Charles Darwin's theory of evolution is based on the concept of survival of the fittest, where individuals with the strongest traits survive and pass on their genes to the next generation.
Altruistic behaviors, where an individual sacrifices their own well-being for the benefit of others, do not appear to fit within this framework. However, it is important to note that altruistic behaviors can also benefit the individual's own genes in the long run.
For example, if a parent sacrifices their own safety to protect their offspring, their genes are more likely to be passed on to future generations. Additionally, altruistic behaviors can also benefit the group as a whole, increasing the chances of survival for all members. Therefore, while altruistic behaviors may seem counterintuitive from an evolutionary perspective,
they can still be explained and even favored over time through the complex interplay between generations, behaviors, and the overall benefit to the group. altruistic behaviors would decrease because they may not directly benefit an individual's reproductive success.
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Why does a muscle perform better when it is warmed up?
A muscle performs better when it is warmed up because warm muscles have increased blood flow and oxygen supply, allowing for improved energy production and delivery to the muscle cells.
Additionally, warm muscles have increased flexibility and range of motion, reducing the risk of injury and improving overall performance. This is due to the fact that warm muscles have a higher metabolic rate, allowing for faster and more efficient muscle contractions. Overall, warming up before exercise is an important part of any workout routine to optimize muscle performance and reduce the risk of injury. A muscle performs better when it is warmed up because warm muscles have increased blood flow and oxygen supply, allowing for improved energy production and delivery to the muscle cells.
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the pressure in a glomerular capillary bed is measured at 45 mm hg, the bowman's space pressure is 10 mm hg and the plasma colloid osmotic pressure is 20 mm hg. which change would be associated with constriction of the afferent arteriole?
Constriction of the afferent arteriole would decrease the blood flow into the glomerular capillary bed, resulting in a decrease in glomerular capillary pressure.
This would likely lead to a decrease in the filtration rate and urine output. Specifically, constriction of the afferent arteriole would decrease the pressure in the glomerular capillary bed, which would decrease the net filtration pressure (the difference between the glomerular capillary pressure and the sum of Bowman's space pressure and the plasma colloid osmotic pressure), leading to a decrease in the glomerular filtration rate. With constriction, less blood flows into the glomerulus, which lowers the pressure in the glomerular capillary bed. This change can impact the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) and the overall efficiency of the kidney's filtering process.
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The main integration center of the ANS is the amygdala.T/F
The given statement "The main integration center of the ANS is the amygdala" is False because the amygdala is an important part of the ANS, it is not the main integration center.
The main integration center of the ANS is the hypothalamus. The hypothalamus is a small but vital region in the brain that is responsible for regulating a variety of bodily functions, including hunger and thirst, body temperature, and the release of hormones from the pituitary gland.
The hypothalamus also controls the autonomic nervous system, which is responsible for regulating involuntary actions such as heart rate, breathing, and digestion. The hypothalamus receives input from a variety of sources, including sensory neurons that monitor internal and external conditions, as well as higher brain regions that modulate its activity.
It then uses this information to coordinate appropriate responses, such as increasing heart rate and blood pressure during exercise or reducing them during relaxation. The hypothalamus also plays a key role in the stress response, activating the sympathetic nervous system.
Overall, the hypothalamus is a critical hub in the ANS, integrating information from multiple sources and coordinating appropriate responses to maintain homeostasis and respond to changing environmental conditions.
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The cell bodies of postganglionic neurons that stimulate secretion of the parotid gland are in theA) submandibular ganglion. B) otic ganglion.C) sphenopalatine ganglion. D) superior cervical ganglion.
otic ganglion is the cell bodies of postganglionic neurons that stimulate secretion of the parotid gland.
The cell bodies of postganglionic neurons that stimulate secretion of the parotid gland are located in the otic ganglion.
The otic ganglion is a small parasympathetic ganglion that is associated with the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX), and it is located near the foramen ovale in the skull.
Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers from the otic ganglion travel along the auriculotemporal nerve, which is a branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve (CN V3), to reach the parotid gland and stimulate its secretion.
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Birds and Mammals
Predator Fish
Small Fish and Other Aquatic Species
Insects and Zooplankton
Phytoplankton
Based on the energy
pyramid seen here, which
group of organisms is the
PRIMARY CONSUMER?
a.
