By decreasing activation energy barriers, enzymes speed up chemical processes.
What occurs when phosphodiesterase is suppressed?Phosphodiesterase is unable to degrade cAMP and cGMP when it is inhibited. As a result, their concentrations inside the cell rise, which in turn causes calcium concentrations to drop. In the end, this causes smooth muscle relaxation and vasodilation in the target tissues.
Phosphodiesterase inhibitors are drugs that relax and enlarge blood vessels, enhancing circulation and reducing blood pressure. They can thus be used to treat a variety of illnesses, including as issues with your skin, joints, heart, and lungs, as well as dysfunction.
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hich of the following are not the result of changes in the skull structure? reduction of the septomaxilla expansion of the septomaxilla expansion of the sagittal crest and zygomatic arches reduction or loss of the temporal shield teeth are lost on the pterygoid bone
Changes in the structure of the skull do not cause a reduction in the septomaxilla or an extension of the septomaxilla.
How does a person's skull alter as they age?However, the researchers found that the bones in the human skull continue to expand as people age by using CT scans of 100 men and women. The face bones migrate backward while the forehead advances. The surrounding muscle and skin move in tandem with the bones.
What factors have altered the form of our skulls?And according to a 2017 research by anthropologists at the University of California Davis, when farming got serious, our heads altered form. This is due to the farmers' softer diet, especially dairy products, requiring less chewing effort.
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arrange the following by putting the word inside the box in order to show how sense organs coordinate with the nervous system in giving body responses
Answer:
The answer is in the above picture.
Explanation:
All information from our environment is detected by the specialised of some nerve cells. These receptors are usually located in our sense organ such as the inner ear, the nose, the tongue and so on. So gustatory receptors will detect taste while olfactory receptors will detect smell.
Independent assortment of alleles of different genes can be explained by the random alignment of homologous pairs of during meiosis I. When two genes are located close to one another on a chromosome, they tend to be transmitted together.
The haphazard alignment of homologous pairs of chromosomes during meiosis I can be used to explain the independent distribution of alleles of various genes.
What does the independent assortment law entail?Various genes and their alleles are inherited independently in sexually reproducing organisms, according to the Law of Independent Assortment. . Through the process of crossing-over, genes connected to a chromosome can reorganise themselves.
Homologous chromosomes: what are they?Within a diploid organism, homologous chromosomes are two bits of DNA that share the same genes, one from each parent. In plainer terms, both of your parents give you a full genome. The 23 chromosomes that are provided by each parent contain the same genes, making them identical.
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Develop a drug that decreases the cell density of the microbial infection.The following is an excerpt from a scientific paper written by Pan & Ren.Since the discovery in 1960s, a cell-cell signaling system known as quorum sensing (QS) has been identified in numerous microbial species. During cell growth, small signaling molecules are synthesized and secreted into the surrounding environment. As a result, the local QS signal concentration increases with cell density. When the cell density is above a certain threshold, a significant amount of signaling molecules bind to intracellular or membrane receptors and trigger the expression of a series of genes to control a wide spectrum of phenotypes.Pan, J. & Ren, D. (2009). Quorum sensing inhibitors: a patent overview. Expert Opinion on Therapeutic Patents, 19(11), 1581-1601. doi:10.1517/13543770903222293Some microbes use QS signaling pathways to trigger the expression of virulence genes. The expression of these genes enhances the virulence, or harmfulness, of the microbial infection.Which of the following represents the best method to decrease the virulence of a microbe capable of QS?
The best method to decrease the virulence of microbe capable of QS is to develop a drug that decreases the cell density of the microbial infection.
What is meant by virulence?An ability of an organism to infect the host and cause a disease is described as virulence. Virulence factors are molecules that assists the bacterium to colonize the host at the cellular level. And these factors are secretory, membrane associated or cytosolic in nature.
Exotoxins is one of the most significant virulence factors of bacteria. is When released by bacteria, exotoxins interrupt and dysregulate important cellular processes. They also help in the bacterial proteins' capacity to invade tissues.
