Complete a phylogenetic tree of Bilateria that includes the ten phyla of bilaterians. Label each branch that leads to a phylum with a C, H, HC, or N, depending on whether members of the phylum have a coelom only (C), hemocoel only (H), hemocoel and reduced coelom (HC), or no body cavity (N). Drag the appropriate labels to their respective targets. Labels can be used once or more than once. Reset Help с Echinodermata Deuterostomia Chordata N - Platyhelminthes N Lophotrochozoa Syndermata H Ectoprocta HC Brachiopoda

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Answer 1

Complete a phylogenetic tree of Bilateria that includes the ten phyla of bilaterians are (C) echinodermata to (HC) arthropoda.

A phylogenetic tree is a branching diagram or a tree showing the evolutionary relationships among various biological species or other entities primarily based upon similarities and differences in their physical or genetic characteristics. All life in the world is part of a single phylogenetic tree, indicating commonplace ancestry.

(C) echinodermata

(C) chordata

(N) platyhelminthes

(H) syndermata

(C) ectoprocta

(C) brachiopoda

(HC) mollusca

(C) annelida

(H) nematoda

(HC) arthropoda

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Related Questions

The pelvic splanchnic nerves are formed by preganglionic parasympathetic fibers from the ______ region of the spinal cord.

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Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers from the sacral region of the spinal cord form the pelvic splanchnic nerves.

The pelvic splanchnic nerves are preganglionic nerves that emerge from the spinal cord's lateral horn grey matter at the sacral segments of the S2, S3, and S4. The S3 nerve usually contributes the most of these fibers.

Sympathetic nerve fibers emerge from the gray matter of the spinal cord's intermediolateral horns between segments T-1 and L-3. There are no sympathetic nerve fibers that originate in the cervical or lumbar or sacral segments of the cord below L-3.

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What tells the stem cell what type of specialized cell it will be

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Answer:

protein OCT4 primes

Explanation:

Cells commit to developmental lineages as a result of differentiation, and they also learn specific skills based on the tissue they will eventually reside in. The growth of stem cells is tightly regulated by signaling processes, which change gene expression and signaling pathways.

Often, weather forecasters refer to high- or low-pressure areas moving
toward particular regions in order to describe predicted conditions for
those areas. As air rises in low-pressure systems, it cools and often
condenses into clouds and precipitation, resulting in storms. In
high-pressure systems, the air sinks toward the Earth and warms
upward, leading to dry and fair weather.

HOW DOES THIS RELATE TO MY RESEARCH QUESTION WHICH IS

WHAT EFFECT DOES THE AMOUNT OF AIR PRESSURE HAVE ON HOW FAR A SOCCER BALL TRAVELS WHEN KICKED?

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Answer:

You hear meteorologists all the time talking about low and high pressure because it is extremely impactful on the weather. Atmospheric pressure refers to the weight of the air. High pressure means the air is heavy, and it sinks. Sinking air makes the environment very stable.

you have discovered a fossil-bearing layer in east africa and you wish to estimate its age. there are abundant fossils of many savanna species, and you have identified most of them to species or genus. you know that the genus equus makes its first appearance in africa at 2.3 mya, and the species connochaetes gnou first appears at about 1.07 mya.

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There are abundant fossils of many savanna species, and identified most of them to species or genus  is known as paleontology

The conditions in this statement are If your site includes Equus but not Connochaetes gnou. If your site includes both Equus and Connochaetes gnou. If your site contains neither Equus nor Connochaetes gnou.

The study of fossils, including their age, formation process, and evolutionary importance, is known as paleontology. If a specimen is more than 10,000 years old, it is typically regarded as a fossil. The earliest fossils date back between 4.1 billion years and 3.48 billion years.  A geological timeline and the relative ages of various fossils were recognized in the 19th century as a result of the discovery that specific fossils were linked to specific rock strata. Scientists are now able to quantitatively determine the absolute ages of rocks and the fossils they contain thanks to the introduction of radiometric dating methods in the early 20th century.

Fossils range in size from microorganisms with a diameter of one micrometer (1 m) to dinosaurs and trees that were many meters long and weighed many tons. In most cases, a fossil merely preserves a small section of the extinct organism, typically the component that was partially mineralized during life, like the vertebrates' teeth and bones or the invertebrates' chitinous or calcareous exoskeletons. Additionally, fossils may include signs that the organism left behind while it was still living, such as feces or animal footprints (coprolites). As opposed to body fossils, these kinds of fossils are referred to as trace fossils.

