Blood type AB is the rarest blood type, occurring in only 4% of the population in the United States. In Australia, only 1.5% of the population has blood type AB. Suppose a random sample of 50 U.S. residents and 40 Australians is obtained. Consider the random variables described below:

X: the number of U.S. residents with blood type AB
Y: the number of Australians with blood type AB

Required:
What is the probability that exactly 2 of the U.S. residents have blood type AB?

Answer:

yes, it is a solution

Step-by-step explanation:

when you plug the values in, the expression is true

x = 2

y = 3

2 + 3 = 5

5 < 7

Answer: 12, 33% or 1/3

Step-by-step explanation: 33% is 1 3rd, half of 66% is 33%, so half of 8 is 4, so 8+4=12. There are 12 people in the crew.

Answer:

3.336

Step-by-step explanation:

I am 15% I think I did the wrong calculation.

Answer:

x = 16

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: Subtract 2 from both sides.

Step 2: Multiply each side by 4 in order to isolate x.

Therefore, x = 6.

Hope you have a lovely rest of your day/night.

Answer:

x/4 + 2= 6 (1/4 × x = x/4)

x/4 = 4

x = 16

Answer:

Vertical angles = 81 degrees

Angle (4y-1) = 99 degrees

Linear pair = 81 + 99 = 180 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

2x + 5 = 3x - 33 (vertical angles)

33+5 = 3x - 2x

38 = x

3(38) - 33 = 81 degrees

4y - 1 + 81 = 180 (linear pair angles)

4y = 180 - 80

y = 100/4

y = 25

4(25) -1 = 99 degrees

Answer:

...

Step-by-step explanation:

...

Range is the difference between the highest score and lowest score.

To find the range the teacher needs to know the highest and lowest grades in the test.

Answer:

See below:

Step-by-step explanation:

So, the question asks how far she drives in a month, this probably includes going to work and coming back. Therefore, each day takes 2 times 75 which is 150!

Now, we know she goes 150 miles each day going to work and coming back. We can now multiply that by 21 to get out answer.

We can split 21 into 10 * 2 + 1 for our convenience.

150 times 10 is 1500 and that times two is 3000 added by 150 is 3150.

Then we get out answer; 3150 miles!

If this answer helped you, consider marking as brainliest :)

Answer:

10

Step-by-step explanation:

prinfeugd jigfrssfhutx bbjhhv

Answer:

See Below.

Step-by-step explanation:

We want to verify the equation:

[tex]\displaystyle \frac{\tan\theta}{ 1- \cot \theta} + \frac{\cot\theta}{1 - \tan\theta} = \frac{\dfrac{\sin\theta}{\cos\theta}}{1 - \dfrac{\cos\theta}{\sin\theta}} + \frac{\dfrac{\cos\theta}{\sin\theta}}{1 - \dfrac{\sin\theta}{\cos\theta}}[/tex]

Recall that tanθ = sinθ / cosθ. Likewise, cotθ = cosθ / sinθ. Then by substitution:

[tex]\displaystyle \begin{aligned} \frac{\tan\theta}{ 1- \cot \theta} + \frac{\cot\theta}{1 - \tan\theta} & = \frac{\dfrac{\sin\theta}{\cos\theta}}{1 - \dfrac{\cos\theta}{\sin\theta}} + \frac{\dfrac{\cos\theta}{\sin\theta}}{1 - \dfrac{\sin\theta}{\cos\theta}} \\ \\ & \stackrel{\checkmark}{=} \frac{\dfrac{\sin\theta}{\cos\theta}}{1 - \dfrac{\cos\theta}{\sin\theta}} + \frac{\dfrac{\cos\theta}{\sin\theta}}{1 - \dfrac{\sin\theta}{\cos\theta}} \end{aligned}[/tex]

Hence verified.

Given :

To Do :-

Proof :-

We know that ,

On using above two in LHS ,

Hence proved !

Using Dz and D'z to denote partial derivatives of z with respect to x and y respectively, the equation becomes (D^2 -1)z=0 or (D-1)(D+1)z=0. Put (D+1)z = u(x,y). Then we have (D-1)u =0. The general solution of this equation is u(x,y)=A(y).e^x, where A(y) is an arbitrary function of y, because we have integrated a partial derivative of u with respect to x, and we have to take an arbitrary function of y instead of an arbitrary constant.

Now the original equation becomes

(D+1)z=A(y)e^x and we integrate it with respect to x, giving ze^x = Int[e^x.A(y).e^x.dx] + B(y), (for another arbitrary function B(y)) = (1/2)e^(2x).A(y) +B(y) or

z(x,y) = B(y)e^(-x)+[A(y)e^x]/2 or

z = B(y)e^(-x) + C(y)e^x. Hence putting x=0,

e^y = B(y)+C(y) and Dz= -e^(-x)B(y) + e^x.C(y). Again putting x=0, we get 1 = -B(y) + C(y). Solving the two equations in B(y) and C(y), we have C(y) = (1+e^y)/2, and B(y) = (e^y -1)/2. Hence the required solution is

z = [(e^y -1).e^(-x)]/2 + [(e^y +1).e^x]/2 =

z = (e^y)cosh(x) + sinh(x).

Answer:

6

4

12

72

Step-by-step explanation:

Base is 6 in

Height is 4 in

To get the area of a triangle is 1/2 Base × Height

Being 1/2(6)(4) = 12

To get the area of a rectangle is Length × Width being 9 × 8 = 72

Using the value of the 4 which is 0.4 (keeping the decimal point in the same place)

0.4 x 10 = 4

Answer: 4

Answer:

y = 5.5x - 17

Step-by-step explanation:

(4,5)(2,-6)

Answer:

C. a two-way distribution.

A segmented bar graph can be used to illustrate two-way distribution.

I assume you're given the binary number, 11111₂. Expanding the digits in base 10, this is the same as

1•2⁴ + 1•2³ + 1•2² + 1•2¹ + 1•2⁰

= 16 + 8 + 4 + 2 + 1

= 31

Answer:

The highest recorded temperature in the national park is 91 degrees. Overall, in the north and south part of Denali, the average temperatures fluctuate between 50 and 60.Summers are short in Denali, and visitors should be prepared for cold, rain and even snow in mid-to-late August.

Answer:

57.15

Step-by-step explanation:

22.5*2.54 is 57.15

The board is 57.15 centimeters long.

To convert the length of the board from inches to centimeters, we need to use the conversion factor of 1 inch equals 2.54 centimeters.

Given that the board is 22.5 inches long, we can multiply this value by the conversion factor to find the equivalent length in centimeters.

Length in centimeters = Length in inches × Conversion factor

Length in centimeters = 22.5 inches × 2.54 centimeters/inch

Calculating this expression:

Length in centimeters = 57.15 centimeters

Therefore, the board is 57.15 centimeters long.

Learn more about conversion factor click;

https://brainly.com/question/30567263

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Answer:

Far left one, A

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

As 4 of the 22 males questioned liked talking on the phone, the odds are 4/22

Step-by-step explanation: