One human being can be diagnosed with BPD as well as all other diseases listed because a person with DID may have as few as two or as many as 100 alters.
Which disorders are commonly diagnosed with BDP?BPD appears to be many other Mental Health Conditions. There is evidence that BPD is frequently misdiagnosed as Bipolar Disorder, Type 2. DID patients may have as few as two or as many as 100 alters. The average is around ten. Often, alters remain stable over time, playing specific roles in a person's life for years.
Dissociation can last for a short period of time (hours or days) or for much longer (weeks or months). It can last for years in some cases, but usually only if the person has other dissociative disorders.
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Explain how lifestyle factors can
contribute to chronic disease.
Answer:
Lifestyle diseases share risk factors similar to prolonged exposure to three modifiable lifestyle behaviours -- smoking, unhealthy diet, and physical inactivity -- and result in the development of chronic diseases, specifically heart disease, stroke, diabetes, obesity, metabolic syndrome, chronic obstructive pulmonary .
Explanation:
11. All stress is negative or bad. True False
Answer:
false
Explanation:
there is eustress which is good stress:) (brainliest?)
True
Explanation:
Street is small. does can. beneficial
Name the three rules of safety when it comes to strength training
Answer:
Before Developing Muscle Strength, Develop Joint Flexibility Before Developing Muscle Strength, Develop the Tendons
Before Developing the Limbs, Develop the Body's Core
Explanation:
hope this helps a little bit :)
Healthcare providers must be prepared for emergencies. A person who can help bring order in an emergency situation is called an
emergency technician.
emergency manager.
emergency investigator.
emergency doctor.
Answer:
d
Explanation:
Chapter 10: Be an Aware Consumer:
Mail Box:
Write a letter to the Chairman of the Consumer Council of India informing him/her how a canned food you purchased from a shop was of sub-standard nature. Indicate the name of the product, the batch number, the date of manufacturing, and the date of expiry.
Please, give me the answer containing 20 to 30 lines !
Dear [Chairman],
I am writing to bring to your attention a sub-standard canned food product that I recently purchased from a shop. The product in question is [name of product] with batch number [batch number], a manufacturing date of [manufacturing date], and an expiry date of [expiry date].
Upon opening the can, I was disappointed to find that the contents were of poor quality and did not match the product as advertised. Upon further inspection, I noticed that the can was dented and the seal was broken, indicating that the product may have been tampered with or improperly stored.
I am extremely concerned about the quality of this product and the impact it may have had on my health. As a consumer, it is my right to expect safe and high-quality products, and this experience has left me feeling frustrated and misled.
I request that the Consumer Council of India investigates this matter and takes appropriate action to ensure that consumers are protected from sub-standard products in the future.
Thank you for your attention to this matter.
Sincerely,
Your Name
Hope This Helps You!
A patient on your unit has diabetes. Patient has a regular dose of insulin order daily.The nurse gives an additional dose of nephrology insulin
The patient is suffering form hyperglycemia. Option B
What is the patient suffering from?We have to note that many times it is possible for a person to have less than the normal amount of the insulin that ought to be in the body. This would be because the pancreas of the individual is now doing a bad job at the handling of the metabolism of the insulin in the body of the individual.
In that case, the nurse would have to consider any method that could help with the control level of the insulin in the system of the patient and this could be a sign of hyperglycemia.
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BRU YALL WACK I DID NOT GET NO ANNSWERS WHAT SO ever DANG THIS IS THE WACKES SiTE IVE SEEN IN 100 years
Answer:
100 years old in school-?
Explanation:
Did you post anything to get the answer your looking for also bro your 100 years old and still in school? Get a life my dude-
which formats are acceptable when preparing various types of reports using one report type as an example.
The types of formats that are acceptable when preparing various types of reports are:
NarrativeAnalyticalTechnicalAll three of these formats would be acceptable for business reports.
What are some report formats ?When preparing various types of reports, there are several formats that are commonly used. The specific format will depend on the type of report being prepared and the intended audience. One example of a report type is a business report.
A business report can use a Narrative format which is used to present information in a clear and concise manner, often including an introduction, body, and conclusion.
There is also the analytical format which is used to present information in a logical, organized, and analytical manner. It is often used to present data, statistics, and research findings.
Finally, there is the technical format which is used to present information in a detailed and technical manner, often including technical information, diagrams, and illustrations.
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Chemotherapy uses __________ to destroy cancer cells.