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State the most likely hypothetical order of evolution of anaerobic respiration, aerobic respiration and photosynthesis.

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In the past, anaerobic and aerobic respiration have coevolved. Essentially, glucose is created during photosynthesis and is used to create ATP, a substance that is present in all human cells.

The glucose is transformed into carbon dioxide, and the oxygen is turned into carbon dioxide as a result of the glucose conversion. This type of respiration is present in all higher creatures, including mammals. This type is used by lower creatures like bacteria and yeast. It occurs during demanding tasks in other creatures. The idea that solely aerobic respiration is used by people and other multicellular organisms is untrue. There are two varieties of breathing: 1 Aerobic Respiration – Occurs when there is oxygen present. Anaerobic respiration, on the other hand, occurs without oxygen.

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Defective proteins are often degraded quickly, making their effects temporary. Single amino acid substitutions caused by errors in mRNA transcription would not affect protein function. Unlike DNA mutations, mRNA transcripts have short half-lives and are not inherited across many generations. Degradation of defective proteins activates mRNA repair pathways RNA polymerases synthesize many transcripts per gene, so only a small fraction of RNA transcripts would have errors. ch mRNA molecule is only translated once and then degraded. Incorrect At least one of the reasons you have selected does not explain why RNA polymerases do not require rigorous error correction. Transcription can produce many mRNA transcripts that then can be translated into many proteins. If only one of these mRNAs contains an error, not all the copies of that particular protein will contain an error. Additionally, mRNAs and proteins have a finite lifetime and can be degraded while DNA persists from generation to generation. Identify answers that are consistent with these features of transcription and translation.

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It is true to say that defective proteins are often degraded quickly, making their effects temporary.

Protein degradation assumes a focal part in numerous cell capabilities. Misfolded and harmed proteins are taken out from the cell to keep away from harmfulness. The convergences of administrative proteins are changed by degradation at the fitting time. Both unfamiliar and local proteins are processed into little peptides as a feature of the versatile safe reaction. In eukaryotic cells, an ATP-subordinate protease called the proteasome is liable for quite a bit of this proteolysis.

Proteins are focused on for proteasomal degradation by a two-section degron, which comprises of a proteasome restricting sign and a debasement inception site. Here we depict how the two parts add to the particularity of corruption. Single amino acid substitutions  can do degradation of defective proteins which activates mRNA repair pathways.

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(Complete question) is:

Defective proteins are often degraded quickly, making their effects temporary. Single amino acid substitutions caused by errors in mRNA transcription would not affect protein function. Unlike DNA mutations, mRNA transcripts have short half-lives and are not inherited across many generations. Degradation of defective proteins activates mRNA repair pathways RNA polymerases synthesize many transcripts per gene, so only a small fraction of RNA transcripts would have errors. ch mRNA molecule is only translated once and then degraded. Incorrect At least one of the reasons you have selected does not explain why RNA polymerases do not require rigorous error correction. Transcription can produce many mRNA transcripts that then can be translated into many proteins. If only one of these mRNAs contains an error, not all the copies of that particular protein will contain an error. Additionally, mRNAs and proteins have a finite lifetime and can be degraded while DNA persists from generation to generation. Identify answers that are consistent with these features of transcription and translation.Select statement is true or false.

in the r- vs. k-selection classification, which of the following best describes a k-selected species? individuals grow larger, live longer, reproduce later, and invest more resources into each offspring. individuals reproduce early and often, maximizing fecundity with little investment in each offspring. individuals live longer and reoroduce later but invest verv little in offspring. individuals reproduce earlv and often and invest more resources into each offspring.

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K-selected species have relatively steady populations that fluctuate near the environment's carrying limit.

These animals are distinguished by having a small number of offspring while providing extensive parental care. Humans, elephants, and bison are all k-selected species.

Reproduction is the biological process through which new individual organisms - "offspring" - are formed from their "parent" or parents. Each individual organism exists as a result of reproduction, which is a fundamental aspect of all known life.

Semelparity. A member of a species reproduces just once during its lifespan and then dies in semelparity. Species with this pattern deplete the majority of their resource budget in a single reproductive event, risking their health to the point of extinction.

