The cell cytoskeleton is a dynamic network of fibers that can be quickly dismantled and reassembled to change cell shape and the position of cell components. Hence option C is correct.
What is cytoskeleton?Cytoskeleton is defined as all cells, even those of bacteria and archaea, have a complex, dynamic network of interconnecting protein filaments. A sophisticated web of protein filaments and motor proteins is present in these fibers in eukaryotic cells, which aid in cell movement.
The cytoskeleton is a framework that aids in maintaining the internal order and shape of cells. Additionally, it provides mechanical support, enabling cells to carry out essential functions including division and motility. There isn't just one cytoskeletal element.
Thus, the cell cytoskeleton is a dynamic network of fibers that can be quickly dismantled and reassembled to change cell shape and the position of cell components. Hence option C is correct.
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which statement below best describes why diabetics are two times more likely to develop cardiovascular disease than non-diabetics?
Atherosclerosis results from high cholesterol levels brought on by diabetes.
What shade of urine do individuals who have diabetes produce?When excessive sugar accumulates in the urine, diabetes can result in murky urine. Furthermore, your urine may smell pleasant or fruity. Insulin can also cause kidney problems or raise the likelihood of urinary tract infections, both of which can cause murky urine.
What causes disease primarily?Even though not all people with type 2 diabetes are overweight, obesity and a poor diet are two of the most typical risk factors. About 90% to 95% of diabetes cases in the US are caused by these factors.
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you make dilute 1 nm solutions each of glycogen, amylose and amylopectin in water, fully solubilizing the polysaccharide molecules in a test tube. you then add a reagent to each tube that is nonfluorescent when free in solution, but reacts irreversibly with polysaccharide non-reducing ends to introduce a covalently-bound fluorescent tag. after the reagent is allowed to react completely with the polysaccharide in each tube, rank the resulting polysaccharide solutions based on fluorescence:
Dilution is the process of lowering a solute's concentration in a solution. It usually just involves mixing the solution with more solvent, such more water.
A solution is diluted when more solvent is added without increasing solute. The final mixture is thoroughly mixed to make sure that every component is the same.
Gases and vapors diluted in air, for instance, are directly related in the same way. However, it could be more difficult to achieve thorough mixing of gases and vapors.
For instance, a solution has a given salt concentration if 10 grammes of salt (the solute) are dissolved in 1 litre of water (the solvent) (molarity). This solution's salt concentration decreases when 1 liter of water is added. 10 grammes of salt are still present in the diluted solution (0.171 moles of NaCl).
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scientists discovered that the difference between blond and dark hair in humans and other mammals comes down in part to a single nucleotide difference in the dna sequence of an enhancer that lies more than 350,000 base pairs upstream from the coding region of the gene it controls. on average, blonds transcribe this gene less efficiently than people with dark hair. which of the following statements about this blond/dark hair enhancer is correct?
The enhancer is associated with a protein during transcription initiation, about blond/dark hair enhancer is correct.
Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is a polymer made from two polynucleotide chains that coil round each other to shape a double helix. The polymer consists of genetic commands for all recognised organisms and viruses' development, functioning, boom, and replica. Nucleic acids consist of DNA and ribonucleic acid.
At some point of replica, DNA and the commands it contains are exceeded from adult organisms to their offspring. DNA now serves three awesome capabilities: genetics, immunology, and shape, all of which rely upon the sugar phosphate spine and bases in one of a kind approaches. DNA consists of nucleotide molecules. each nucleotide contains a sugar, phosphate, and nitrogen base organization.
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The spadix relies on the skunk cabbage's massive root system, which stores appreciable quantities of starch. In the root system of the skunk cabbage, starch is broken down to yield ______ which is catabolized via glycolysis, the citric acid cycle, and the electron transport chain. The oxidation of glucose provides the • cofactors _____ (NADH and QH2) required to keep electron transport going so that thermogenesis can occur.
In the root system of the skunk cabbage, starch is broken down to yield starch is broken down to from glucose. which is catabolized via glycolysis, the citric acid cycle, and the electron transport chain.
The oxidation of glucose provides the cofactors NADH (NADH and QH2) required to keep electron transport going so that thermogenesis can occur.