Insects and
zooplankton
Predator fish
b.
C. Small fish and other
aquatic species
d. Birds and mammals
e. Phytoplankton and
bacteria
Answer:
C
Explanation:
cuz u gave the incomplete question there is no pyramid pic im not 100 precent sure
6) A cross-reaction is an interaction between an antibody or TCR andA) a heterologous antigen.B) a homologous antigen.C) either a heterologous or homologous antigen.D) None of these are correct.
A cross-reaction is an interaction between an antibody or TCR and either a heterologous or homologous antigen.The correct answer is: C) either a heterologous or homologous antigen.
A cross-reaction can occur when an antibody or TCR recognizes and binds to either a heterologous antigen (from a different species or unrelated source) or a homologous antigen (from the same species or a related source), due to their structural similarity. Therefore we can conclude that a cross-reaction is an interaction between an antibody or TCR (T-cell receptor) and either a heterologous or homologous antigen making option c the correct choice.
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All of the following plexuses contain fibers from the vagus nerve except theA) superior mesenteric. B) celiac.C) esophageal. D) otic.
Otic plexuses does not contain fiber from the vagus nerve
The vagus nerve, also known as the tenth cranial nerve or CN X, is a long cranial nerve that plays a key role in the parasympathetic nervous system, responsible for regulating many organs and structures in the body.
The vagus nerve gives off several branches, which form networks of nerves called plexuses in various regions of the body.
The superior mesenteric plexus, celiac plexus, and esophageal plexus all contain fibers from the vagus nerve. These plexuses are involved in regulating the functions of the gastrointestinal tract, including the stomach, intestines, liver, and pancreas.
However, the otic plexus, which is also known as Arnold's nerve or the auricular branch of the vagus nerve, does not contain fibers from the vagus nerve. Instead, it is a small parasympathetic plexus that innervates the parotid gland, which is a salivary gland located in the face.
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Question 23
Perhaps the most often observed birth defect that is the result of fetal exposure to X-rays is:
a. microcephaly
b. genital abnormalities
c. eye problems
d. stunting of growth
The most often observed birth defect that is the result of fetal exposure to X-rays is microcephaly. Option A is correct.
Microcephaly is a birth defect characterized by a smaller than normal head size and an underdeveloped brain. It can result from fetal exposure to ionizing radiation, including X-rays, during pregnancy. Ionizing radiation has the potential to damage developing fetal cells, including those responsible for brain development, and can increase the risk of birth defects.
While X-rays can be useful in medical diagnostics and are generally considered safe when used appropriately and with proper shielding, exposure to ionizing radiation during pregnancy is generally discouraged unless absolutely necessary.
Pregnant women or those who suspect they may be pregnant should inform their healthcare providers before undergoing any X-ray examinations or other radiologic procedures, to minimize the risk of fetal exposure to radiation.
Hence, A. is the correct option.
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What accounts for the occurrence of recombinant phenotypes in Morgan's test-cross?
Recombinant phenotypes in Morgan's test-cross occur due to the process of genetic recombination, which is the exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes during meiosis.
This exchange can occur through crossing over, where the chromosomes swap segments of DNA, resulting in new combinations of alleles on the chromosomes. The frequency of recombination is dependent on the distance between the genes on the chromosome, with genes that are farther apart having a higher likelihood of recombination. Therefore, in Morgan's test-cross, the occurrence of recombinant phenotypes reflects the frequency of genetic recombination between the genes being studied.
The occurrence of recombinant phenotypes in Morgan's test-cross can be attributed to the process of crossing-over during meiosis. This genetic exchange between homologous chromosomes results in the formation of recombinant chromatids, which ultimately lead to the production of recombinant offspring. This recombination contributes to genetic variation in offspring and demonstrates the importance of linkage and genetic mapping in understanding inheritance patterns.
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what example can cause certain bacteria to change in there DNA allowing them to be resistant to antibiotics
Mutation is one method by which bacteria might alter their DNA in order to develop antibiotic resistance.
Why do microorganisms develop antibiotic resistance?When people take antibiotics, some bacteria are killed, but resistant germs can survive and even multiply. The incidence of resistant bacteria rises with antibiotic use. Bacteria are more prone to develop antibiotic resistance the more frequently humans use them.