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Determine whether the following statements describe cellular adhesion, cellular recognition, or both adhesion and recognition.- CELLULAR ADHESION:
RECOGNITION AND ADHESION:
CELLULAR RESPONSE:

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CELLULAR ADHESION: tight junctions form a seal between two cells.

RECOGNITION AND ADHESION: the process can lead to an intracellular response.

CELLULAR RESPONSE: carbohydrate chains are attached to cell surface proteins or phospholipids.

Cellular recognition is described as a dynamic process that results in a specific response. When it can be indicated that cell adhesion is facilitated by molecules with specific binding properties, it is a prime illustration of cell recognition. Cellular response is a stable state of biochemical mediator production and degradation in the cell, which can happen in a variety of ways.

Cellular responses can be extremely fast, such as the opening of ion channels to cause a change in membrane potential or muscle fiber contraction, which occurs within milliseconds of data transmission, or they can take minutes, such as whole cell movement.

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What happens to the phenotype of the heterozygotes when traits are inherited?

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When traits are inherited, All of the children produced by crossing true-breeding, or homozygous, individuals who differ for a certain trait will be heterozygous for that trait.

When qualities are inherited in a dominant and recessive manner, the F1 offspring will all have the homozygous dominant trait of the parent.

Mendel came to the conclusion that some features predominated other inherited traits after seeing that a heterozygote offspring might exhibit the same phenotype as the parent homozygote. But unlike the dominant and recessive patterns that Mendel identified, the link between genetics and phenotype is rarely as straightforward.

As the study of inheritance evolved beyond the seven qualities Mendel first looked at and also covered creatures other than pea plants, researchers started to observe a diversity of interactions between alleles that code for the same trait. Our knowledge of how genotype results in phenotype has been substantially improved by these allelic interactions, which were not just recessive or dominant.

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Which of the following best describes how a cell uses alcohol fermentation as a mechanism of breaking down food to generate ATP?a. Oxygen is absent; electron transport chain is not used.b. Oxygen is absent; electron transport chain is used.c. Oxygen is present; electron transport chain is not used.d. Oxygen is present; electron transport chain is used.

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The following best describes how a cell uses alcohol fermentation as a mechanism of breaking down food to generate ATP Oxygen is absent; the electron transport chain is not used.

Many fermentation processes require enzymes to speed up the process. Since the amylase enzyme is responsible for breaking down starch into simple sugars, alcohol cannot be produced without the amylase enzyme. Furthermore, fermentation without enzymes is never possible.

Alcoholic fermentation is a complex biochemical process in which yeast converts sugars into ethanol carbon dioxide and other metabolic by-products that contribute to the chemical composition and sensory properties of fermented foods. The main purpose of fermentation is to produce ATP an energy source for use and storage at the cellular level.

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produced by ovarian follicles during the first part of the ovarian cycle, prevents too many follicles from developing at one time.

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Anti-Müllerian hormone is produced by ovarian follicles during the first part of the ovarian cycle, prevents too many follicles from developing at one time.

How do hormones work?

Your body uses hormones as signaling molecules. They go to tissues or organs through your circulation. They impact several activities, including development and growth and work slowly over time. Your body converts food into energy through metabolism.

What is the primary hormone in girls?

Describe estrogen. Estrogens are a class of hormones that are necessary for women's healthy sexual and reproductive development. They contain sex hormones as well. The majority of estrogen hormones are produced by a woman's ovaries, however minor quantities are also generated in modest amounts by the adrenal glands and fat cells.

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be able to describe the environmental conditions that might give rise to semelparity vs. iteroparity.

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Salmon in the Pacific are semelparous, putting enormous energy into a single, massive reproductive attempt. Iteroparous individuals have recurrent reproductive cycles (most vertebrates, shrubs, and trees).

Why is semelparity more common than iteroparity?

The average individual in the iteroparous population will generate 340 seeds in its lifetime, more than in the semelparous population, if adult mortality in the population is 30% annually. Semelparity will be preferred over iteroparity in populations with a high enough mortality rate.

Why is semelparity advantageous?

Semelparity has the benefit of enabling an organism to invest as much as possible in reproduction, leading to larger clutch sizes, greater parental investment, or quicker generation times.

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you have the technology necessary to measure each of the following in a sample of animal cells: carbohydrates, organelle density, picograms of dna, cell wall components, and enzymatic activity. which of the following cell characteristics would you expect to increase significantly between a cell in mitosis and one just beginning g1?

