A high concentration of bicoid protein at the opposite ends of a developing Drosophila embryo would result in the development of a two-headed fly.
Bicoid acts as a morphogen during Drosophila development. Thus, BCD mRNA is maternally located at the anterior pole of the embryo and Bcd forms an anterior/posterior gradient that functions in a concentration-dependent manner. Both functions require a homeodomain that recognizes.
DNA motifs on target gene enhancers and specific sequence spacing of her 3 untranslated regions of the tail mRNA. Female embryos with the bicoid mutation lack the head and thorax replaced by a posterior telson. Embryos lacking both maternal and zygotic hb show reduced and anterior shifts of ems and btd expression at the blastoderm stage.
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in which biome are kansas and nebraska located? select one: a. temperate grassland b. tundra c. temperate rain forest d. boreal forest e. temperate seasonal forest
Kansas and Nebraska's biome is a temperate grassland.
Which biome has grasslands, tropical rainforests, and scant rainfall?Dry areas with annual precipitation rates of less than 50 cm are known as deserts (20 inches). They take up around 20% of the Earth's surface. Deserts can be hot or cold, while the majority are found in subtropical areas.
What does a tundra biome mean?The tundra is the coldest biome of them all. The name "tunturi," which means "treeless plain," is derived from the Finnish. It is renowned for its frost-molded landscapes, exceptionally chilly temperatures, scant precipitation, inadequate nutrition levels, and brief planting seasons. A nutrient pool is created by dead organic matter.
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the following structure is that of ribose. is this a furanose or pyranose form? is it an alpha or beta anomer? is it a d or l sugar?
Ribose is also known as aldose. It contains an aldehyde group.
Furanose is the furanose form.
Furanose is a five-membered ring. Pyranose is a six-membered ring.
This is known as alpha anomer.
Because the -OH group is located below the side of anomeric carbon.
It's called L sugar.
Because CH2OH is on the lower side of the fourth carbon
A furanose is a collective word for carbohydrates with a five-membered ring system composed of four carbon atoms and one oxygen atom. The name originates from its resemblance to the oxygen heterocycle furan, although the furanose ring lacks double bonds.
Pyranose is a collective term for saccharides with a six-membered ring of five carbon atoms and one oxygen atom in their chemical structure. Other carbons may exist outside of the ring.
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a population of insects increases at a rate of 220 6 t 0.9 t 2 insects per day. find the insect population after 5 days, assuming there are 40 insects at t
There have been reports of increases in the general insect population in some areas, and the abundance of particular bug species appears to be rising globally.
How is the insect population faring?In fact, 80% of all animal life on Earth consists of insects. However, habitat loss, pollution, and climate change are all contributing to a global decline in both the quantity and diversity of insects. Without widespread action, many of these significant animals risk going extinct in the next decades.
What happened to every bug?Insect populations are under threat globally due to habitat loss, pesticide use, and climate change. A third of all bug species are endangered, while Biological Conservation reported in 2019 that 40% of all insect species are falling globally.
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Organism a is eukaryotic, unicellular, and lacks a cell wall. Organism b is eukaryotic, multicellular, has cell walls, and is autotrophic. In which kingdoms should these organisms be classified?.
Kingdom Plantae contains organisms that are autotrophs and have a cellulosic cell wall, whereas kingdom Animalia contains organisms that are Heterotrophs and lack a cell wall. C is the right response.
An organism that consumes other plants or animals for energy and nutrients is referred to as a heterotroph. The word comes from the Greek words hetero, which means "other," and trope, which means "nourishment." Based on how they obtain their energy and nutrients, organisms are divided into two general categories: heterotrophs and autotrophs. Because they can produce their own food from raw materials and energy, autotrophs are referred to as producers. Examples include trees, algae, and some bacterial species. Heterotrophs are referred to as consumers because they eat other consumers or producers. Heterotrophs include animals like dogs, birds, fish, and people.
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This chart shows the volumes of four different objects.
A 4-column table with 2 rows titled volumes of four objects. The first row has entries Object 1, Object 2, Object 3, Object 4. The second row has entries 6 centimeters cubed, 8 centimeters cubed, 3 centimeters cubed, 14 centimeters cubed.
If the objects all have the same mass, which object is the most dense?
Object 1
Object 2
Object 3
Object 4
Object 3 is the most dense.
Density ρ is directly proportional to the mass m and inversely proportional to the volume v, i.e.