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The core question in public disputes about embryonic stem cells is whether it is morally permissible to destroy human embryos in a search for cures.
a. True
b. False
The statement ‘The core question in public disputes about embryonic stem cells is whether it is morally permissible to destroy human embryos in a search for cures’ is true.
What are embryonic stem cells?
Stem cells are considered the body's raw materials — those cells from which every other cell with specialized functions is generated.
Embryonic stem cells are pluripotent stem cells that get derived from the inner cell mass of a blastocyst. Blastocysts are early-stage pre-implantation embryos.
Embryonic stem cells come from embryos that are about 3 to 5 days old. This embryo is called as a blastocyst and has around 150 cells.
So, therefore, the statement ‘The core question in public disputes about embryonic stem cells is whether it is morally permissible to destroy human embryos in a search for cures’ is true.
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on a concurrent chains schedule, reinforcement for pecking in the choice phase is the onset of stimuli associated with the
In a concurrent chains schedule, the introduction of stimuli related to the terminal links serves as reinforcement for pecking during the decision phase.
What factors explain?Stimuli are changes that can be seen in either the internal or external environment. anything that affects or triggers a momentary rise in physiological activity or reaction in the entire body or in any one of its sections.
What are scientific stimuli?A stimulus is an occasion or any alteration to the environment that causes a certain functional response in an organ or tissue. A stimulus may come from within or without. Sensory receptors like those in the skin and sense organs like the ear are sensitive to outside stimuli like sound and touch.
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b cells secrete immunoglobulins, providing immunity, while t cells directly attack pathogens or regulate other immune cells, providing _____ immunity.
T cells directly attack pathogens or regulate other immune cells, providing humoral and cellular immunity.
What are b cells?
B cells are a type of white blood cells. B cells make a type of proteins called antibodies.
They are part of the immune system that develops from stem cells in the bone marrow. B cells are also called B lymphocyte.
The antibodies created by B cells go and bind to pathogens/foreign substances, like toxins, in order to neutralize them. For example, an antibody can bind to a virus, which will prevent it from entering a normal cell and causing infection in its wake.
The B cells then secrete cytokines in order to attract other immune cells.
Therefore, t cells directly attack pathogens or regulate other immune cells, providing humoral and cellular immunity.
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Is an active relationship maintenance process that emphasizes the commitment one has to the partner. ...
Assurance is an active relationship maintenance process that emphasizes the commitment one has to the partner.
What role does relationship maintenance serve?To keep a relationship going, according to four different definitions from academics. to maintain a relationship in a particular state or circumstance. to maintain a relationship in good standing and to keep a relationship in good repair.
The three C's of commitment, compromise, and communication are the cornerstones of a solid and healthy relationship. Consider the best communication strategies to make your partner feel needed, wanted, and appreciated.
Any relationship benefits greatly from effective communication. The trust between you can grow and your relationship can be strengthened when both of you are clear about what you want from the relationship and are at ease expressing your needs, fears, and desires.
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In which mitotic phase does the process of cytokinesis conclude? (1 point)
O interphase.
O telophase
O prophase.
O metaphase.
When cytokinesis reaches telophase, it has completed the mitotic phase.
Explain about the telophase?Each set of chromosomes produces a nuclear membrane that separates the nuclear DNA from the cytoplasm during telophase. The chromosomes become less tightly wound and more dispersed as a result of uncoiling.
After telophase, there is a process known as cytokinesis in which the cytoplasm is divided into two daughter cells. The outcome of this technique is the generation of genetically identical daughter cells. In mitosis, an even division of each duplicate chromosome occurs. Two identical nuclei are consequently formed during telophase. Because they will behave in the same way, these cells can be used to regenerate damaged cells or to produce complete beings from a single zygote.
