biology question, pls answer

Biology Question, Pls Answer

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Answer 1

The translation stage of protein synthesis, which takes place in the ribosome, is precisely depicted in the diagram.

What part does tRNA play in the production of proteins?

A little RNA molecule called transfer RNA, or tRNA for short, is necessary for the synthesis of proteins. Transfer RNA functions as a link (or adaptor) between the messenger RNA (mRNA) molecule and the lengthening chain of amino acids that make up a protein.

What happens in the start phase of protein synthesis's first step?

Transcription, which involves the unfolding of DNA and creation of an mRNA strand, is the initial stage of protein synthesis. Translation is the process by which amino acids are coded into expanding polypeptide chains in the second step of protein synthesis.

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Related Questions

The RNA world hypothesis is an appealing solution to this problem, because it states that ________.

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The RNA world hypothesis is an appealing solution to the problem of the origin of life on Earth, because it states that RNA (ribonucleic acid) was the first self-replicating molecule to emerge on Earth, before the development of DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) and proteins.

According to this hypothesis, RNA was capable of both storing genetic information and catalyzing chemical reactions, making it a plausible precursor to the more complex biomolecules that exist today.

RNA world hypothesis suggests that early life on Earth was dominated by RNA-based organisms, which eventually gave rise to the first cells through a process of gradual evolution and natural selection.

While the RNA world hypothesis is still an active area of scientific research and debate, it provides a compelling framework for understanding the origins of life and the emergence of the complex biological systems that exist today.

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Describe the three energy systems available during various types of physical activity and describe the fuel source and duration available for each:

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Three energy systems—the phosphagen system, the glycolytic system, and the oxidative system—are accessible during different kinds of physical exercise.

Phosphagen System: The phosphagen system supplies energy for brief, intense bursts of exercise, like a sprint over 100 meters or a challenging set of weightlifting. The energy from the phosphagen system is only available for a brief period of time.

Glycolytic System: The glycolytic system supplies power for moderate-to-intense exercises like a 400-meter sprint or a set of 10–12 repetitions of weightlifting. Duration: The energy produced by the glycolytic system lasts for two to three minutes.

The oxidative system supplies energy for low- to moderate-intensity activities like a 5-kilometer run or a lengthy trek. Fuel Source: The oxidative system uses fat that has been accumulated.

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Isocitrate is turned _____ with ADP & NAD+.

Answers

Answer:

α-ketoglutarate

Explanation:

Isocitrate is turned into a-ketoglutarate

T/F neurons are responsible for sending and receiving signals referred to as action potentials while neuroglial cells serve a variety of supportive functions.

Answers

The statement "neurons are responsible for sending and receiving signals referred to as action potentials while neuroglial cells serve a variety of supportive functions." is true.

In a more detailed explanation, neurons are specialized cells in the nervous system that transmit electrical and chemical signals called action potentials, allowing communication between various parts of the body.

On the other hand, neuroglial cells, also known as glial cells, have multiple roles, including providing structural support, maintaining homeostasis, forming the myelin sheath around axons, and assisting in the repair process after injury.

There are several types of neuroglial cells, such as astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, and microglia, each with their specific functions. Together, neurons and neuroglial cells form the complex network that makes up the nervous system, with neurons responsible for signal transmission and glial cells providing essential support.

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identify the statements that describe an evolutionary arms race between a predator and its prey. coevolution is unlikely to occur between the prey and its predator. the prey evolves a wide array of defenses against its predators. abiotic selective pressures cause evolution of the prey's defenses. structural prey defenses are effective against all the prey's predators. a predator evolves offenses to counter prey adaptations.

Answers

An evolutionary arms race occurs when a predator and its prey coevolve in response to each other's adaptations. This type of arms race has been observed in many different species pairs across the world and is a form of coevolution.

Here, correct option is A.

In this type of arms race, the prey evolves a wide array of defenses against its predators, and the predator evolves offenses to counter the prey’s adaptations. Abiotic selective pressures, such as climate and geography, can also cause the evolution of the prey’s defenses.

Structural prey defenses, like spines and shells, can be effective against all the prey’s predators, while behavioral defenses, like camouflage, can be more specific to the particular predator. This evolutionary arms race is a dynamic process that can result in a wide array of adaptations for both the predator and prey.