It's an unusual trick called thermogenesis. Skunk cabbage uses oxygen to generate heat. Oxygen reacts with starch from the roots, breaking molecular bonds and releasing energy in the form of heat. According to one study, skunk cabbage consumes as much oxygen as a similarly sized mammal.
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cancer is the abnormal growth of cells caused by uncontrolled cell division. tumor suppressor genes are genes that encode protein products whose normal function is to protect cells from becoming cancerous. when a loss-of-function mutation occurs in a tumor suppressor gene, a cell may progress to a cancerous state. in some cases, a loss-of-function mutation results in a loss of gene expression. in the tumor cell microarray, choose spots among those listed below that may represent mrnas that encode proteins that function as tumor suppressors. choose all that apply.
Correct sentences related to cancer are When a loss-of-function mutation occurs in a tumor suppressor gene, a cell may progress to a cancerous state.
Cancer is the abnormal growth of cells caused by uncontrolled cell division. Tumor suppressor genes are genes that encode protein products whose normal function is to protect cells from becoming cancerous.
A tumor suppressor gene, or anti-oncogene, may be a factor that regulates a cell throughout cellular division and replication. If the cell grows uncontrollably, it'll end in cancer. once a tumor suppressor gene is mutated, it leads to a loss or reduction in its operate.
The question is incomplete, find the complete question here
Choose the correct sentences related to cancer from the given sentences.
cancer is the abnormal growth of cells caused by uncontrolled cell division. tumor suppressor genes are genes that encode protein products whose normal function is to protect cells from becoming cancerous. when a loss-of-function mutation occurs in a tumor suppressor gene, a cell may progress to a cancerous state. in some cases, a loss-of-function mutation results in a loss of gene expression. in the tumor cell microarray, choose spots among those listed below that may represent mrnas that encode proteins that function as tumor suppressors. choose all that apply.
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to stabilize the environment in the habitat and enable it to become self-sufficient again, it would be helpful to add____
To stabilize the environment in the habitat and enable it to become self-sufficient again, it would be helpful to add plant producers to absorb excess carbon dioxide and produce oxygen.
Biomass production depends mainly on photosynthesis, as 90% of the plant biomass is made of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. So the rate of photosynthesis is important to determine productivity.The largest source of greenhouse gas emissions from human activities in the United States is from burning fossil fuels for electricity, heat, and transportation.If decomposers are removed from the carbon cycle the cycle would slow down and eventually stop because carbon could not be returned to the Earth. During the carbon cycle, plants take in carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and fix it into organic molecules during photosynthesis.
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complete the concept map to classify general sensory receptors by structure, stimulus detected, and body location. drag the appropriate labels to their respective targets. view available hint(s)for part a resethelp
Sensory receptors are primarily classified as chemoreceptors, thermoreceptors, mechanoreceptors, or photoreceptors on the basis of by structure, stimulus detected, and body location. drag the appropriate labels to their respective targets.
What is sensory receptor ?photoreceptor which is A specialized neuron able to detect and react to light.
mechanoreceptor receptor that provides an organism with information about mechanical changes in its environment such as movement, tension, and pressure.
baroreceptor where A nerve ending that is sensitive to changes in blood pressure.
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ou are excited to try your first crispr experiment. you introduce cas9 and one sgrna into a dish of cultured human cells. you then sequence dna from four different cells and obtain the results of sequences 1-4 below. you decide to repeat your first crispr experiment using cas9 and two different sgrnas into a dish of cultured human cells. you sequence dna from three additional cells and obtain the results of sequences 5-7. which type of endogenous dna repair would produce the results in all seven of these cells following a cas9 double-strand break? both neither nhej hr
Neither NHEJ nor HR. The results of all seven cells are most likely due to a non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) mechanism, which is a type of endogenous DNA repair that repairs double-strand breaks without the need for a matching template.
Non-homologous end joining is a pathway that repairs double-strand breaks in DNA. NHEJ is called "non-homologous". This is because the breakends are directly ligated without the need for a homologous template, in contrast to homology-directed repair, which requires homologous sequences to direct repair. What is the difference between homologous recombination and non-homologous recombination Homologous recombination is the exchange of genetic material between identical strands, whereas non-homologous recombination is the addition of new genetic material to the Also known as transgenesis. NHEJ occurs through three main steps:(1) recognition of DSBs, (2) processing of DNA ends, (3) connection of two her DSBs as appropriate. It is noteworthy that NHEJ can also directly rejoin broken DNA ends and does not require excision of DNA ends to initiate repair.