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The ______ forming the lateral walls of the mouth, consist of outer layers of skin, pads of subcutaneous fat, muscles associated with expression and chewing, and inner linings of moist, stratified squamous epithelium.
cheeks
The cheeks forming the lateral walls of mouth, consist of outer layers of skin, pads of subcutaneous fat, muscles associated with expression and chewing, and inner linings of moist, stratified squamous epithelium.
What are the different types of epithelial cells in our body?There are various forms of epithelial tissue due to the various shapes and types of epithelial cell layers, including:
Simple squamous epithelium: This type of epithelium typically lines blood vessels and body cavities and regulates the amount of material that is allowed to enter the underlying tissue.
Simple cuboidal epithelium: This type of epithelium is usually found in glandular (secreting) tissue and kidney tubules.
Simple columnar epithelium: This type of epithelium is designed for absorption and frequently features apical cilia or microvilli. These cells line your intestines and stomach.
A type of epithelium known as stratified squamous epithelium often acts as a barrier against water loss and/or microbial infiltration into the underlying tissue. Squamous epithelial cells arranged in stratified layers make up the epidermis, or top layer, of your skin.
A less common type of epithelium that can be seen in the excretory ducts of your sweat and salivary glands is called stratified cuboidal epithelium.
Stratified columnar epithelium: This unusual type of epithelium is found lining the conjunctiva of the eyes, which functions as an organ of mucus secretion and protection.
The pseudostratified columnar epithelium that lines your upper respiratory tract normally has many cilia.
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The light micrograph shows dividing cells near the tip of an onion root. Identify a cell in each of the following stages:
Drag the appropriate labels to their respective targets.
a. anaphase
b. prophase
c. prometaphase
d. metaphase
e. telophase
A light micrograph of an onion root's tip reveals dividing cells. In each of the next stages, name a cell. Drag the appropriate labels to the diagram's shown targets.
a. Anaphase: The fourth stage of mitosis, or anaphase, occurs when a parent cell's replicated genetic material is split into two identical daughter cells.
b. Prophase: The first stage of mitosis, or the division of a parent cell's genetic material into two identical daughter cells, is known as prophase. The chromatin, a combination of DNA and proteins found in the nucleus, condenses during prophase.
c. Prometaphase: The second stage of mitosis, or the division of a parent cell's genetic material into two identical daughter cells, is known as prometaphase. The nuclear envelope, a physical shield that protects the nucleus, disintegrates during prometaphase.
d. Metaphase: A phase of cell division known as "metaphase" (mitosis or meiosis). Individual chromosomes are typically dispersed throughout the cell nucleus. The chromosomes of the cell condense and move toward one another, aligning in the center of the dividing cell, and the nucleus of the cell disintegrates during metaphase.
e. Telophase: The fifth and final stage of mitosis, or the division of a parent cell's genetic material into two identical daughter cells, is known as telophase.
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after the 1933 hurricane carved out a tidal channel through the barrier island just south of ocean city, the army corps of engineers constructed a pair of jetties on each side of the inlet to keep it open. these are labeled post-1933 jetty on fig. 15.7. sand filled in behind the northern jetty, so it is now a seawall forming the straight southern edge of ocean city on fenwick island. based on this information, would you say that the longshore current along this coastline is traveling north to south or south to north? explain your reasoning.
After the 1933 hurricane etched out Ocean City Inlet,, the military Corps of Engineers made a combine of jetties on either side of Ocean City Inlet, to stay it open. The southern mole is labelled "seawall" on the map.
Hurricane is an extremely massive, powerful, and harmful storm with terribly sturdy winds that happens particularly within the western a part of the Atlantic.
A tidal creek or tidal channel is a slim water or water that's stricken by the ebb and flow of ocean tides. These channels are anticipated to make by deposition between flow pathways, instead of erosion, and periodic event channels could also be relic distributaries.
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which of these occur once an infected cell is identified by cytotoxic t-cells? the cell releases helper t-cells. the cell undergoes apoptosis. the cell starts to replicate. the cell digests the pathogen.