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Organelle density and enzymatic activity would be expected to increase significantly between a cell in mitosis and one just beginning g1.

What is mitosis?

One cell (the mother) divides into two new cells (the daughters) that are genetically identical to the mother cell through a process known as mitosis. In the context of the cell cycle, mitosis refers to the stage of cell division during which the DNA in the nucleus of the cell is divided into two identical sets of chromosomes.

Mitosis is used in the vast majority of cell divisions that take place in your body. Mitosis fills an organism's body with cells during development and growth, and it replaces old, worn-out cells with new ones over the course of an organism's existence. Mitotic divisions are a type of reproduction for single-celled eukaryotes like yeast, resulting in the generation of new members of the population.

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according to one model, stress is the result of systemic activation of the hypothalamus, the pituitary gland, and the [ select ] . the result of these series of activations is the release of hormones. the main stress hormone in this release is called [ select ] .

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According to one model, stress is the result of systemic activation of the hypothalamus, the pituitary gland, and the adrenal gland. The result of these series of activations is the release of hormones. The main stress hormone in this release is called cortisol.

The hypothalamus is a part of the brain that plays a key role in the regulation of the endocrine system and the body's response to stress. It sends signals to the pituitary gland, which then releases hormones that stimulate the adrenal gland to produce and release cortisol. Cortisol is a hormone that is released in response to stress and is involved in the body's fight or flight response. It helps to increase blood sugar levels, boost energy, and suppress immune function. The release of cortisol is part of the body's natural response to stress and is necessary for maintaining homeostasis, but if stress is chronic or excessive, it can have negative impacts on health.

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according to your text, which hormone has been implicated by neuroscientists in empathy and prosodies behaviros

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Neuroscientists have suggested that the hormone oxytocin plays a role in the development of empathy and prosocial behavior.

A naturally occurring hormone called oxytocin controls important parts of both the male and female reproductive systems, such as nursing and childbirth, as well as some aspects of behavior. Oxytocin is produced by your hypothalamus, but it is stored and released into your bloodstream by your posterior pituitary gland.

Hormones are substances that communicate with your organs, muscles, and other tissues through your blood to coordinate various bodily operations. These messages instruct your body on what to do and when.

Your brain's hypothalamus is responsible for controlling processes including digestion, heart rate, blood pressure, and body temperature.

Your pituitary gland is a tiny, pea-sized endocrine gland that is situated underneath your hypothalamus at the base of your brain.

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explain the complex process by which the basilar membrane responds to various frequencies and describe the primary theory thought to correctly represent this process.

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The basilar membrane is located in the cochlea. It forms the basis of the organ of Corti, which contains sensory receptors for hearing. Movement of the basilar membrane in response to sound waves causes  depolarization of hair cells in the organ of Corti. The hair cells transduce auditory signals into electrical impulses. These impulses are transmitted to the brain where they are interpreted as sound.

The entire basilar membrane from the base to the apex of the cochlea responds to intense low-frequency sounds, but when threshold is approached, it is  most effectively driven by sounds of progressively higher frequencies as one moves from the apex to the base of the cochlea.

Place Theory is a principle of listening to that affirms that, the regions of the basilar membrane are enormously specialized, with every region responding to a specific frequency. Our attention of sound relies upon  where every specific frequency produces vibrations along the basilar membrane.

By this principle, the pitch of a sound, including a human voice or a musical tone, is detected through the locations where the membrane vibrates, primarily based totally on frequencies similar to the tonotopic arrangement of the auditory neurons.

 

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learned guidelines for sexual expression that provide individuals with a sense of culturally appropriate sexual behaviors and sexual desires are known as .

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Sexual scripts are learned norms for sexual expression that provide people an understanding of acceptable sexual behaviors and desires, depending on their culture.

A person's capacity for sexual feelings and their emotional and sexual attraction to a particular gender is referred to as their sexuality (male or female).The ability to evaluate gender and sexuality as social rather than biological characteristics depends on the distinction between sex and gender. Heterosexuality, which is attraction to people of the opposite sex; homosexuality, which is attraction to people of one's own sex; Bisexuality, which is attraction to people of either sex; and asexuality, which is the lack of attraction to either gender, are the four main categories of sexuality or sexual orientation. Currently accepted scientific theory holds that people typically become conscious of their adolescence.