What kind of germs are most frequently drug-resistant?One of the most prevalent bacteria that is resistant to antibiotics is MRSA. Small red bumps on the skin that can develop into painful, deep abscesses or boils, which are pus-filled masses under the skin, are frequently the first signs of an MRSA infection.
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deletion of a segment of large chromosome in pair 3
A deletion of a segment of a large chromosome in pair 3 can have significant consequences, depending on which genes are affected. If the deleted segment contains a critical gene or genes, the individual may experience developmental or physiological abnormalities.
Deletions can also lead to haploinsufficiency, which occurs when a single functional copy of a gene is insufficient to maintain normal cellular function. In cases where the deleted segment includes regulatory regions or genes involved in DNA replication and repair, the individual may be at increased risk for cancer or other genetic disorders. In some cases, deletions can also cause spontaneous abortions or stillbirths.
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What component of RNA is different from one person (or one bacterium) to the next?
The component of RNA is different from one person (or one bacterium) to the next is the order or nitrogenous bases.
Nucleobases, often known as nitrogenous bases or just bases, are biological substances containing nitrogen that combine to produce nucleosides and nucleotides, which together make up the fundamental monomers of nucleic acids.
Long-chain helical structures like ribonucleic acid (RNA) and deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) are produced directly from the capacity of nucleobases to generate base pairs and stack one atop the other. The fundamental or canonical nucleobases are adenine (A), cytosine (C), guanine (G), thymine (T), and uracil (U).
The nucleotides A, G, C, and T found in DNA and A, G, C, and U found in RNA serve as the basic building blocks of the genetic code. The only difference between thymine and uracil is whether or not a methyl group is present.
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In the human body, mechanoreceptors respond to outside forces such as _____ while transmitting impulses through sensory nerves.
In the human body, mechanoreceptors respond to outside forces such as touch, and stretch, while transmitting impulses through sensory nerves.
Mechanoreceptors are found in various tissues throughout the body, including the skin, muscles, tendons, and even internal organs. They convert mechanical stimuli into electrical signals, which are then transmitted through sensory nerves to the brain for interpretation. This process enables us to perceive sensations such as light touch, deep pressure, and changes in body position.
There are several types of mechanoreceptors, each tuned to respond to specific types of stimuli. For example, Meissner's corpuscles are sensitive to light touch, while Pacinian corpuscles detect deep pressure and vibrations. In the muscles and tendons, muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs monitor stretch and tension to provide feedback on muscle length and force. Together, these mechanoreceptors provide valuable information about our body's position and interaction with external objects, allowing us to maintain balance, coordinate movements, and explore the world around us. In the human body, mechanoreceptors respond to outside forces such as touch, and stretch, while transmitting impulses through sensory nerves.
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Does CO2 or glucose have more energy? Which form?
Glucose has more energy than CO2. Glucose is a complex organic molecule that is commonly used as a source of energy by living organisms. When glucose is broken down in a process called cellular respiration, it releases a large amount of energy that can be used by cells to carry out their functions.
On the other hand, CO2 (carbon dioxide) is a simple inorganic molecule that is a byproduct of cellular respiration and other metabolic processes. It does not contain much energy in its molecular bonds and is not typically used as a source of energy by living organisms.
Therefore, in terms of energy content, glucose has more energy than CO2
Question 40
Following a disaster raw food should be
a. washed in bleach
b. cooked well
c. avoided if possible
d. both b and c
A disaster raw food should be cooked well, and avoided if possible. Option D is correct.
A disaster, it is important to handle and prepare raw food safely to prevent foodborne illness. This includes cooking food to safe temperatures and avoiding raw food if possible. Cooking food well, especially meat, poultry, eggs, and seafood, helps to kill harmful bacteria, parasites, and viruses that may be present.
Avoiding raw food, especially if it has been contaminated during a disaster, can help reduce the risk of consuming harmful pathogens. Additionally, washing raw food with bleach is not recommended as it can be toxic and may not effectively eliminate harmful microorganisms. It is important to follow safe food handling practices and guidelines provided by local health authorities or disaster response organizations during and after a disaster.
Hence, D. is the correct option.
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Is the presence of two blowholes a synapomorphy for mysticetes. b) Why or why not?
Yes, the presence of two blowholes, or nostrils, is considered a synapomorphy for mysticetes, which are a group of whales that includes baleen whales.