The cell releases helper t-cells: occur once an infected cell is identified by cytotoxic t-cells
What is Cytotoxic T-cells?Cytotoxic T-cells are also known as 'killer T cells' and are among the main components of our adaptive immunity. These cells, along with helper T cells are the two main T lymphocyte types in the immune system of our body. They are activated in similar ways as helper T cells, through antigen-presenting cells in the lymph nodes.
However, one difference is there, that infected host cells are directly attacked and destroyed by cytotoxic T-cells. In the absence of any antigen, cytotoxic T-cells remains in an inactive form. Cytotoxic T-cells can bind only to one particular type of antigen.
However, binding of cytotoxic T-cells to the antigens do not happens directly. Instead, antigen-presenting cells (APC) help in cytotoxic T-cells to bind with the antigens. Once an infected cell is identified by cytotoxic T-cells, the cell undergoes apoptosis. This cell apoptosis destroys the infected cells and any pathogen present with the cells.
Thus, the cell releases helper t-cells: occur once an infected cell is identified by cytotoxic t-cells.
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fill in the missing terms in the following illustration. the correct answers are provided at the back of the book
The correct response for question 10 is - Microtubule. The protein alpha and beta glucan are used to create the small hollow tubes known as microtubules.
What purpose does the microtubule serve?A cell's form is determined by the components of its skeleton known as microtubules, together with elastic fibers and microfilaments. Microtubules play a variety of roles in dividing cells, including the construction of the mitotic spindle and axon extension in neurons.
What does a cell's microtubule do?The third main component of the microtubule, microtubules, are hard, hollow rods with a diameter of around 25 nm. Like thin filaments, micelles are proposes that undergo ongoing construction and disintegration within the cell.
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a compound that preents teh seperation of the homogous chromsoems in anaphase 1 is being studid. which fo the followign questions can be best answered during this study
The question which can be best answered during this study is- D. Is there a pattern to the movement of homologous chromosomes in the presence of this compound?
A compound that prevents the division of the homologous chromosomes in anaphase I is of great interest since it will cause cell cycle capture, an impact that is thoroughly searched in enemy of disease drugs. However, before the compound can be used in clinical trials, it needs to be thoroughly studied. This study could provide answers to the following questions: " In the presence of this compound, does the movement of homologous chromosomes follows a pattern?" The response to this question will inform us as to whether the cells will go to apoptosis, which is what we search for in an enemy of malignant growth drugs.
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(complete question)
A compound that prevents the separation of the homologous chromosomes in anaphase I is being studied. Which of the following questions can be best answered during this study
A) Will the cells produced at the end of meiosis still be genetically identical to each other in the presence of this compound?
B) Will the long-term development of the individual be affected by this meiotic error?
C) When do the centrosomes start to move apart during meiosis I as compared to meiosis II?
D) Is there a pattern to the movement of homologous chromosomes in the presence of this compound?
1/Principles in breeding for disease resistance.
2/Give examples of selecting & breeding to improve local breed productivity and adaptability of imported breeds.
The principle in breeding for disease resistance is to enhance the quality of animals or plants for this feature (disease resistance). Some examples of selecting & breeding to improve local breed productivity and adaptability of imported breeds are the adaptation of cows to tropical areas by breeding with Zebu race or the inclusion of adaptive disease resistance genes in Kagoshima Berkshire pigs from regions with endemic parasites.
What does breeding for disease resistance mean?The expression breeding for disease resistance makes reference to the introgression of genes that are beneficial in animals by genetic crosses that is aimed at selecting the most adaptive phenotypes in offspring, thereby increasing the beneficial features in the next generation.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that breeding for disease resistance is based on crosses to select the fittest phenotypes in offspring which is achieved by human selection.
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shifting cultivation causes environmental damage primarily when exceeds environment.
Shifting cultivation causes environmental damage primarily when exceeds environment Increased population results in more land being removed.
The environment has been impacted by changes in agriculture in both beneficial and harmful ways. Positively, it reduces the intensity of land usage and delays the degradation of the environment. Reduced soil fertility, quicker deforestation, and out-of-control forest fires are some of its detrimental repercussions.