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Which of the following is not a solution to the problem of negative externalities due to pollution?
a. Create private property rights.
b. Levy pollution taxes.
c. Create obligatory controls.
d. Reward the production of these products through subsidies.
e. Establish strict limits on the amount of pollution allowed.

Answers

When the manufacturing process has a negative impact on unconnected third parties, this is referred to as a negative production externality.

For instance, throughout the manufacturing process, manufacturing plants generate noise and air pollution. Examples of negative production externalities include: The ultimate cost or benefit of a good or service does not account for the external cost or benefit. Therefore, externalities are often viewed by economists as a severe issue that causes markets to be inefficient and thus results in market failures. The tragedy of the commons is mostly sparked by externalities. When an item or service is used, negative consumption externalities occur, which cause the social cost of doing so to exceed the private benefit. Private advantages are the favourable elements given to the producer.

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select the correct statement(s) about the origin of fungi. select all that apply. select the correct statement(s) about the origin of fungi.select all that apply. fungi evolved after the first plants colonized land. fungi are more closely related to plants than to animals. multicellularity probably arose independently in fungi and animals.

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The correct statement about the origin of fungi is:

B. Multicellularity probably arose independently in fungi and animals.

Although there is little information regarding fungi's fossil history, research suggests that they likely initially appeared roughly a billion years ago.

Fungi are a very old group of organisms, as shown by the presence of fungal hyphae in the tissues of the oldest plant fossils. Prototaxites, which date back to the Devonian Period (419.2 million to 358.9 million years ago) and are among the earliest terrestrial plantlike fossils known, are actually believed to be enormous saprotrophic fungi (possibly even Basidiomycota).

It is believed that the remains of the filamentous fungus Tortotubus protuberans, which belong to the early Silurian Period (440 million years ago), are the oldest fossils of a terrestrial life.

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explain what tonotopic mapping is, how it is related to the structure of the basilar membrane, and is carried on to later structures of the auditory pathway, including the auditory cortex.

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The tonotopic map is an ordered map of frequencies produced by the responses of neurons within the structure of the auditory system.

Tonotopic maps are a hallmark of the mammalian auditory cortex and underlie the representation of complex sounds such as speech. This spatial separation of frequencies occurs in the inner ear, with high frequencies processed at the base of the cochlea and low frequencies processed at the apex.

When very high-frequency sound waves reach the ear, only the area closest to the base of the cochlea vibrates. As the sound frequency decreases, the position of maximum vibration amplitude shifts towards the apex of the cochlea. Due to this resonance gradient, the basement membrane is said to be organized 'tonotopically'.

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Choose statements true of transgression and regression. Sort the statements as being true of either transgression or regression.

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Transgression of the coastline inland The beach's location shifts inland. There was a relative rise in sea level. Regression entails a relative drop in sea level.

Transgression refers to a landward change in the shoreline, whereas regression refers to a seaward shift. The phrases are used to describe progressive changes in coast line location, regardless of the process generating the shift.

During a transgression, the rock sequence will show an onlap sequence (the facies will become deeper-water environments as you move up through the sediments). The rock sequence will exhibit an offlap sequence during a regression (the facies will become shallower environments as you move up through the sediments).

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which of the following processes can be effective in preventing the onset of viral infection in humans?

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Getting vaccinated to certain viruses can be effective in preventing the onset of viral infections in humans. The correct option to this question is B.

The spread of respiratory diseases can be stopped by frequently washing your hands, covering your mouth and nose while coughing or sneezing, and avoiding contact with infected persons. Disinfecting hard surfaces and avoiding touching your mouth, nose, or eyes also contribute.

Treatments for the majority of viral illnesses only provide temporary relief from symptoms while you wait for your immune system to eradicate the virus. Viral infections cannot be treated with antibiotics. Antiviral medications are available to treat several viral infections. Numerous viral infections can be stayed away from with the aid of vaccinations.

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Complete question : Which of the following processes can be effective in preventing the onset of viral infection in humans?

A) taking vitamins before being exposed to various viruses

B) getting vaccinated to certain viruses

C) taking antibiotics to inhibit bacterial growth

D) taking drugs that inhibit transcription

manipulations that decrease blood glucose level cause ; manipulations that increase blood glucose level cause . group of answer choices an increase in hunger; a decrease in hunger an increase in general arousal; a decrease in general arousal a decrease in general arousal; an increase in general arousal a decrease in hunger; an increase in hunger

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An increase in hunger is a side effect of blood glucose level manipulations. A decrease in hunger is a side effect of blood glucose level manipulations.