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complete question is :

identify the statements that describe an evolutionary arms race between a predator and its prey.

A. coevolution is unlikely to occur between the prey and its predator.

B. the prey evolves a wide array of defenses against its predators.

C. abiotic selective pressures cause evolution of the prey's defenses.

D. structural prey defenses are effective against all the prey's predators.

In Pollards research, she found that most of the DNA differences between human and chimp DNA were in which type of genes?

Answers

In Pollards research, she found that most of the DNA differences between human and chimp DNA were in non-coding sequence of genes.

The non-coding regulatory DNA sequences in human and chimpanzee DNA differ from each other, rather than the actual protein coding genes. The expression of genes is governed by these regulatory sequences. Therefore, modifications to these regulatory sequences have a big impact on gene expression and may be the cause of many biological differences between humans and chimpanzees.

Although positive selection and the evolution of protein-coding genes can both occur, the majority of genetic differences between chimpanzees and humans can be found in non-coding regulatory sequences.

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Enzyme Catalysis 1) The second reaction rate is what?
2) How is Vinitial (V0) determined?

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1) The second reaction rate, also known as the steady-state rate, is the rate at which the concentration of product remains constant over time in an enzyme-catalyzed reaction.

2) [tex]V_{initial}[/tex] (V₀) is determined by measuring the initial rate of reaction, which is the rate of product formation at the beginning of the reaction before substrate depletion or product inhibition occurs.

1) Second reaction rate occurs when the rate of formation of the product is equal to the rate of its consumption and is dependent on the concentration of enzyme and substrate. The steady-state rate is typically much higher than the initial rate of the reaction, as the enzyme becomes saturated with substrate and the reaction reaches a maximum velocity.

2) Vinitial can be measured by monitoring the change in absorbance, fluorescence, or other properties of the reaction mixture over time using a spectrophotometer or other analytical tools. The initial rate provides information about the catalytic efficiency of the enzyme and is useful in determining kinetic parameters such as the Michaelis-Menten constant[tex]K_{m}[/tex] and the maximum velocity ([tex]V_{max}[/tex]) of the reaction.

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Could a varying, self-replicating population of RNA molecules be considered alive?
A) No, because such a population would not be contained inside a cell.
B) Yes, because such a population would show variation, inheritance, and selection.
C) No, because RNA molecules are not subject to selection.
D) Yes, because RNAs code for proteins that can then replicate the RNAs.
E) No, because ribonucleotides are not suited for energy transfer functions.

Answers

A varying, self-replicating population of RNA molecules is considered alive because such a population would show variation, inheritance, and selection.

This is because variation, inheritance, and selection are considered key characteristics of life as defined by evolutionary theory. If a population of self-replicating RNA molecules exhibits these characteristics, it could be considered alive, even if it is not contained inside a cell.

RNA molecules are capable of self-replication and can undergo mutations that result in variation within the population.

These variations can be passed on to subsequent generations of RNA molecules, demonstrating inheritance. Additionally, RNA molecules that are better suited for survival and replication in their environment through natural selection would be more likely to persist and proliferate, showing selection.

This is similar to how living organisms undergo evolutionary processes. While RNA molecules do not possess all the characteristics of cells or complex organisms, they can exhibit key properties of life and are considered one of the building blocks of life on Earth.

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Interaction:Fleas (1) feed on the blood of cats (2)

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Fleas (1) feed on the blood of cats (2). This is an example of parasitism, a type of interaction in which one species benefits (the parasite) while the other is harmed (the host).

In this case, the fleas benefit by getting a blood meal, while the cat is harmed by the loss of blood and the potential for disease transmission. This interaction can also have indirect effects, such as causing the cat to scratch and groom excessively, which can lead to hair loss and skin infections. Additionally, the presence of fleas can cause stress and discomfort for the cat, potentially leading to decreased activity levels and overall health.

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the energy stored in atp (adenosine triphosphate) can drive cellular work by energizing other molecules. this process occurs when .