A.
radiation
B.
hormones
C.
drugs
D.
surgery
What is Bone marrow transplant?
Answer:
Explanation:
A bone marrow transplant takes a donor's healthy blood-forming cells and puts them into the patient's bloodstream, where they begin to grow and make healthy red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets. Patients receive high doses of chemotherapy to prepare their body for the transplant.
Hematopoietic stem-cell transplantation is the transplantation of multipotent hematopoietic stem cells, usually derived from bone marrow, peripheral blood, or umbilical cord blood in order to replicate inside of a patient and to produce additional normal blood cells. It may be autologous, allogeneic or syngeneic.
The flu vaccine is available at most pharmacies and doctor's offices every year.
Since the vaccine lowers the risk of getting the flu by 40 percent, not everyone
decides to take it. Doctors say it is fine for most people to go without but someone
with a weaker immune system would want to get a shot to help keep them from
getting the flu. Who would MOST likely benefit from a flu shot?
(1 point)
O a 24-year-old baseball player
O a 32-year-old mother of three
O a 45-year-old executive
O a 72-year-old cancer patient
Answer:
Explanation:
A 72-year-old cancer patient would MOST likely benefit from a flu shot.
People with weaker immune systems, such as cancer patients, are more susceptible to getting the flu and may experience more severe symptoms if they do get it. A flu shot can help to lower the risk of getting the flu and may provide some protection against the virus, which can be especially important for people with weaker immune systems.
While a flu shot may also be beneficial for people in other age groups or with other health conditions, it is typically recommended for people with weaker immune systems or those who are at higher risk of complications from the flu. In this case, the 72-year-old cancer patient would be most likely to benefit from a flu shot due to their weaker immune system and higher risk of complications from the flu.
Which of the following is not a major premise of Freudian theory?
a. the importance of the unconscious
b. The importance of early experiences
c. The importance of self-esteem
d. The importance of sexuality
'The importance of self-esteem' is not a major premise of Freudian theory.
What is self-esteem?
Self-esteem is an individual's overall subjective evaluation of their own worth. It is a personal judgment of one's own worth and the value of their own actions. It is a positive or negative attitude toward the self, which is communicated through behavior, emotion, and thought. Self-esteem can be affected by both internal and external factors, such as one's thoughts, feelings, and experiences.
Freudian theory is focused on the unconscious mind and its influence on conscious behavior. It is concerned with understanding the causes of psychological distress and how to resolve these issues. Self-esteem is a conscious construct, and thus is not a major premise of Freudian theory. Self-esteem is important, however, as it can be shaped by the unconscious and conscious experiences, and can serve as a protective factor against psychological distress.
Hence, Option C is correct.
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1. Estimate the burn TBSA for each patient:
2 Identify the burn severity of the three patient
A. Patient one
B. Patient two
C. Patient three
Answer:
a
Explanation:
The third class lever is the most commonly found lever in the human body. Describe where you would find the Load,
Effort and Fulcrum when kicking a ball.
When kicking a ball, the load is the ball, the effort is the force applied by the foot, and the fulcrum is the pivot point at the ankle joint. The effort is applied between the load and the fulcrum.
what is health and social care management?
Answer:
The Health and Social Care Management degree combines study with practical placements enabling you to develop relationships with employers who provide health and social care services throughout your study.
Describe the proper execution of the following self-myofascial release (SMR) and stretching exercises and be sure to include any instructional cues that you would use as a coach, as well as anything important to watch for during your athlete’s execution of the exercises, i.e., key points, proper body positioning, placement of the SMR, etc. a. SMR – Hamstrings b. SMR – Glutes and Piriformis c. SMR – Latissimus Dorsi and Triceps d. SMR – Pectoralis Group e. Upper Trapezius Stretch f. Pectoralis Major/Minor Stretch g. Posterior Glenohumeral Stretch h. Hip Flexor Stretch
The Description of the proper execution of the following self-myofascial release (SMR) and stretching exercises is given below
a. SMR - Hamstrings:
To properly execute SMR on the hamstrings, the athlete should use a foam roller or lacrosse ball to apply pressure to the muscles on the back of the thigh. The athlete should lie on their back with the foam roller or lacrosse ball under the hamstrings, and then use their arms to lift their hips off the ground and roll up and down the length of the muscle.