The quantity of glucose dissolved in a person's blood is known as blood glucose. For their energy needs, the body's many cells obtain this glucose. Diabetes, on the other hand, is a condition where the cells do not absorb the dissolved glucose.

Hunger is an organism's desire to consume food. The hormone ghrelin causes the body to produce the sensation of hunger. When the stomach is empty, it is let go. It causes the hypothalamus to send a signal that makes someone feel hungry.

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Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries has the GREATEST risk for shock due to blood loss? A. pelvic fracture B. posterior hip dislocation C. unilateral femur fracture D. proximal humerus fracture

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Pelvic Fracture is a musculoskeletal injury which has a greater risk for shock due to blood loss, among the rest of the options.

A break in one or more of your pelvic bones is known as a pelvic fracture. The severity of pelvic fractures, which are a rare kind of fracture, can range from minor to severe. While minor pelvic fractures typically heal without surgery, major fractures necessitate treatment.

With a shattered pelvis, it is painful to stand, sit, or move around. The bladder, intestines, and other significant blood arteries are shielded either by the pelvis. Numerous significant abdominal and leg muscles also link to the pelvis, enabling proper body motion and function.

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The operon model of the regulation of gene expression in bacteria was proposed by _____.
Watson and Crick
Franklin
Darwin
Jacob and Monod
Mendel
Jacob and Monod

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The operon model for all the types of regulation for gene expression in bacteria were proposed by Jacob and Monod. Option (6) is correct.

The notion of gene control known as Operon Theory was put forth by François Jacob and Jacques Monod (1961). A set of structural genes that have an operator controlling their expression is known as an operon. A regulatory gene's repressor inhibits the transcription of an operon by attaching to the operator.

Similar genes are frequently located together on the chromosome of bacteria, where they are produced as a single unit from a single promoter (RNA polymerase binding site). An operon is a collection of genes that is under the control of a single promoter. Several other enteric bacteria, including E. coli, contain the lac, or lactose, operon.

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Correct Question:

The operon model of the regulation of gene expression in bacteria was proposed by _____.

1. Watson and Crick

2. Franklin

3. Darwin

4. Jacob and Monod

5. Mendel

6. Jacob and Monod

Mendel studied pea plants dihybrid for seed shape (round versus wrinkled) and seed color (yellow versus green). Recall that
the round allele (R) is dominant to the wrinkled allele (r) and
the yellow allele (Y) is dominant to the green allele (y).
The table below shows the F1 progeny that result from selfing four different parent pea plants.
Use the phenotypes of the F1 progeny to deduce the genotype and phenotype of each parent plant.
Complete the table by dragging the correct label to the appropriate location. Labels can be used once, more than once, or not at all.

Answers

Mendel researched round versus wrinkled seeds in pea plants and seed color (yellow versus green).

Just to refresh your memory, the round allele (R) is dominant to the wrinkled allele (r), and the yellow allele (Y) is dominant to the green allele (y).

What are the genotypes of the pea plants that produce green and yellow seeds, respectively?

Thus, the genotype of a heterozygous yellow-seeded plant will be "Yy," whereas a green-seeded plant will have the genotype "yy" (as the recessive allele is expressed only in homozygous conditions).

What is the genotype of the parent of the yellow round?

As a result, genotype YYRR stands for the pure-breeding round yellow parent, while genotype YYRR stands for the pure-breeding green wrinkled parent. Character-specific gene pairs assort independently of one another during gamete development.

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In the general population, 1 in 300 individuals is a carrier for Tay-Sachs disease, while 1 in 30 individuals of Ashkenazi Jew descent are carriers. Tay-Sachs also affects 1 in 30 individuals with French-Canadian ancestry, although two completely unique mutations are responsible for the Ashkenazi and French-Canadian mutations.Part A What are the chances of two individuals having a child with Tay-Sachs if both individuals are not of Ashkenazi or French-Canadian descent? Enter your answer using scientific notation. For the multiplication symbol, use an asterisk ). 2.77×10-8 Submit My Answers Give Up CorrectPart B What are the chances of two individuals having a child with Tay-Sachs if one individual is of Ashkenazi descent and one is not? 2.77*10-5 Submit My Answers Give Up CorrectPart B What are the chances of two individuals having a child with Tay-Sachs if one individual is of Ashkenazi descent and one is not? 2.77*10-5 Submit My Answers Give Up CorrectPart D What are the chances of two individuals having a child with Tay-Sachs if the father is an Ashkenazi carrier and the mother is a French-Canadian carrier?