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The energy stored in ATP can drive cellular work by energizing other molecules through a process called phosphorylation. During phosphorylation, the phosphate group from ATP is transferred to another molecule, which increases the potential energy of that molecule and allows it to perform work within the cell. This process occurs in various cellular processes such as muscle contraction, protein synthesis, and active transport of molecules across cell membranes.

The energy stored in ATP (adenosine triphosphate) can drive cellular work by energizing other molecules. This process occurs when ATP undergoes hydrolysis, breaking down into ADP (adenosine diphosphate) and an inorganic phosphate group. The release of energy during this reaction is used to power various cellular functions and reactions.

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What occurs during the period of interphase known as the S phase? The cell is rapidly synthesizing proteins. DNA replication (synthesis) takes place. Proteins, organelles, and cytosol are divided between the daughter cells. Genetic material is divided between the daughter cells.

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During the period of interphase known as the S phase, DNA replication (synthesis) takes place. This means that the cell is actively synthesizing new copies of its genetic material.

The replicated DNA molecules are then divided between the daughter cells during cell division. In addition to DNA replication, other cellular processes are also occurring during interphase, including the synthesis of proteins and the division of organelles, cytosol, and other cellular components between the daughter cells. However, the primary focus of the S phase is the replication of DNA to ensure that each daughter cell receives a complete and accurate set of genetic information. This means that the cell is actively synthesizing new copies of its genetic material. DNA replication is a complex process that involves the unwinding and separation of the double-stranded DNA molecule, followed by the synthesis of new complementary strands of DNA.

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approximately how much iron is lost daily by adults from urine, sweat, and shed skin?

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On average, adults lose around 1-2 mg of iron daily from urine, sweat, and shed skin. This may seem like a small amount, but it can add up over time, especially if an individual is not consuming enough iron-rich foods or if they have a medical condition that causes excessive iron loss.

Iron is an important mineral that is needed for the production of hemoglobin, which carries oxygen throughout the body. When the body loses iron, it can lead to iron deficiency anemia, which can cause fatigue, weakness, and other health problems.

Therefore, it is important to ensure that the body is getting enough iron through a balanced diet or supplementation, especially for those who are at higher risk for iron deficiency, such as menstruating women, pregnant women, and vegetarians/vegans.

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a women is heterozygous for an x-linked trait, hemophilia A if she has a child with a man without hemophilia A, what is the probability that the child wll be a male with hemophilia A? a.100% b. 75% c. 50%d. 25%e. 0%

Answers

The probability that the child will be a male with hemophilia is (d) 25%.

Hemophilia A is an X-linked recessive trait, which means that the gene for this trait is located on the X chromosome. Women have two X chromosomes, and men have one X and one Y chromosome.

If a woman is heterozygous for hemophilia A, that means she carries one normal X chromosome and one X chromosome with the hemophilia A gene. When she has a child, there is a 50% chance that she will pass on the X chromosome with the hemophilia A gene.

If she has a child with a man without hemophilia A, he can only pass on a Y chromosome to his child, which determines male gender. Therefore, the child would have to inherit the X chromosome with the hemophilia A gene from the mother to have hemophilia A.

Since the probability of the mother passing on the X chromosome with the hemophilia A gene is 50%, and the father cannot pass on the gene, the probability of the child being a male with hemophilia A is 50% x 50% = 25%.

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Calculate the crude death rate for Sarasota county per 1,000 population (Report your answer with three decimal places).

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We need to know the county's population and the total number of deaths to determine the crude death rate for Sarasota County. Without that data, I can't give an exact response.

However, I am able to demonstrate how to determine the crude death rate.

The crude death rate is calculated by dividing the number of deaths in a population by the total population and then multiplying by 1,000.

The formula is:

Crude death rate = (Number of deaths / Total population) x 1,000

For example, if there were 100 deaths in a population of 10,000 people, the crude death rate would be:

Crude death rate = (100 / 10,000) x 1,000 = 10

So the crude death rate for that population would be 10 per 1,000.

Again, without specific information about the number of deaths and population for Sarasota County.

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in adults, size ____ receptor is used in the occlusal examination

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In adults, size #2 receptor is used in the occlusal examination.