Synapomorphy refers to a characteristic or trait that is shared by a group of organisms and is considered a derived or evolutionary advanced trait that arose in their common ancestor.
The presence of two blowholes in mysticetes is considered a synapomorphy because it is a unique and distinguishing trait that is shared by all members of this group and is not present in their closest relatives, the odontocetes or toothed whales. Mysticetes, such as baleen whales, have two distinct blowholes located on top of their heads, which allow them to expel air forcefully when they surface to breathe. In contrast, odontocetes, such as dolphins and porpoises, have a single blowhole located on top of their heads.
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Lateral gene transfer means that phylogenetic analyses of different individual genes from the same set of organisms often yield results that are inconsistent with each other. What techinique seems to avoid this problem and give us the clearest, most consistent view of the "tree of life"?
The techinique seems to avoid this problem and give us the clearest, most consistent view of the "tree of life" is known as whole-genome sequencing.
Lateral gene transfer refers to the process by which genetic material is exchanged between organisms, leading to inconsistencies in phylogenetic analyses of individual genes from the same set of organisms. Whole-genome sequencing involves determining the complete DNA sequence of an organism's genome, which allows researchers to study the entire genetic blueprint rather than focusing on individual genes. This comprehensive approach minimizes the impact of lateral gene transfer, as it accounts for the overall genomic context rather than specific gene-based inconsistencies. By analyzing entire genomes, scientists can construct more accurate phylogenetic trees that better represent the evolutionary relationships among organisms.
In summary, whole-genome sequencing is the technique that best avoids the inconsistencies introduced by lateral gene transfer, offering a clearer and more consistent view of the "tree of life." By examining the complete genetic information of organisms, researchers can construct more accurate phylogenetic trees that better represent evolutionary relationships. So, the techinique seems to avoid this problem and give us the clearest, most consistent view of the "tree of life" is known as whole-genome sequencing.
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If a DNA molecule contains a total of 600 bases and 20% of the bases are cytosine, how
many bases will be Adenine?
There are 180 adenine bases in the given DNA molecule if DNA molecule contains total of 600 bases and 20% of the bases are cytosine.
In general , 20% of the bases are cytosine, we know that 20% of the bases are also guanine, since C+G=T+A=100%. Thus, the total percentage of cytosine and guanine in the DNA is 40%. To determine the percentage of adenine, we can subtract the total percentage of cytosine and guanine (40%) from 100% to get the percentage of thymine and adenine. 100% - 40% = 60%.
Also, percentage of adenine in the DNA molecule is also 30% (since adenine pairs with thymine). To find the actual number of adenine bases, we need to multiply this percentage by the total number of bases in the DNA molecule: 0.30 x 600 = 180 So, there are 180 adenine bases in this DNA molecule.
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The final step requires _______________ , where the fecal matter is excreted from the body.
What is the name for an animal that bounces on 2 feet?
The animal that can bounce on 2 feet are known as bipedal in zoology.
CharacteristicsAnimals that walk solely on two legs are referred to as "bipedal" in zoology. Bipedal walking is a trait of humans, birds, and (rarely) apes. When moving at their fastest, cockroaches, humans, birds, and many lizards also run on two legs. Bipedally hopping animals include kangaroos, several rodents, numerous birds, including jerboas and crows. Only walking and running bipeds are discussed in this study.Among the creatures that hop are bunnies, bharals, hares, kangaroos, and klipspringers. Insects that hop include crickets, froghoppers, fleas, kangaroo rats, and jumping spiders. Bipedal hopping presumably originated to aid small animals in escaping from predators in forested environments.For more information on bipedal kindly visit to
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select all that apply which of the following directly plays a part in translation initiation? multiple select question. small ribosomal subunit template dna strand initiator trna messenger rna large ribosomal subunit
The correct answers are: small ribosomal subunit, initiator tRNA, and messenger RNA.4. Translation initiation is now complete, and the ribosome is ready to proceed with the elongation phase of protein synthesis.
The terms directly involved in this process are:
1. Small ribosomal subunit
2. Initiator tRNA
3. Messenger RNA (mRNA)
4. Large ribosomal subunit
Here's a step-by-step explanation of translation initiation:
1. The small ribosomal subunit binds to the mRNA molecule, searching for the start codon (AUG).
2. The initiator tRNA, carrying the amino acid methionine, recognizes and binds to the start codon on the mRNA through complementary base pairing.