Deforestation and the deterioration of woods and land are the two main effects of real shifting farming.
Due to the large population, there is less area accessible for shifting agriculture. The soil loses more nutrients without being restored as a result of the pressure that this type of agriculture puts on the available space. Large-scale deforestation also contributes to global warming.
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Complete the Concept Map to describe surface membrane barriers and their protective functions, and describe the nonspecific internal defenses including the role of natural killer cells, phagocytosis, fever, and inflammation.
Surface membrane barriers are the first line of defense against potential pathogens. They form a physical barrier to prevent the entry of harmful microorganisms, such as bacteria and viruses.
The skin is the most important surface membrane barrier. It serves as a waterproof layer that prevents bacteria and other microorganisms from entering the body. The mucous membranes of the respiratory, digestive, and urinary tracts also serve as a barrier, trapping and destroying pathogens before they can enter the body.
The body's non specific internal defenses include the immune system and physical barriers such as the stomach acid. The immune system is composed of white blood cells that protect the body from foreign invaders. Natural killer cells are a type of white blood cell that can quickly recognize and destroy foreign invaders. Phagocytosis is another nonspecific defense. This is the process in which white blood cells engulf and destroy pathogens.
The body can also increase its defenses by producing a fever. A fever increases the body temperature, making it harder for pathogens to thrive. Finally, inflammation is the body's response to an infection. The body releases chemicals, such as histamine, to trigger inflammation and attract more white blood cells to the area of infection.
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although male and female infants may show signs of sexual response, nothing resembling an orgasm is possible until puberty.
The statements mentioned is about sexuality early in life, but this statement was inappropriate.
Which are the main stages of sexuality in our life?The sexual response cycle has four phases: excitement, plateau, orgasm, and resolution. Both men and women experience these phases, although the timing usually is different.Children develop sexually, just as they develop physically, emotionally and socially. This process begins at birth and continues through childhood. Even young children have sexual feelings or response and engage in sexual behavior (such as touching their sex parts or saying dirty words).Four sexual response cycles , the human sexual response cycle is divided into four phases, are, excitement, plateau, orgasm, and resolution.Learn more about sexual response cycle here: brainly.com/question/28348398
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The BLANK nervous system communicates with the skeletal muscles and the BLANK nervous system communicates with the smooth and cardiac muscle as well as glands.
A) autonomic; enteric
B) enteric; somatic
C) enteric; autonomic
D) somatic; autonomicD) somatic; autonomic
D) somatic, autonomic is the correct answer.
The somatic nervous system communicates with the skeletal muscles and the autonomic nervous system communicates with the smooth and cardiac muscle as well as glands.
The somatic nervous system is a part of the peripheral nervous system that is involved in the voluntary control of skeletal muscle movement.
It controls every bodily function, including how our arms, legs, and other body parts move.
Involuntary physiological activities including heart rate, blood pressure, breathing, digestion, and sexual arousal are regulated by the autonomic nervous system, a part of the peripheral nervous system. Sympathetic, parasympathetic, and enteric are its three physically separate divisions.
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Which of the following lipid molecules possess a different fundamental structural make-up from the others? A. Fatty acids B. Cholesterol C. Triglycerides D. Sphingolipids
E. Glycolipids
Cholesterol type of lipid has different fundamental structural make-up from others. The correct option to this question is B.
Any of the lipids, a group of specific chemical compounds, include cholesterol. It is a lipid called a sterol. All animal cells produce cholesterol, which is a crucial structural element of animal cell membranes. It is a crystalline solid that is yellow when isolated chemically.
The primary distinction between lipids and cholesterol is that the former is a waxy substance that is a crucial part of the cell membrane, whilst the latter is one of the three fundamental components of living cells along with carbohydrates and proteins.