During an occlusal examination, a size #2 receptor is typically utilized for adults due to its appropriate dimensions for capturing images of the upper and lower teeth, as well as the surrounding structures.

The process involves placing the receptor between the patient's upper and lower arches in various positions to obtain images of the occlusal surfaces. This examination helps dentists to identify any dental issues, such as tooth decay, fractures, or impacted teeth, and plan suitable treatment options.

The size #2 receptor is a common choice for adult patients because it is large enough to provide comprehensive coverage of the dental arches while still fitting comfortably within the patient's mouth.

The resulting images can be reviewed by the dentist to assess the overall health of the patient's teeth and supporting structures, leading to a more informed and accurate diagnosis.

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HELPP!!! Early stages in the embryo of a fish are similar to the early stages of human and pig embryos. An explanation
for this similarity is that the
A. pig and the human occupy the same habitat, while the fish occupies a different habitat
B. pig and the human are more closely related to each other than to the fish
C. pig, human, and fish evolved from a common ancestor
D. pig, human, and fish had

Answers

Answer:

a convergent evolution that led to similar embryo development patterns

The correct answer is C. pig, human, and fish evolved from a common ancestor.

Similarities in early embryonic development across different animal species suggest a common evolutionary origin. These similarities can be attributed to the conservation of developmental genes and mechanisms from a common ancestor. Therefore, the early stages of embryonic development in fish, pig, and human embryos are similar because they all share a common ancestor. The fact that the fish occupy a different habitat than pigs and humans is not relevant to the similarities in their embryonic development.

. Fiesta® ware bowls, like this one from the 1930s, gets its orange color from _________________ , and
it's actually dangerously radioactive.

Answers

Fiesta® ware bowls, like this one from the 1930s, gets its orange color from uranium oxide, and it's actually dangerously radioactive.

Uranium oxide is a radioactive substance that emits low levels of radiation, which can pose a health risk if the dishes are used frequently or if acidic foods are stored in them for prolonged periods. While the levels of radioactivity are generally considered to be low, it is recommended that these vintage dishes not be used for food storage or preparation, and instead, be displayed as decorative items.

In 1973, the use of uranium oxide in glazes was banned by the US government, as it was found to be potentially hazardous to the people handling the dishes during the production process.

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If a chemotherapy drug prevents the mitotic spindle from forming during the M phase of the cell cycle, then what specific phase has been disrupted? metaphase anaphase prophase telophase

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If a chemotherapy drug prevents the mitotic spindle from forming during the M phase of the cell cycle, then the specific phase that has been disrupted is metaphase.

This is because the mitotic spindle is responsible for aligning the chromosomes at the equator of the cell during metaphase. Without a functioning mitotic spindle, the chromosomes cannot be properly aligned and separated during cell division. During metaphase, the chromosomes line up at the center of the cell, and the spindle fibers attach to the centromeres of each chromosome. The spindle fibers then pull the chromosomes apart during the anaphase stage of mitosis. If the chemotherapy drug prevents the mitotic spindle from forming, then the chromosomes cannot properly separate during the metaphase to anaphase transition, which can lead to cell death or abnormal cell division.

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When the experiment was run for 1 hour rather than 15 minutes, the results were about the same except that the stomatal openings of plants 9-11 were comparable in size to those of plants 6-8.
What is the most likely explanation for this?

Answers

The most likely explanation for this observation is that the increased duration of the experiment (from 15 minutes to 1 hour) allowed plants 9-11 to acclimate to the experimental conditions, resulting in stomatal openings similar in size to those of plants 6-8.

The most likely explanation for this is that plants 9-11 needed more time to fully open their stomata to reach the same size as plants 6-8. With a longer experiment time of 1 hour, the stomatal openings of plants 9-11 were able to reach comparable sizes to those of plants 6-8. It is possible that the size difference between the two groups of plants was due to individual variations or different environmental factors affecting each plant's ability to open its stomata.

Stomatal are pores on the surface of leaves that act as biomechanical valves that regulate gas exchange in plants (Raven et al., 2005). Each stoma is surrounded by a pair of curved, tubular guard cells that collectively regulate the opening and closing of the stoma.

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What is a practical marine mammal example for the application of molecular taxonomy?