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proprioceptive information is to carried to the cerebellum by the blank tract.multiple choice question.
The cerebellum receives proprioceptive data from the upper extremities, neck, and upper trunk through the spinocerebellar tract.
The dorsal spinocerebellar tract's upper limb homologue is this tract. The vestibular system sends sensory information to the cerebellum alerting it to head movement. In order to perform a precise compensatory eye movement, it also takes input from the proprioceptors in the eye muscles and from other pertinent sources of information about the environment at the time. The Golgi tendon organs, pressure sensors, and muscle spindles all send information to the tract. Proprioception, cutaneous touch, and pressure data from the lower limb and trunk are the carried sensations. In humans, the dorsolateral route seems to be key in mediating vibration perception. In the dorsal column nuclei of the medulla, the dorsal root collaterals that enter the dorsal columns ascend the spinal cord ipsilaterally.
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complete question: Proprioceptive information is to carried to the cerebellum by the ______ tract.
directions: 1.use the dna code to create mrna codons. 2.use the mrna code to create trna anticodons. 3.use the mrna codons and the genetic code to determine the amino acids.
1. mRNA = AGG CGC GUC UCG AUC; tRNA = UCC GCG CAG AGC UAG; Protein = ARG ARG VAL SER ILE
2. the mRNA code to create tRNA anticodons is Transcription.
3. Nucleus uses the mRNA codons and the genetic code to determine the amino acids.
A codon was thought to code for the same amino acid regardless of the organism or source, according to the old theory of the genetic code. The genetic code evolves, it is now understood, and as a result, there are differences in how a codon is translated depending on the genetic source. For instance, it was found in 1981 that the coding system in mammalian mitochondria used codons AUA, UGA, AGA, and AGG differently than the universal code. Stop codons can also be impacted; for example, the universal stop codons UAA and UAG in ciliated protozoa code for glutamine.To know more about codons check the below link:
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The most abundant type of coal in the United States is _____.
anthracite
lignite
bituminous coal
brown
Answer:
Bitumious Coal
Explanation:
Because it's important in generation of electricity and it's raw materialistic behavior it's set to be the most abundant one. It accounts about 45% coal in the whole United States
Which of the following adaptations of the circulatory system occurs shortly after birth? Check all that apply. Check All That Apply A) The foramen ovale closes and seals, blocking blood between the atria from mixing B) Surfactant increases in volume, preventing alveolar collapse C) The ductus arteriosus collapses and stops pulmonary trunk blood from mixing with aortic arch blood D) The ligamentum arteriosum forms
The adaptations of the circulatory system that occurs shortly after birth is that The foramen ovale closes and seals, blocking blood between the atria from mixing and The ductus arteriosus collapses and stops pulmonary trunk blood from mixing with aortic arch blood. That is option A and C.
What is circulatory system?The circulatory system is defined as the one of the major system that consists of a pumping center( the heart) and the blood vessels which helps to deliver oxygenated blood to the body cells.
The developing foetus also has its own fetal circulation within the uterus where by the following bypass occurs:
The oxygenated blood from the inferior vena cava bypassed from the left atrium to the right atrium without entering the left ventricle,The deoxygenated blood from the left atrium is bypassed by the ductus arteriosus to the umbilical artery without being transported to the lungs.Learn more about the heart here:
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The process by which mined land is restored to its natural state is known as
A. Restoration
B. Reclamation
C.Re-naturalization
which of the following factors favor the survival and reproduction of darker-skinned individuals? select all that apply.
Because they boosted fitness for early human populations living in tropical Africa, darker skin tones developed. Darker skin prevents the breakdown of circulating folate. Some human groups left Africa in search of less severe UV rays.
What factors decide which people have a higher chance of surviving and reproducing?According to natural selection, organisms in a group acquire characteristics that help them survive and procreate. Because advantageous features are more likely to be handed down through natural selection, people who possess them have a higher chance of survival.
Therefore, black skin is a natural sunscreen that shields against UV radiation and safeguards vitamin B folate, which is why natural selection prefers dark skin near the equator.