Instructional cues that could be used as a coach include:
Begin with light pressure and increase as needed to find tender spotsKeep your core engaged and hips liftedRoll the entire length of the muscle, focusing on any particularly tender spotsIt's a self-massage so move slowlyBreath deeply during the processRoll each leg for 30-60 secondsWhat is self-myofascial release?The others includes
B: SMR - Glutes and Piriformis:
To properly execute SMR on the glutes and piriformis, the athlete should sit on a foam roller or lacrosse ball with the roller or ball positioned under the glutes or piriformis muscle. The athlete should then use their hands to support their body weight, and use small, circular motions to massage the muscle.
Instructional cues that could be used as a coach include:
Keep your core engaged and your feet flat on the floorFocus on any particularly tender spotsMove around on the ball to hit all areas of the muscleBreath deeply during the processRoll each side for 30-60 secondsc. SMR - Latissimus Dorsi and Triceps:
To properly execute SMR on the Latissimus Dorsi and triceps, the athlete should lie on their stomach with a foam roller or lacrosse ball positioned under the muscle. The athlete should then use their arms to lift their body weight, and use small, circular motions to massage the muscle.
Instructional cues that could be used as a coach include:
Keep your core engaged and breathe throughout the movementFocus on any particularly tender spotsMove around on the ball to hit all areas of the muscleRoll each side for 30-60 secondsd. SMR - Pectoralis Group:
To properly execute SMR on the Pectoralis group, the athlete should lie on their back with a foam roller or lacrosse ball positioned under the muscle. The athlete should then use their arms to lift their body weight, and use small, circular motions to massage the muscle.
Instructional cues that could be used as a coach include:
Keep your core engaged and breathe throughout the movementFocus on any particularly tender spotsMove around on the ball to hit all areas of the muscleRoll each side for 30-60 secondse. Upper Trapezius Stretch:
To properly execute the Upper Trapezius Stretch, the athlete should sit or stand and raise their right arm over their head. Using their left hand, the athlete should gently pull the right arm across their body towards the left shoulder, while keeping the arm level with the shoulder.
Instructional cues that could be used as a coach include:
Keep your core engaged and breathe throughout the stretchKeep your shoulders levelKeep your head aligned with your spineHold the stretch for 15-30 seconds on each sidef. Pectoralis Major/Minor Stretch:
To properly execute the Pectoralis Major/Minor Stretch, the athlete should stand facing a wall or doorframe and place both hands on the wall. The athlete should then step forward, keeping their hands on the wall, and allow the chest to stretch.
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1. List five. awareness campaign of community efforts health promotion.
Answer:
Here are five awareness campaigns for community health promotion:
"Get Moving" campaign - a campaign that promotes the benefits of regular physical activity and encourages individuals to incorporate more physical activity into their daily lives.
"Eat Right" campaign - a campaign that promotes healthy eating habits and encourages individuals to make healthier food choices.
"Stay Hydrated" campaign - a campaign that emphasizes the importance of staying hydrated and encourages individuals to drink plenty of water throughout the day.
"Say No to Tobacco" campaign - a campaign that raises awareness about the dangers of tobacco use and encourages individuals to quit smoking or using other tobacco products.
"Protect Your Skin" campaign - a campaign that promotes the importance of skin cancer prevention and encourages individuals to use sunscreen, wear protective clothing, and seek shade when outdoors.
Explanation:
Can a person have DID (Dissociative Identity Disorder) and BPD (Borderline Personality Disorder) at the same time?
Answer: yes
Explanation: i just searched it up HELP
How much hydrogen peroxide is needed to prepare 16 fl oz of a 1/8 strength solution?
The volume of hydrogen peroxide needed to prepare 16 fl oz of a 1/8 strength solution is 59.15 mL of full-strength hydrogen peroxide.
What is the volume of hydrogen peroxide required in milliliters?The volume of hydrogen peroxide required in milliliters is determined by converting 16 fl oz to milliliters.
16 fl oz = 16 * 29.574 mL
16 fl oz = 473.2 mL
The strength of the hydrogen peroxide required is 1/8 or 12.5%.
The volume of hydrogen peroxide required = total amount needed x Strength desired
The volume of hydrogen peroxide required = 473.2 * 0.125
The volume of hydrogen peroxide required = 59.15 mL of full-strength hydrogen peroxide.