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A practical marine mammal example for the application of molecular taxonomy is the differentiation of subspecies or populations within a species using genetic data.

By analyzing genetic markers such as mitochondrial DNA or microsatellites, researchers can identify unique genetic signatures that correspond to different populations or subspecies. This information can be used to inform management and conservation strategies, such as identifying priority areas for protection or assessing the genetic diversity and connectivity of different populations.

Molecular taxonomy can help resolve taxonomic uncertainties or discrepancies, such as the classification of certain dolphin species, which may be difficult to distinguish based on morphology alone. By combining genetic and morphological data, researchers can develop a more accurate and comprehensive understanding of the diversity and relationships between different marine mammal species and populations.

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The sister chromatids of replicated chromosomes separate, and the spindle poles are pushed farther apart. true or false

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The given statement " The sister chromatids of replicated chromosomes separate, and the spindle poles are pushed farther apart" is true because During mitosis, after the replicated chromosomes align at the metaphase plate, the sister chromatids separate and are pulled towards opposite poles of the cell by the spindle fibers.

The spindle poles are pushed farther apart when the sister chromatids advance towards the poles, which helps to lengthen the cell.

This separation of sister chromatids is an important stage in cell division because it ensures that each daughter cell obtains the same set of chromosomes.

Once the chromatids have separated and reached their respective poles, the cell goes through cytokinesis, which entails cytoplasm division and the production of two distinct daughter cells.

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Unsafe feeding positions, such as propping a bottle or placing the baby on a pillow, increase the risk for choking, overfeeding, and ___ ear infections.

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Unsafe feeding positions, such as propping a bottle or placing the baby on a pillow, increase the risk for choking, overfeeding, and middle ear infections.

Feeding infants in an unsafe position, such as propping a bottle or placing the baby on a pillow, can increase the risk of a number of health problems. For example, propping a bottle can cause the baby to choke or overfeed, which can lead to excessive weight gain, digestive problems, and an increased risk of obesity later in life.

Additionally, placing the baby on a pillow can increase the risk of middle ear infections, which occur when fluid builds up in the space behind the eardrum and becomes infected. This is because feeding in a horizontal position can allow milk to flow back into the middle ear, creating an ideal environment for bacteria to grow.

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Question 30
The one of the following that is not ordinarily transmitted by an insect:
a. malaria
b. tetanus
c. typhus fever
d. yellow fever

Answers

The one of the following that is not ordinarily transmitted by an insect is tetanus. Option B is correct.

Tetanus is not ordinarily transmitted by insects. Tetanus, also known as lockjaw, is a bacterial infection caused by the bacterium Clostridium tetani, which is commonly found in soil, dust, and animal feces.

The bacterium can enter the body through cuts, wounds, or puncture injuries, but it is not typically transmitted by insects. Tetanus is usually contracted through contamination of wounds with the bacteria, such as from stepping on a rusty nail or being injured by a dirty object. It is not spread through insect bites.

On the other hand, diseases such as malaria, typhus fever, and yellow fever can be transmitted by insect vectors, such as mosquitoes or ticks, as they are known to carry and transmit the pathogens responsible for these diseases.

Hence, B. is the correct option.

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an unconformity represents a period ___.
a. of erosion
b. of non deposition
c. in which both erosion and non-deposition occurred

Answers

Where erosion and non-deposition both took place. A geologic gap, or unconformity, occurs when rock layers are missing, have been eroded away, or have not been deposited at all.

What does an irregularity stand for?

An unconformity is a boundary between two rock units that is covered by a sedimentary rock unit or an extrusive igneous rock unit and signifies a major epoch in the geologic record.

What about an unconformity is true?

An unconformity is a surface in the stratigraphic column of the rock record that represents a period from which no rocks have been preserved. It can be a time when there were no rocks or when there were rocks but they were later eroded away.

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Delaunay mesh refinement (DMR) may have overlapping neighborhoods that restrict parallelism.true/false

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True. Delaunay mesh refinement (DMR) can have overlapping neighborhoods that limit parallelism.

This is because DMR requires the computation of local Delaunay triangulations for each neighborhood, and these neighborhoods may overlap with each other.