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traits like red-green colorblindness, hemophilia, and duchenne muscular distrophy are recessive alleles. however, in the human population, men show a higher frequency of these disorders than women. also, sons never inherit the disorder from their fathers. this is because these genes are
Our biological parents leave us with particular gene inheritance patterns. The term "X-linked recessive inheritance" refers to one of the fundamental genetic inheritance patterns.
What does the term X-linked recessive mean?Genetic problems connected to mutations in X chromosome genes are referred to as X-linked recessive inheritance. Due to the fact that he possesses just one X chromosome, a male with this mutation will be impacted. The majority of the time, a female with a gene mutation on one X chromosome and a gene from one parent on the opposite X - linked is unaffected.
What does dominant vs. recessive X-linked mean?In each generation, males are typically affected in households with an X-linked genetic disease, but seldom are females. However, in X-linked dominant disorders, a mutation in one allele of an X-linked gene causes disease in both sexes.
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which one of the following enzymes, when activated, would indirectly affect the reaction direction of phosphoglucomutase?
Activation of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase, hexokinase, glucose-6-phosphatase and glucokinase would indirectly affect the reaction direction of phosphoglucomutase.
All the option are corect. B
An enzyme called phosphoglucomutase moves a phosphate group from the 1 to the 6 position on a -D-glucose monomer in the forward direction or from the 6 to the 1 position in the reverse direction.
A compound made of inorganic vanadate and alpha-D-glucose 1-phosphate (Glc-1-P) inhibits phosphoglucomutase (Vi). The concentrations of Glc-1-P and Vi affect both the inhibition at steady state and the pace of approach to steady state.
In order to raise the levels of cyclic Adenosine monophosphate (cAMP), which activates PKA, glucagon promotes adenylyl cyclase activity. To convert glycogen to glucose 1-phosphate, PKA increases glycogen phosphorylase activity. Phosphoglucomutase isomerizes glucose 1-phosphate to G-6-P.
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Complete question :: Which ONE of the following enzymes, when activated, would indirectly affect the reaction direction of phosphoglucomutase?
A. glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
B. all of these
C. hexokinase
D. glucose-6-phosphatase
E. glucokinase
Millions of people
20,000
10,000
5,000
2,000
1,000
500
200
10
WORLD POPULATION GROWTH
Asia
Europe
1950
1960
Mexico,
100 Central America,
50 Caribbean Islands, &
South America
20
World
1970
Africa.
1980
Oceania (Australia &
nearby islands in the Pacific)
1990
United States,
Canada, & Greenland
2000
2010
Year
OA. United States
OB. Asia
OC. Europe
OD. Africa
2020
2040
2030
2050
Based on the information in the graph, which region's population will
decrease in the next 40 years?
Based on the information in the graph, the region's population which will decrease in the next 40 years is Europe and is therefore denoted as option C.
What is Population?This is referred to as the total number of organisms in an area over a given period of time and is dependent on different factors such as availability of food, disease prevalence etc.
When we observe the graph, we can deduce that out of all the continents, only the population of Europe is seen to be decreasing at the tail end which is after the duration of 40 years and is therefore the reason why it was chosen as the correct choice.
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when gregor mendel crossed true-breeding tall plants with true-breeding short plants, all the offspring were tall because
When Gregor Mendel crossed true-breeding tall plants with true-breeding short plants, all the offspring were tall because the allele for tall plants is dominant.
Gregor Mendel gave three laws of heredity of characters through the use of pea plant. When he crossed true breeding tall plants, it means that the pair of genes are homozygous and they can be represented as TT, because tall 'T' is the dominant trait. When he considered true breeding short plants, it means that the pairs of genes are again homozygous and can be represented as tt as small 't' is a recessive trait. Thus when segregation of pair of genes takes place and the traits transferred to off-springs are determined, the presence of dominant character in all four possibilities causes all the off-springs to be dominantly tall.
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competition occurs: select all that apply. among members of the same species. only between individuals who share the same realized niche. none of the other answer options is correct. between members of different species. only between individuals in populations that are close to their carr
Competition occurs among members of the same species and between members of different species.