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a definition of nursing is essential because it
Answer:
To give the patients a quick medical and methodical treatment, even a panic crisis treatment can also intervene.
greetings, a pleasure
Do you think it's important to have different medical facilities and not just a hospital with all facilities under one roof? What do you think are the positives and negatives of big hospitals? What types of medical facilities do you envision in the future? What roles does technology play in the modernization of these facilities? Are there any current medical facilities that you think may become obsolete in the future?
Answer:
It can be argued that having different medical facilities with specialized services can be beneficial for patients, as it can ensure that they receive the most appropriate and high-quality care for their specific needs. For example, having specialized facilities for certain conditions such as cancer treatment, pediatrics, and mental health can lead to better outcomes for patients and more efficient use of resources.
Big hospitals can offer a wide range of services and resources, but there are also downsides to this approach. For example, it may be harder for patients to navigate the complex systems of a big hospital and find the right specialist or department. Additionally, big hospitals can be more costly to operate and maintain, and they may also be more prone to overcrowding and long wait times.
In the future, I envision a greater focus on technology and telemedicine in medical facilities. This could allow for more remote consultations and monitoring of patients, which can improve access to care, especially in rural or underserved areas. Additionally, I think there may be an increased emphasis on community-based health care and prevention, as well as more specialized facilities for conditions such as aging and chronic disease.
Technology plays an important role in the modernization of medical facilities. It helps to improve patient outcomes and experience, such as Electronic Health Records (EHRs) that allow healthcare providers to share patient information in a secure and efficient way. Other example includes, telehealth and telemedicine technologies that enable doctors to conduct virtual visits with patients, as well as remote monitoring of patients' health. Advancements in robotics, 3D printing, and artificial intelligence can also be used to improve the delivery of medical care.
I think that the standalone facilities, such as radiology centers, that are not directly connected with hospitals may become obsolete in the future, as more and more medical centers will integrate advanced imaging equipment into their facilities. In addition, with the increasing popularity of telemedicine and telehealth, there may also be a shift away from brick-and-mortar facilities for certain types of care.
What challenge does a post-industrial society like North America face
Answer:
pollution
Explanation:
america makes so much green house gas that it makes pollution
Corn syrup
definition and function(s) in baking
* what makes it unique compared to the other similar ingredients?
* well prepared, informative, relevant, effective
Corn syrup is a sweetener made from corn starch that is commonly used in baking. It is a clear, thick liquid that is sweeter than granulated sugar and has a mild, neutral flavor. The primary function of corn syrup in baking is to provide sweetness and to add moisture to the final product.
What is the Corn syrup?Corn syrup is unique compared to other sweeteners used in baking because it has a higher viscosity than granulated sugar, meaning that it is thicker and more syrupy.
This viscosity allows it to be used as a thickener and a humectant, which helps to retain moisture in baked goods and prevent them from drying out. It also helps to prevent sugar crystals from forming, which can make the final product gritty.
In conclusion, Corn syrup is a unique sweetener that has several functions in baking. It provides sweetness, adds moisture, and prevents sugar from crystallizing. It also has a high viscosity and a low freezing point, which makes it a versatile ingredient for various baking applications.
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8. Which one of the following statements most clearly describes the "problem of the match"?
O A. Children should be challenged optimally beyond their current mental abilities.
B. The more children are challenged, the more they'll pay attention to new material.
C. Children are most attentive when a teacher is talking about information they already are familiar with.
D. Caregivers should consider activities that are too easy for children, so they feel successful.
The "problem of the match" is best described by the phrase “ Children are most attentive whenever a teacher talks about information they already know."
What is the caregiver's job?Assisting with personal care duties like exercising, dressing, grooming, and using the restroom. Basic food preparation includes chores like grocery shopping, housekeeping, laundry, and preparing meals. Monitoring prescription drug and medicine use, phoning to confirm appointments, and administering medication are all included in general health care.
What distinguishes a caregiver from a caretaker?A caregiver is someone who provides daily assistance to the sick, the elderly, or young children. A caretaker, on the other side, has a wider range of responsibilities, such as being hired to look after the home or property while a owner is away as well as someone who offers emotional or physical care.
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301
ION
TRAINING
Knowledge Check
Which of the following describe the leader's role in concussion identification and management?
Select all that apply, then click Done.