As a result, parallel processing of these neighborhoods can be restricted.
The statement "Delaunay mesh refinement (DMR) may have overlapping neighborhoods that restrict parallelism" is true. In DMR, refinement can lead to overlapping neighborhoods due to the insertion of new points, which might cause a restriction in parallelism as tasks in overlapping regions could depend on each other's results.

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Question 39 Marks: 1 Trihalomethanes are synthetic organic chemicals primarily createdChoose one answer. a. during the coagulation process b. during the pre-chlorination process c. during reverse osmosis d. during the post-chlorination process

Answers

Trihalomethanes are organic synthetic chemicals that are mostly made during the pre-chlorination process. The correct answer is (B).

When chlorine is used to disinfect water to make it safer to drink, liquid by-products known as trihalomethanes (THMs) are produced. THMs have no color and have a faint chlorine-like smell. These synthetics are called THMs in light of the fact that each contains three halogen particles: chlorine, bromine, or a combination of chlorine and bromine.

Trihalomethanes (THMs) are chemical compounds that can be produced when chlorine is used to disinfect water. THMs happen when chlorine responds with the natural matter in water, and hence are more normal in surface water supplies all through Canada.

By removing harmful chemicals and substances like THMs, reverse osmosis systems have provided an excellent water treatment method for producing safe drinking water.

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When comparing the gene that controls brain development between humans and chimps, what did researchers discover?

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When comparing the gene that controls brain development between humans and chimps, researchers have discovered a differences in the expression and regulation of genes associated with brain development between humans and chimpanzees.

Research has shown that the gene for the development of the brain cortex, a region of the brain responsible for higher cognitive functions, exhibits differences in expression patterns and regulation between humans and chimps. Specifically, there are differences in the timing, level, and pattern of gene expression during brain development in these two species.

Additionally, studies have revealed that there are differences in the epigenetic regulation of brain development genes between humans and chimps. Epigenetic modifications, such as DNA methylation and histone modifications, can affect gene expression without changing the underlying DNA sequence.

These epigenetic differences may also play a role in shaping the distinct developmental trajectories and functional characteristics of the human and chimp brain.

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4. What did Morgan conclude from his research on fruit flies?

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Morgan's research on fruit flies provided evidence for the chromosomal theory of inheritance, which suggests that genes are located on chromosomes and that the behavior of chromosomes during meiosis can account for patterns of inheritance.

Through his experiments, Morgan observed that certain traits in fruit flies (Drosophila melanogaster), such as eye color, were linked to specific chromosomes. He also observed that some traits were sex-linked, meaning they were located on the X or Y sex chromosomes.

Morgan's most significant contribution to genetics was the discovery of a mutant white-eyed male fly in 1910. This fly had a white eye instead of the normal red eye, and Morgan was able to breed this trait into a new population. He found that the white eye trait was always passed down to male offspring and not to female offspring, suggesting that the gene responsible for eye color was located on the X chromosome.

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The diagram shows a plant root. Which sentence is true? A B C Root cap Apical meristem at root tip
A. Cell division takes place in section C, at the tip of the root.

OB. Cell division takes place in section B, just above the tip of the root.

OC. Cell division takes place in section A, far above the tip of the root.

OD. Cell division takes place in all parts of the root.​

Answers

A. Cell division takes place in section C, at the tip of the root. The apical meristem, which is found at the tip of the root, is in charge of cell division and root growth.

Does the root cap comprise the apical meristem?

Dicotyledonous Angiosperm Plants' Root Apical Meristem Type Affects the Development and Release of Live Root Cap Border Cells - PMC.

Is the apical meristem on the plant's upper side?

The developing tips of stems and roots contain the apical meristem. The primary role of the apical meristem in early seedlings is to stimulate the formation of new cells at the terminals of roots and shoots and in developing buds.

What does a plant's root tip look like?

The growing tip of the root is shielded as it passes through the earth by a thimble-shaped root cap. Just behind the root cap is the apical meristem, a zone of actively dividing cells.

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Complete question;-

The diagram shows a plant root. Which sentence is true? A B C Root cap Apical meristem at root tip

A. Cell division takes place in section C, at the tip of the root.

OB. Cell division takes place in section B, just above the tip of the root.