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in which of the following conditions would you most reasonably expect to generate the most tension in a single muscle fiber? assume otherwise equal conditions.
Most tension in a single muscle fiber can be generated when a motor neuron generates high frequency of action potentials (greater than 80/sec).
Muscles are the loose tissues masses that aid in the movement of body parts. They do so by their contractions and relaxations. There are three types of muscles in human body: skeletal muscles, smooth muscles and cardiac muscles.
Action potential is the difference in the membrane potential at the inside and outside of the cell. This difference arise due to the different concentrations of ions present inside and outside of the cell. During action potential the inside of the cell is negative than the outside.
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the age pyramid below shows the age structure or a mystery population or animal. this animal reaches sexual maturity very early in life, and this population's size and age structure are stable over time. which statement below about this populations fecundity and mortality rates is most likely true?
o Its fecundity and mortailty rates are both high o its fecundity rate is high but its mortality rate is low o Its fecundity and mortality rates are both low o Its fecundity rate is low but its mortality rate is high
The age pyramid indicates that the fecundity and mortality rates of this population are both high. This is necessary for the population to remain stable over time and replace individuals that die with new individuals.
The age pyramid below shows the age structure of a mystery population or animal. This animal reaches sexual maturity very early in life, and this population's size and age structure are stable over time. This suggests that the fecundity and mortality rates of this population are both high.
The age pyramid indicates that the population consists of a large number of young individuals, which suggests that the fecundity rate of the population is high. This is because a high fecundity rate is necessary to maintain a stable population size, and the population must be able to replace individuals that die with new individuals. Therefore, the population must be able to reproduce quickly, which can be seen from the large number of young individuals in the age pyramid.
At the same time, the population must also have a high mortality rate in order to maintain its stable size. This is because the population must be able to replace the individuals that die quickly enough to fill the space left by the deceased, which can be seen from the fact that there is a relatively even distribution of individuals across different age groups.
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provide the route that one oxygen molecule, o2, will take as it moves from the room air up to its arrival inside the mitochondrion of a cell in a skeletal muscle fiber of the leg. be detailed, particularly in passing through cell membranes. write this in flow chart format, using words linked by arrows. indicate which portion of this route is considered internal respiration, and which portion is considered external respiration.
External respiration is the process of diffusion in lungs. It is indicated in bold. The rest is internal respiration i.e diffusion of oxygen within tissues
Breathing both inside and outside To provide us energy, our lungs deliver oxygen from the outside air to the cells through the blood and circulatory system. Oxygen diffuses into the blood as we breathe in, entering the lungs. It is pumped into the cells after being delivered to the heart. The carbon dioxide waste that results from the body's cells breaking down carbohydrates diffuses into the blood, then diffuses from the blood into the lungs where it is released when breathing out. Exchange of one gas (oxygen) for another (carbon dioxide). Both the lungs (external respiration) and the cells participate in this gas exchange (internal respiration).
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An individual who is
XXY
has Kleinfelter's syndrome. Select all the possible places during meiosis in the mother or father where non-disjunction could create a gamete that results in Kleinfelter when mated with a normal gamete. meiosis I in the father meiosis II in the mother meiosis II in the father meiosis I in the mother
Nondisjunction of the X chromosome occurs during prophase of meiosis I in females, resulting in Klinefelter's syndrome, XXY males. Only males are afflicted by Klinefelter syndrome, which is caused by a genetic anomaly.
What happens in Klinefelter's syndrome?Klinefelter syndrome is sometimes called Klinefelter's, KS or XXY. It is where boys and men are born with extra X chromosome. There are 2 types of chromosome that are the sex chromosomes, that determine the genetic sex of a baby.
Klinefelter syndrome is caused by an additional X chromosome and this chromosome carries extra copies of genes, which interferes with the development of the testicles and they produce less testosterone than usual.
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an article in neurology discussed that monozygotic twins share numerous physical, psychological, and pathological traits
Monozygotic twins only have the same physical characteristics, but can have different psychological and pathological characteristics.
Monozygotic twins are twins that come from a single egg and occur when a single egg is fertilized by a sperm and forms a zygote. In its development, the zygote then divides into two different embryos. The two embryos develop into fetuses that share the same uterus and when born will have identical physiques because they come from the same egg and sperm cells.