A) Identifying Service Members who have been exposed to PCE
B) Referring Service Members for medical evaluation
C) Putting together a comprehensive treatment plan
D) Reporting potentially concussive events
E) Consulting with medical professionals
F) Determining when a Service Member is ready to return to duty
Reset
Concussive Event That Could Happen PCE. Service members who are engaged in a potentially shock wave event, as defined in section 1 of the this enclosure, must take a 24-hour rest period starting at the time the incident occurred. In certain situations, commanders may decide that these guidelines take a backseat to mission needs.
How is a thorough treatment plan created?Treatment programs often have a straightforward structure and usually contain the following details. information on the patient's demographics, psychological background, and personal information. a mental health problem's current diagnosis. top priorities for treatment. objective measurements A schedule for how treatments will advance.
What exactly does a service member for medical evaluation mean?The Dept of Veterans Affairs VA and the Department of Defense both employ its Separation Health Assessment as a medical assessment. It's known as a Separation History and Physically Examination SHPE within the DOD. SHPE The Disability Exam is what they refer to it as in the VA.
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Relating to Waiting on Hold
Regarding putting patients on hold, standard practice should be to: (select one).
O a)
Ob)
say, "just a minute," and place them on hold
b) say, "I'm putting you on hold"
c)
say, "I'll be right back"
d)
try not to put patients on hold but if you must, ask their permission first
Regarding putting patients on hold, standard practice should be to: a. say, "just a minute," and place them on hold b. say, "I'm putting you on hold"
What is a new patient visit?
A new patient exam is the initial examination a patient receives upon seeing a doctor for the first time. Any new patient with health concerns can benefit from it. The goal of the appointment is to address any health issues or identify the origins of any symptoms the patient may be having.
Any patient with unexplained symptoms or unidentified health issues should have a new patient evaluation, provided that the symptoms are not urgent or life-threatening. Any medical expert, including a general practitioner, family physician, internist, or even a dentist, can do the examination.
The emergency department, which is staffed by medical specialists who are qualified to treat life-threatening conditions, should be the patient's first stop for urgent issues.
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Pick one of the four tests for assessing explosive strength. Explain who should perform the test, what equipment is required, and provide a detailed explanation of how the test will be performed by the athlete.
A test that can be use to determine the explosive strength of an athlete is eccentric test.
Who is an athlete?We have to recall that the athlete is a person that is involved in a field event. The athlete is known to be a person of strength as such the tendency towards muscular endurance is key for any one that would be able to play the role of an athlete.
There are various tests that we can be able to use to find out the sterngth of an athelethe and most of the tests that fall into this category are the tests that include the; ccentric, concentric, isometric and electro stimulation. All of these test would have to be carried out by an expert so as to be able to determine the strength of the athlete.
For the eccentric test, it has to be performed by the calibration technician and then he would have to use the weighing balance to carry out the test.
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Advantages and disadvantes of grilling food!! (6 MARKS)
IN BULLET POINTS
3 ADVANTAGES AND 3 DISADVANTAGES
MARK AS BRANLIEST
a longterm of anorexia might include hair loss?
Answer: True.
Explanation: Because anorexia is usually including restricting, vitamin deficiencies will cause hair to fall out, or begin to thin.
Answer: true
anorexia can include hair loss because of specific nutritional deficiencies that stop the hair from growing as usual .
Skin appendages, also referred to as....., include....
Eccrine glands are responsible for.....
The eccrine sweat gland is composed of ....
The eccrine sweat gland opens to...
Eccrine glands are mostly located on ...
Apocrine sweat glands are responsible for....
Apocrine sweat glands are mostly located on ...
Apocrine sweat glands open to...
Apocrine sweat glands are composed of...
The skin appendages are epidermal and dermal-derived components of skin that include hair, nails, sweat glands, and sebaceous glands
Eccrine sweat glands help to maintain the homoeostasis, primarily by stabilizing body temperature.
Eccrine sweat glands occur over most of body and open directly onto the skin's surface.
Eccrine sweat glands occur over most of body and open directly onto the skin's surface.
Apocrine glands produce viscous, lipid-rich sweat, which is comprised of proteins, sugars, and ammonia. The function of apocrine glands in many species is generally regarded as scent glands involved in production of pheromones, although this social/sexual function is rudimentary in humans.
Most apocrine glands in the skin are in armpits, the groin, and the area around the nipples of breast.
Apocrine glands open into the hair follicle, leading to the surface of skin.
Apocrine glands are composed of secretory coil in the lower dermis and subcutis, straight ductal component which is indistinguishable from the eccrine duct, and terminal intra-infundibular duct which opens into the follicular infundibulum.
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