI+ lacP+ lacOC lacZ+ lacY -
Select the best description of beta-galactosidase activity in the following environmental conditions.
Lactose Absent; Glucose Absent
Lactose Present, Glucose Present
1. High
2. Basal
3. Lower than basal
4. None
For genotype: lacIS lacP+ lacO+ lacZ - lacY+ / F' lacI+ lacP - lacOC lacZ+ lacY -
Select the best description of permease activity in the following environmental conditions.

Answers

Answers to both questions are given as follows:

Coli cell of lacI+lacP+lacOc lacZ-lacY+/lacI-lacP+lacO+lacZ-lacY+will Only expresses lacY, only in the absence of lactose.

For genotype: lacIS lacP+ lacO+ lacZ - lacY+ / F' lacI+ lacP - lacOC lacZ+ lacYthe best description of permease activity in the following environmental conditions will be none for both cases.

A set of genes arranged in a specific order for lactose processing is called a coli lac operon. When lactose is present, the lac operon, which consists of three genes termed lacZ that code for enzymes is active.

The regulatory gene lacI, which produces repressor proteins, the enzyme lac-galactosidase, lacY, which produces lactose permease, and lacA, which produces acetyltransferase. The repressor proteins bind to the operator protein and then control transcription. As soon as it attaches to the operator, transcription ceases.

The complete question 2 is:

For genotype: lacIS lacP+ lacO+ lacZ - lacY+ / F' lacI+ lacP - lacOC lacZ+ lacY -

Select the best description of permease activity in the following environmental conditions.

Question 2 options:

Glucose Present; Lactose Present

Glucose Absent; Lactose Present

1. High

2. Basal

3. Lower than basal

4. None

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#27: Scientists investigated the effect of light intensity on the rate of
photosynthesis.
Rate of
photosynthesis
in arbitrary units
sing your Inowle
250
200
150
100
50
0
organisms that co
0
Figure 3 shows the scientists' results.
Figure 3
50
100 150 200 250 300 350
Light intensity in arbitrary units
Describe the effect of increasing light intensity on the rate of
photosynthesis. You should include numbers from Figure 3 in
your description.

Answers

The increase in the light intensity would led to increase in the rate of photosynthesis.

What is photosynthesis?

We know that photosynthesis is the process by which green plants can be able to produce their own food in the presence of carbon dioxide and water. We know that sunlight is the catalyst of the photosynthesis process because it is the light that enables the water and the carbon dioxide to be combined so as to produce sugars and oxygen.

In this case, we can see that as the light intensity is increasing, the rate of the photosynthesis is  increasing from the data that has been provided. The impact of this is that light makes the combination of the reactants much more possible and this would increase the rate of the reaction.

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Epigenetics are different than mutations in that mutations?

Answers

Epigenetics are different than mutations in that mutations can change DNA sequences and is therefore denoted as option B.

What is Mutation?

This is a term which is referred to as a change in the DNA sequence of an organism during DNA replication in the process of cell division and is usually caused by exposure to mutagens and a viral infection in the body of the organisms.

Mutation however can change DNA sequences while on the other hand, epigenetics are reversible and do not change your DNA sequence which is therefore the reason why it was chosen as the correct choice.

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Often, weather forecasters refer to high- or low-pressure areas moving
toward particular regions in order to describe predicted conditions for
those areas. As air rises in low-pressure systems, it cools and often
condenses into clouds and precipitation, resulting in storms. In
high-pressure systems, the air sinks toward the Earth and warms
upward, leading to dry and fair weather.

HOW DOES THIS RELATE TO MY RESEARCH QUESTION WHICH IS

WHAT EFFECT DOES THE AMOUNT OF AIR PRESSURE HAVE ON HOW FAR A SOCCER BALL TRAVELS WHEN KICKED?

Answers

Answer:

The amount of air pressure can affect how far a soccer ball travels when kicked. In general, high-pressure systems are associated with dry and fair weather, which can lead to a harder and more predictable playing surface. This can make it easier for a soccer player to control the ball and kick it with more accuracy and force, resulting in longer distances. On the other hand, low-pressure systems are associated with storms and wet conditions, which can make the playing surface softer and less predictable. This can make it more difficult for a soccer player to control the ball and kick it with accuracy and force, resulting in shorter distances. Therefore, the air pressure in a particular region can have a significant effect on how far a soccer ball travels when kicked.

HELPP!! Select all the correct answers.
Which statements fail to meet the requirements of a scientific claim?

Flowers that reflect the most ultraviolet light are more likely to attract bees and other pollinators than
flowers that reflect less ultraviolet light.
In the final 100 meters of a 10,000-meter race, an athlete's speed s more strongly related to anaerobic
efficiency than to aerobic efficiency.
Even though evidence indicates that the solar system's planets follow elliptical paths, Copernicus's
model involving circular orbits is true.
The evidence supporting Newton's laws of motion was accurate in Newton's time, but the universe
operates differently today.

Answers

The statements that fail to meet the requirements of a scientific claim are Even though evidence indicates that the solar system's planets follow elliptical paths, Copernicus's model involving circular orbits is true, and the last statement and these both are not scientific.

What is the work of a scientist?

The scientists' main work is to explain the science with data and observation, and the scientific discoveries should be useful for mankind. There are many fields that have continuously evolved through the work of scientists.

Hence, the statements that fail to meet the requirements of a scientific claim are Even though evidence indicates that the solar system's planets follow elliptical paths, Copernicus's model involving circular orbits is true, and the last statement and these both are not scientific.

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