Monozygotic twins raised in the same or different environments can still have different characters. The existence of various external factors exert pressure and stress levels that cause the process of neurogenesis that occurs in one of the monozygotic twins. Neurogenesis causes the formation of a new generation of nerves that give a psychological impact that gives it a different character.
Identical twins often have the same pathology, but external factors can still affect the health of one of the identical twins, such as diet. Poor diet will affect the epigenome of identical twins. The presence of the epigenome can affect a person's level of pain. Therefore many identical twins die at an advanced age due to different diseases.
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compare the approaches to energy processing taken by each of the following, and give an example organism who engages in each mode: heterotrophs photosynthetic autotrophs chemosynthetic autotrophs
Giant tubeworms with bacteria found in large numbers near deep hydrothermal vents or channels are good examples of chemosynthetic organisms. They use hydrogen sulfide as an energy source to produce sugars and amino acids from carbon dioxide.
Prokaryotic microorganisms, mainly bacteria, and archaea (hereinafter referred to as "bacteria") carry out chemosynthetic reactions. Energy is obtained from the oxidation of reduced compounds in chemosynthetic reactions.
Chemical synthesis alternatively uses energy from chemical reactions between (hydrogen gas or hydrogen sulfide) or inorganic molecules such as methane to produce one or more carbon molecules (usually carbon dioxide or methane) and nutrients. is converted into organic matter. Like photosynthesis, of sunlight.
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a farmer growing wheat is in wheat and may hedge by wheat futures. group of answer choices short; long short; selling long; buying long; selling
A farmer growing wheat is in wheat and may hedge by wheat futures long; selling.
In the field of finance, long selling (or going long) on a security or an investment implies that associate degree capitalist buys that security or investment with the prospect of keeping it for a few time as a result of he or she believes that its value (or value) goes to extend within the end of the day.
Wheat is used for breadstuff, pastries, pasta, and pizza, has been the principal cereal crop since the eighteenth century. Wheat was introduced by the primary English colonists and quickly became the most crop of farmers who sold-out it to urban populations and exporters.
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Which of the following statements about the relationship between photosynthesis and cellular respiration is true?
a. In cellular respiration, the biochemical pathways of photosynthesis run in reverse.
b, In photosynthesis the biochemical pathways of cellular respiration run in reverse.
c. Cellular respiration occurs only in animals and photosynthesis occurs only in plants.
d. Cellular respiration is catabolic and photosynthesis is anabolic.
In contrast to respiration, photosynthesis stores energy in organic molecules.
What is a case study of photosynthesis?
The most famous examples are plants because, with the exception of a very small number of parasitic or mycoheterotrophic species, they all have chlorophyll and can make their own sustenance. The other major class of eukaryotic photosynthetic organisms is the algae.
What makes photosynthesis so crucial?
Because plants employ photosynthesis to convert co2 into oxygen when exposed to the sun, it is significant. Animals to survive, whereas plants purify the air by removing harmful carbon dioxide
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Which of the following will most likely be found in an individual with a gain-of-function GPCR mutation?
A gain-of-function GPCR mutation can cause an increase in the activity of the receptor. This can lead to an increase in the amount of signaling molecules, such as cyclic AMP (cAMP) and calcium ions (Ca2+), which can be found in an individual with a gain-of-function GPCR mutation. Additionally, an increase in G protein activity and/or downstream signaling molecules may also be observed.
A gain-of-function GPCR mutation is a genetic mutation that causes a G protein-coupled receptor (GPCR) to be overactive. This means that the receptor is more responsive to the ligand that it binds to, resulting in the production of more of the downstream signaling molecules.
The most likely thing to be found in an individual with a gain-of-function GPCR mutation is increased levels of the signaling molecules that are produced by the activated receptor. These could include hormones, enzymes, proteins, or other molecules that are involved in the downstream signaling cascade from the activated receptor.
In addition, the individual may also exhibit symptoms that are associated with the increased signaling activity. This could include changes in behavior, physical characteristics, or other physiological changes. For example, if the mutated GPCR is responsible for regulating blood pressure, the individual may experience symptoms related to high blood pressure, such as headaches or dizziness.
Finally, the individual may also have changes in their genetic makeup due to the mutation. This could include changes in gene expression or even changes in the structure of the receptor itself.