More broadly, competition can be described as the direct or indirect contact of organisms that results in a change in fitness when the organisms share a resource. Competition is most commonly thought of as the interaction of individuals that compete for a common resource that is in limited supply. The weaker competitors frequently suffer as a result of the outcome. The three main types of competition are as follows. Real competition is defined as two of them: interference competition and exploitation competition. Evident competition, a third form, is not. While exploitation competition and seeming competition take place between people in an indirect manner, interference competition happens between people directly.
Interactions are seen as interference competition when one person directly changes another person's resource-attaining behavior. For instance, a dominant male directly affects the mating behavior of other males when he prevents other males from approaching a partner by physical aggressiveness or aggressive displays.
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17th-century French scientist and philosopher Blaise Pascal
(1623-1662) discovered that air pressure decreases with height and that pressure-changes at ground level can be attributed to the daily weather. These discoveries are used to predict the weather today.
HOW DOES THIS FACT RELATE TO MY RESEARCH QUESTION WHICH IS
WHAT EFFECT DOES THE AMOUNT OF AIR PRESSURE HAVE ON HOW FAR A SOCCER BALL TRAVELS WHEN KICKED?
"The greater the air pressure in the ball, the farther it will travel when a force is applied."
"The pressure then the less friction there is for the ball to travel. Air pressure, determines the ball"
which of the following require physical contact between two bacterial cells for dna transfer?
Transformation and conjugation both require physical contact between the two bacterial cells in order for the transfer of DNA to take place. Option c and d are correct.
In transformation, genetic material is taken up by a bacterial cell from the environment, while in conjugation, genetic material is transferred directly from one bacterial cell to another through a bridge-like structure called a pilus. In both cases, physical contact between the two bacterial cells is necessary for the transfer of genetic material to take place.
The process of transferring genetic material between two bacterial cells requires physical contact between the two cells in some cases, while in others it can occur without direct contact. Binary fission, the process through which a parent cell divides into two daughter cells, does not require physical contact between the two cells for DNA transfer. This is because the two daughter cells created during the process are exact replicas of the parent cell, and therefore contain the same DNA.
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a) Binary fission
b) Transduction
c) Transformation
d) Conjugation
select the tunics that contain the intramural plexus. question 17 options: mucosa muscularis submucosa serosa
muscularis Intra mural plexus is the name given to the plexus found between layers of muscle.
The myenteric plexus, a component of the enteric neural system, is located in the gastrointestinal tract between the longitudinal and circular layers of muscularis externa. It is present in the esophageal, stomach, and intestinal muscles.
Although the present ganglion cell bodies belong to parasympathetic innervation, fibers from sympathetic innervation also reach the plexus. The submucous plexus provides secretomotor innervation to the mucosa closest to the gut lumen. The myenteric plexus (or Auerbach's plexus) provides motor innervation to both layers of the muscular layer of the gut. It develops from cells in the medulla oblongata's vagal trigone, also referred to as the nucleus ala cinerea, the parasympathetic nucleus of origin for the tenth cranial nerve (vagus nerve).
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Which of the following types of mutations would be most likely to contribute to uncontrolled proliferation of cells? a. One that increases the affinity of p21 for Cdks b. One that decreases the affinity of Rb for E7 from human papillomavirus c. One that decreases the affinity of Rb for the transcription factor E2F d. One that causes p53 to be constitutively phosphorylated
The mutation which is most likely to contribute to uncontrolled proliferation of cells is the One that decreases the affinity of Rb for the transcription factor E2F.
Acquired Mutation
These are the most typical cancer-causing factors. They develop as a result of a person's lifetime harm to the genes in a certain cell. For instance, this might be a breast or colon cell that later divides numerous times to create a tumor.
Rapid, uncontrolled cell division can be caused by the overexpression of growth hormones or by a deficiency in suppressor proteins. Tumors develop as a result of unchecked cell proliferation; they can be fatal if untreated.
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