OC. Cell division takes place in section A, far above the tip of the root.

OD. Cell division takes place in all parts of the root.​

A - Cortex

B - Protoderm

C - Root cap

You compare the sequence of a 300,000 bp region of a chromosome that you inherited from your mother with the corresponding region of the homologous chromosome your inherited from your father and as a result identify SNPs in that region. Approximately how many SNPs do you expect to identify?

Answers

Single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) are variations in a single nucleotide that occur at a specific position in the genome, and they can be used to identify differences between individual genomes.

The number of SNPs that are expected to be identified when comparing two homologous chromosomes depends on the frequency of SNPs in the population, the size of the region being analyzed, and the genetic distance between the two chromosomes being compared. According to current estimates, the frequency of SNPs in the human genome is approximately 1 in every 300 base pairs. Assuming a similar frequency of SNPs in the region being analyzed, a 300,000 bp region would contain approximately 1000 SNPs. However, this number can vary widely depending on factors such as the genetic distance between the two chromosomes and the presence of regions with high levels of genetic variation.

Therefore, it is difficult to provide an exact number of SNPs that would be expected to be identified in a 300,000 bp region without additional information. However, in general, a few hundred to a few thousand SNPs could be expected to be identified in a region of this size.

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a partnership where the partners have not agreed to remain partners until the expiration of a definite term or event is known as __________. Question 19Which food does not require refrigeration at 41F (5C)?a. open container of garlic in oilb. tofuc. sliced/cut cantalouped. UHT creamers __________ is required to break covalent bonds between atoms.(double/triple, coordinate covalent bond, energy, bond dissociation energy, resonance structure) In the ___ phase of the waterfall model, requirements change, errors are detected and minor or major modifications are made. Which elements represent obstacles for successful democracies? Select all that apply. Parliamentary debate and negotiation corruption war and violence coalitions The national debt falls if a. there's a federal government budget surplus. b. the federal government issues new bonds to finance its spending. c. federal tax revenues decline sharply.d. the Federal Reserve System increases the money supply. How do the son's actions contribute to the development of the poem's theme? jabberwocky find the indicated critical z value. find the critical value that corresponds to a 98% confidence level. group of answer choices a convex spherical mirror with a focal length of magnitude 25 cm has a 4.0-cm tall flower placed 100 cm in front of it. what is the height of the image of the flower? Hygroscopic nuclei:-repel water and prevent condensation.-can allow cloud droplets to form even if the relative humidity is less than 100%.-are not the most ideal type of condensation nuclei for encouraging droplet growth.-are not generally found in nature. help me pls Ill give brainliest Question 39 Marks: 1 Dry cotton ear plugs are just as effective against noise control as expensive fitted ear plugs and earmuffs.Choose one answer. a. True b. False Policy makers talk about the ""capacity"" of the economy to grow. What specifically is meant by the ""capacity"" of the economy? How might capacity be measured? In what ways is capacity limited by labor constraints and by capital constraints? What are the consequences if demand in the economy exceeds capacity? What signs would you look for? What factors enhance the diffusion of a good or service? In early 1980s, the Canadian government ran a budget deficitwhile the Bank of Canada pursued a tight monetary policy. Whateffect should this policy mix have? 4. The annual coupon of a bond divided by its face value is called the bond's: A) Coupon. B) Face value. C) Maturity. D) Yield to maturity. E) Coupon rate. Complaints of poor water quality will most likely occur in which type of water main layout?a) Arterial Loopb) Treec) Gridd) Nebular PLS HELP ASAPPP!! WILL MARK BRAINLIEST!! Which of the following contributed to the decline of the Mongol Empire? A magnesium ion, Mg2+, hasA) 12 protons and 13 electrons. D) 24 protons and 22 electrons.B) 24 protons and 26 electrons. E) 12 protons and 14 electrons.C) 12 protons and 10 electrons. PLEASE ANSWER I HAVE ONE HOUR!!!!What was a significant cause of the trend in birth rates shown in the graph between 1940 and 1950? Decreasing inflation but elevated unemployment Growing faith in the government's ability to solve social problems Increased availability of jobs for women Rising standard of living and general prosperity