3. Once the initiator tRNA is in place, the large ribosomal subunit associates with the small subunit, forming a complete ribosome.
4. Translation initiation is now complete, and the ribosome is ready to proceed with the elongation phase of protein synthesis.
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Hominins are a monophyletic group defined by which shared, derived character(s)?
Hominins are a monophyletic group defined by several shared, derived characters. These include bipedalism (walking on two legs), reduction in the size of canine teeth, and an increase in brain size and complexity. Additionally, hominins have a more vertical orientation of the foramen magnum (the hole in the skull where the spinal cord enters), indicating the shift to walking upright.
These characteristics distinguish hominins from other primates and are used to classify them as a distinct evolutionary group.
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CH 16:All of life is connected through its evolutionary history1. What biological processes are represented in a phylogenetic tree?
Phylogenetic trees represent the biological processes of evolution that have led to the diversity of life on Earth. These trees provide a visual representation of the interconnectedness of all living things and help scientists better understand the origins and relationships of different species.
A phylogenetic tree is a diagram that shows the evolutionary relationships between different species. The tree is based on the analysis of various biological processes that have contributed to the evolution of species over time. These processes include genetic mutations, natural selection, genetic drift, gene flow, and reproductive isolation.
The phylogenetic tree represents the branching patterns of evolutionary history, with each branch representing a different species or group of species. The closer the branches are to each other, the more closely related the species are.
Phylogenetic trees are constructed based on the analysis of various molecular and morphological data, such as DNA sequences, protein structures, and anatomical features. By analyzing these data, scientists can infer the evolutionary relationships between species and identify common ancestors.
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A phylogenetic tree represents various biological processes such as speciation, divergence, and evolution of species. These processes are illustrated through branching patterns, which show the relationships and common ancestors among different organisms.
A phylogenetic tree represents the evolutionary relationships between different species or groups of organisms. The tree shows how these organisms are related to one another based on shared ancestry, and is typically constructed using molecular or genetic data. The branches on the tree represent speciation events, where one species gives rise to two or more new species over time. The nodes or points where branches meet represent common ancestors, which are the most recent shared ancestors of the organisms that branch off from that point. The shape and structure of the tree reflect the patterns of evolution and divergence that have occurred over time, and can provide insights into the processes of evolution, including natural selection, genetic drift, and mutation. Overall, a phylogenetic tree is a graphical representation of the evolutionary history of life, and it captures the interconnectedness of all living things through their shared ancestry.
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The ligament bridging the larynx with the trachea is the ________ ligament.
The ligament bridging the larynx with the trachea is the cricotracheal ligament.
Actually, the ligament that bridges the larynx with the trachea is the cricotracheal membrane, not the cricotracheal ligament. The cricotracheal membrane is a thin, flexible membrane that connects the cricoid cartilage of the larynx to the first ring of the trachea. It is composed of connective tissue and is relatively elastic, allowing the trachea to move slightly with respect to the larynx during swallowing or other movements of the neck. The cricotracheal ligament is a strong, fibrous ligament that connects the cricoid cartilage of the larynx to the first ring of the trachea. It is an important structure that helps to support the larynx and keep it in position relative to the trachea.
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if a mammal's entire top row of teeth consists of four incisors, two canines, two premolars, andfour molars, and its lower tooth row consists of four incisors, two canines, two premolars, and twomolars, what is its dental formula? (remember: a dental formula refers to one quadrant of a jaw.)
The information provided, the mammal's dental formula for one quadrant of its jaw would be: 4.1.2.4 over 4.1.2.2, which represents the number and type of teeth in the upper and lower jaw respectively. This dental formula indicates that the mammal has a total of 32 teeth in its mouth.
The determine the dental formula for the mammal, we'll first consider one quadrant of the jaw either upper or lower. Given the information, the mammal has the following teeth in one quadrant. 2 incisors. - 1 canine. 1 premolar 2 molars upper jaw or 1 molar lower jaw So, the dental formula for this mammal is Upper jaw 1 quadrant 2.1.1.2 Lower jaw 1 quadrant 2.1.1.1 If a mammal's entire top row of teeth consists of four incisors, two canines, two premolars, and four molars, and its lower tooth row consists of four incisors, two canines, two premolars, and two molars, what is its dental formula Remember A dental formula refers to one quadrant of a jaw.
Previous question
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By the cellular responses to the Dorsal protein gradient, the embryo becomes subdivided from the ventral to dorsal regions into __, ___ ___, ___ __, ___, and ___
By the cellular responses to the Dorsal protein gradient, the embryo becomes subdivided from the ventral to dorsal regions into neurogenic, mesodermal, dorsal ectodermal, ventral ectodermal, and amniotic regions."
During the development of a Drosophila embryo, the Dorsal protein gradient plays a crucial role in establishing different cell fates along the ventral-to-dorsal axis. The concentration of the Dorsal protein is highest in the ventral region of the embryo, and it gradually decreases towards the dorsal region.
Based on the cellular responses to this gradient, the embryo becomes subdivided into distinct regions along the anterior-posterior axis. These regions include the neurogenic region, where neuroblasts are formed; the mesodermal region, where mesodermal cells are formed; the dorsal ectodermal region, where the dorsal epidermis is formed; the ventral ectodermal region, where the ventral epidermis is formed; and the amniotic region, which surrounds the other regions and gives rise to the amniotic membrane.
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A clay layer in the soil resists the flow of groundwater. Such a layer is called?
a) An aquifer
b) A Piezometric surface
c) Artesian
d) An aquitard
A clay layer in the soil that resists the flow of groundwater is called d) an aquitard. An aquitard is a layer of low permeability that slows down or restricts the movement of water between aquifers.
It can be made up of materials such as clay, silt, or shale, which have a low hydraulic conductivity and therefore limit the amount of water that can pass through them. In contrast, an aquifer is a layer of permeable rock or sediment that can transmit water at a useful rate. An artesian aquifer is a confined aquifer where the water is under pressure, causing it to rise up to the surface without pumping.
The piezometric surface, also known as the water table, is the level below which the soil and rock are saturated with water. It represents the boundary between the unsaturated and saturated zones in the soil, and it fluctuates depending on the amount of rainfall and groundwater recharge in the area.
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Padding underneath the torso when immobilizing an injured child is generally not necessary if he or she is:
A. older than 8 to 10 years.
B. complaining of severe back pain.
C. immobilized on a long backboard.
D. experiencing cardiopulmonary arrest.
Padding underneath the torso when immobilizing an injured child is generally not necessary if he or she is older than 8 to 10 years.
A is the correct answer.
You might need to put padding under the child's shoulders and back areas to preserve an open airway and a neutral position of the child's head. The cornerstone of posture for kids under 3 is padding under the shoulders and/or upper torso to achieve a neutral or "sniffing" position; kids beyond 3 might need cushioning under their occiput.
Place one pad on the baby's upper left chest or upper right chest above the breast. Put the second pad on the baby's back or the bottom left portion of the chest beneath the armpit. If pads will contact on an infant's chest, place one pad on the infant's anterior chest and another pad on the infant's posterior chest.
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Most carbon dioxide is carried from the body tissues to the lungs _____.A as bicarbonate ions (HCO3 -)B combined with hemoglobinC by the tracheaD as hydrogen ions (H+)E dissolved in blood plasma
A) as bicarbonate ions (HCO3 -).
When carbon dioxide is produced in the tissues, it diffuses into the blood and reacts with water to form carbonic acid (H2CO3) through the action of the enzyme carbonic anhydrase. The carbonic acid then dissociates into bicarbonate ions (HCO3-) and hydrogen ions (H+). This reaction occurs mainly in red blood cells.
The bicarbonate ions are then transported in the plasma to the lungs, where they are converted back into carbon dioxide through the reverse reaction. This carbon dioxide is then exhaled out of the body.
Thus, most carbon dioxide is carried from the body tissues to the lungs as bicarbonate ions (HCO3-), as they are more soluble in blood plasma and can be transported easily. While some carbon dioxide can also bind to hemoglobin and be carried by it, this accounts for a smaller proportion of the total carbon dioxide transport in the body.
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A 4-month-old exclusively breast-fed infant who has not begun eating other foods should receive ___ supplements.
Answer:
calcium
Explanation:
zero clue what the actual answer is just guessing