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an advantage of focusing on copy-number variants (cnvs) over single nucleotide polymorphisms (snps) in human genomic studies is that cnvs .
An advantage of focusing on copy-number variants (cnvs) over single nucleotide polymorphisms (snps) in human genomic studies is that cnvs occupy much longer stretches of DNA than SNPs and are likely to have greater phenotypic consequences
The 23 chromosomal pairs in cell nuclei plus a tiny DNA molecule present in each mitochondria include the entire collection of nucleic acid sequences that make up the human genome. The mitochondrial genome and nuclear genome are often treated separately. Both DNA sequences that code for proteins and different DNA types not used to make proteins are present in the human genome.
The latter is a broad group that include DNA coding for non-translated RNA, including ribosomal RNA, transfer RNA, ribozymes, tiny nuclear RNAs, and many forms of regulatory RNAs. Additionally, it consists of promoters and the gene-regulatory components that go with them, DNA that serves a structural or replicative function, such as scaffolding regions, telomeres, centromeres, and replication origins, as well as a significant amount of transposable elements, viral DNA inserted into the genome, non-functional pseudogenes, and short, repetitive sequences.
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During the labs in this class, the actions of the hamstrings and quadriceps muscle groups were often analyzed. Think about knee flexion in the following three scenarios:
Sitting on the edge of a table with knee in full extension, then flex your knee to approximately 90 degrees of flexion.
Lie prone on a table with your leg straight, then flex your knee to approximately 90 degrees.
Stand upright, then squat and flex your knee to approximately 90 degrees.
Which functional muscle group and what type of contraction is working/taking place in each of the above 3 situations. Explain, in detail, why there are differences in each scenario. This is a 10 point question, so be sure to discuss each scenario individually, as well as comparing their similarities and/or differences.
The answers include the following:
Sitting on the edge of a table with knee in full extension, then flex your knee to approximately 90 degrees of flexion employs the use of hamstring and eccentric contraction.Lie prone on a table with your leg straight, then flex your knee to approximately 90 degrees employs the use of biceps femoris and eccentric contraction.Stand upright, then squat and flex your knee to approximately 90 degrees employs the use of quadriceps and concentric contraction. What is Eccentric contraction?This is the type of contraction which is characterized by the total length of the muscle increasing as tension is produced while concentric contraction is characterized by the shortening of the muscle.
The muscles which are involved when an individual squats are quadriceps, gluteal which are found in the legs.
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which of the following statements is true? all cells are made up of smaller cells. eukaryotic cells don't have a nucleus but often have a flagella. in all cells, the plasma membrane controls what enters and exits. prokaryotic cells don't have a nucleus, but they still have a plasma membrane that separates their dna from their cytoplasm.
The correct statement is "in all cells the plasma membrane controls what enters and exit."
Let us have a look at all sentences.
(i) All cells are made up of smaller cells. This is an incorrect statement. According to the theory of cell, all existing cells in any organism is born from or are produced by the other living cells. So it can be said that the cells are made from the pre-existing cells but that cell makes another cell like its own but the smaller cells doesn't make the other cells. So this proves that the statement is incorrect.
(ii) Eukaryotic cells don't have a nucleus but often have a flagella is an incorrect statement. All cells are having nucleus that control the functioning of the cells. The eukaryotic cells are the modern cells having many different new cell organelles. There are eukaryotic cells which have the flagella but it is wrong to say that these cells don't have a nucleus or all eukaryotic cells have flagella.
(iii) In all cells, the plasma membrane controls what enters and exits. This is a correct statement as the plasma membrane is the outermost layer of the cells. This acts like the border of the cells. This border or the outer membrane is very sensitive and doesn't allow everything to pass through the cells. So this is a correct statement.
(iv) Prokaryotic cells don't have a nucleus, but they still have a plasma membrane that separates their dna from their cytoplasm. This is an incorrect statement. We already have seen in point (ii) that all the cells have a nucleus. The cells can be divided into prokaryotic (old cells not having the proper organelles) and eukaryotic (new cells having different organelles that control the functioning of the cells) cells. This can be said that in prokaryotic since not many organelles are present so the main functioning of the cell is controlled by the nucleus.