Answers

(1/30) × (1/300) × 1/4 = 2.77 × 10⁻⁵,Chance of mom being a carrier × Chance of dad being a carrier × Chance of having an affected child if both parents are carriers), In the general population, 1 in 300 individuals is a carrier for Tay-Sachs disease, while 1 in 30 individuals of Ashkenazi Jew descent are carriers

Tay-Sachs disease is a rare genetic ailment that is inherited from both parents. It is brought on by the lack of an enzyme that aids in the breakdown of fatty materials. These fatty compounds, known as gangliosides, accumulate to toxic amounts in the brain and spinal cord and impair the nerve cells' ability to function. By the age of 3 to 5 years, the illness is typically deadly, frequently as a result of complications from a lung infection (pneumonia). Juvenile Tay-Sachs disease and other uncommon forms of the disease first manifest in early adulthood or later in childhood (late-onset Tay-Sachs disease).

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turnover of water in temperate lakes during the spring and fall is caused by which of the following? A. warm,less dense water layered at the top B.cold, more dense water layered at the bottom C.a distinct thermocline between less dense warm water and cold, dense water. D. the density of water changes as seasonal temperatures change. E.currents generated by nektonic animals

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The study of biogeography examines how living entities are distributed geographically and how abiotic causes may have an impact on that distribution.

What is Biogeography?

Latitude and elevation play a major role in the variation of abiotic elements like temperature and rainfall.

The make-up of plant and animal communities changes as these abiotic elements do. For instance, you would see progressive changes in plant communities if you started your tour in the equator and walked north.

You would observe broad-leaved evergreen trees in tropical wet forests at the start of your journey, which are typical of plant communities found close to the equator.  These broad-leaved evergreens would eventually give place to seasonally dry woodlands with scattered trees as you traveled north.

Therefore, The study of biogeography examines how living entities are distributed geographically and how abiotic causes may have an impact on that distribution.

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which of the following correctly describes the order of how information is sent through the papez circuit?

Answers

C. Thalamus → cingulate cortex → hippocampus → mammillary bodies → thalamus is the correct order of how information is sent through the Papez circuit.

The Papez circuit is a circuit of neurons that starts in the thalamus, which then connects to the cingulate cortex. The cingulate cortex then connects to the hippocampus, and then to the mammillary bodies, which then connect back to the thalamus. This circuit is thought to be involved in processing emotions and memory.

The circuit includes the hippocampus, the entorhinal cortex, the mammillary bodies, the anterior thalamic nuclei, the cingulate gyrus, and the prefrontal cortex. This circuit helps the brain to store and retrieve memories, as well as process emotions.

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which of the following correctly describes the order of how information is sent through the Papez circuit?

A.

Cingulate cortex → thalamus → hippocampus → mammillary bodies → cingulate cortex

B.

Cingulate cortex → hippocampus → thalamus → mammillary bodies → cingulate cortex

C.

Thalamus → cingulate cortex → hippocampus → mammillary bodies → thalamus

D.

Thalamus → cingulate cortex → mammillary bodies → hippocampus → thalamus

A student is studying how energy is used in cells. She measures the concentration of ADP and ATP at two locations inside cell: 'graph of her data is shown below. AtP pnd ADP Concentration Which ofthe following cellular processes are most likely occurring at these locations? A) Location I; osmosis_ Location 2: meiosis B) Location 1: mitosis_ Location 2: photosynthesis C) Location 1 protein synthesis_ Location 2 diffusion D) Location 1: cellular respiration_ Location active transport

Answers

She measures the concentration of ADP and ATP at two locations inside the cell, cellular processes are most likely occurring at these locations D - Location 1: cellular respiration, Location 2 - active transport

Location 1: Glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and the electron transport chain all contribute to the production of ATP for the process of cellular respiration; consequently, the concentration of ATP rises as the process progresses.

Location 2: Ion channels require ATP as a source of energy for the active transport process. Dephosphorylation converts the ATP to ADP as the process continues. As a result, the level of ADP in the cell rises.

The other options are incorrect because photosynthesis produces ATP in one half of the reaction and uses it in the other half. Mitosis, meiosis, and diffusion do not require ATP and ADP.

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