Therefore, the only correct statement about cell is that in all cells, the plasma membrane controls what enters and exits.
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pyruvate oxidation and the krebs cycle occur in the cytoplasm of prokaryotes in a similar way that they occur in the mitochondrial matrix of eukaryotes. however, a h (proton) concentration gradient across a membrane is a requirement of the electron transport chain. propose an alternate site in the prokaryotic cell for this phase of cellular respiration in prokaryotic cells.\
The first stage of cellular respiration, happens in the cytoplasm of your cells. In this procedure, a glucose molecule is split into two pyruvate molecules (pyruvic acid).
What phases include cellular respiration?The three main stages of cellular respiration are glycolysis, the Krebs cycle (also known as the citric acid cycle), and oxidative phosphorylation in the electron transport chain. While glycolysis can happen under anaerobic conditions, the TCA cycle and oxidative phosphorylation require oxygen.
Of the four stages of cellular respiration, which one produces ATP?Glycolysis marks the beginning of cellular respiration. A 6-carbon molecule is broken down into two 3-carbon pyruvate molecules in the top box of Figure 5.9. 3 to illustrate this process.
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A diploid organism receives 9 chromosomes from mom and 9 chromosomes from dad. The chromosomal number for this individual is 2n = 2x = 18. What would be the chromosomal number of a hexaploid individual born from the same parents? a) X (haploid set chromosome number is 9) then 6X = 54 chromosomes. b) Hexaploid has 6 chromosomes more than its diploid 18 + 6 c) Hexaploid is always 6 chromosomes less than diploid 18-6 d) Both a and b e) None of the above
The chromosomal number of a hexaploid individual born from the parents having 9 chromosomes each will be: (a) X (haploid set chromosome number is 9) then 6X = 54 chromosomes.
Hexaploid is the condition where a cell consists of 6 copies of the total chromosomes. Since the parents contain 9 chromosomes therefore the 6 copies will form a total of 6 × 9 = 54 chromosomes.
Chromosomes are the compact form of genetic material. They are comprised of DNA and histone proteins. The structure of DNA consists of 2 sister chromatids joined together at the constricted DNA region called centromere. The transmission of genetic material from parent to offspring takes place in this chromosomal form.
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Among the findings by the ACHA's National College Health Assessment is that ____ after drinking alcohol.
Among the findings by the ACHA's National College Health Assessment is that men were more likely than women to injure themselves after drinking alcohol.
Health-related problems and expenses can significantly affect the standard of student and academic life at higher education institutions. The American College Health Association created the American College Health Assessment-National College Health Assessment (ACHA-NCHA), a national research study, to help college health service providers, health educators, counsellors, and administrators gather information about students' habits, behaviours, and perceptions on the most common health topics.
Using the ACHA-National College Health Assessment (NCHA), a renowned research study, you can gather detailed information about the practises, attitudes, and perceptions of your students' health.
to act as the main leadership group in advocating for, educating about, and researching ways to improve the health of college students and the surrounding community.
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select the true statement about antibody-mediated immune responses, also known as humoral immunity. it is only effective at fighting toxins that have invaded a cell. it is most effective at fighting pathogens outside of a cell. it is only effective at fighting viruses. it is most effective at fighting pathogens that have invaded a cell.
It is most effective at fighting pathogens outside the cells.
What is Immunity?
Immunity is the body's capacity to fend off pathogen invasion.People are constantly exposed to pathogens, which are foreign agents that cause disease. Examples of these agents include bacteria and viruses.Humoral Immunity is one of the types of immunity.HUMORAL IMMUNITY
Using antibodies against pathogen-specific antigens, the humoral immune response protects against infections that are free in the blood.Immune system defense protein known as an antibody, or immunoglobulin, is synthesized in reaction to the occurrence of an antigen, or potentially infectious materials. Therefore, it together forms a network of antigen-antibody mediated immune responses.An antigen is a biomolecule that binds to a particular antibody and their reaction generates the response. The primary cell type responsible in the humoral immune response is B cells. A foreign antigen, such as one produced by a disease, will cause B cells in the body that recognize that antigen to start producing antibodies as a defense against the foreign invader(pathogen). Hence, this type of immunity is most effective at fighting pathogens outside the cell i.e., in the body fluid.To learn more about humoral immunity from the given link:
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