ρ= m/v
This implies that a body's density will decrease as its volume increases. The object with smallest volume will therefore be the most dense, given that the four objects have the same mass m but varied volumes.
Object 1:
ρ1=m/6= 0.16m
Object 2:
ρ2=m/8= 0.125m
Object 3:
ρ3=m/3= 0.33m
Object 4:
ρ4=m/14= 0.071m
Therefore, object 3 is the most dense.
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The object 3 is the most dense among all of the objects when all objects have same mass.
How to find which object is denser among all the objects?Using density, it is simple to calculate a body's mass from its volume or vice versa. Mass is equal to volume times density, whereas volume is equal to mass divided by density. This relation can be expressed as:
[tex]Density = \frac{Mass}{Volume}[/tex]
In other words, density is inversely proportional to volume and directly proportional to mass.
This suggests that when a body's volume increases, its density will decrease. Given that all four items have the same mass m but different volumes, the object with the smallest volume will thus be the most dense.
Density of object 1 = m / 6 = 0.16m
Density of object 2 = m / 8 = 0.12m
Density of object 3 = m / 3 = 0.33m
Density of object 4 = m / 14 = 0.071m
Thus, the object which is most dense is object 3 with the highest density 0.33m.
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Why does mainland europe have a wider variety of plant life than the british isles?.
Answer:
Climateon
Explanation:
The climateon the mainland of Europe is more diverse than that of the British Isles and supports a wider range of plant life.
HELP ME I CANT DO THIS RIGHT
1. The genotype ratio would be 1AA:1Aa while the phenotype ratio would be 100% brown.
2. The genotype ratio would be 1 Aa: 2 Aa: 1 aa while the phenotype ratio would be 75% white: 25% brown.
Monohybrid crossingFor the first cross, let us assume the color allele in the mouse is A. Since brown is dominant, it will be A, while the alternate color, tan, would be a.
The genotype of homozygous dominant brown mouse = AA
The genotype of heterozygous brown mouse = Aa
Crossing AA with Aa:
AA x Aa
AA Aa AA Aa
Genotype ratio = 1:1 AA to Aa
Phenotype ratio = 100% brown
For the second cross, let us assume that white is A and brown is a, Two heterozygous white were crossed:
Aa x Aa
AA Aa Aa aa
Genotype ratio = 1 Aa: 2 Aa: 1 aa
Phenotype ratio = 75% white: 25% brown
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The ability to grow in size is a characteristic of living organisms. Although an icicle may grow in size over time, it is considered nonliving because there is.
Even though an icicle might grow in size over a period of time yet it is regarded as nonliving since no metabolic activity is present there.
Even very young children can generally understand that icicles may be not alive. They are frigid to the touch, do not move other than to drip or break and fall to the ground, and do not procreate.
Crystals and icicles are examples of nonliving entities that grow by amassing more of the same substance from which they were produced. In contrast, the expansion and cell division that occurs during growth in biological things.
Hence, the correct answer will be option D.
The question is incomplete. The complete question is:-
The potential to grow in size is a feature of all living organisms. Even though an icicle might grow in size over a period of time yet it is regarded as nonliving because there is:
(a) An expansion in matter but no increase in the number of icicles,
(b) An exchange between the icicle and the environment,
(c) No possible way for the icicle to shift away from the heat,
(d) No metabolic activity is present.
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need help asp
most seeds come out of dormancy in the spring. What causes plants to begin the process of germination? A. Cellular respiration B. Stored sugars C. Photosynthesis D. Hormones
Answer: Hormones
Explanation: Just did it and got it wrong cause the other guy
why are there a total of six possible reading frames when searching a nucleotide sequence with an amino acid sequence?
A DNA strand has three different reading frames because DNA is translated into groups of three nucleotides (codons). There are six possible frame translations since the DNA molecule's double helix contains two anti-parallel strands with three reading frames each.
Can more than six open reading frames be found using the ORF finder for a given sequence?It displays six horizontal bars for each potential reading frame. Three alternative reading frames would exist for each orientation of the DNA. There would therefore be a total of 6 reading frames (6 horizontal bars) for every DNA sequence.
How many different reading frames can an RNA sequence contain?Given that the genetic code is double-stranded and that DNA is There are six different reading frames that can be based on triplets (3 consecutive bases). By breaking up the nucleotide sequence of DNA or RNA into a series of sequential, non-overlapping triplets, one can identify a reading frame.
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What is the difference between an inhibitory and an excitatory post synaptic potential?.
An excitatory post synaptic potential has a reversal potential more positive than the action potential threshold, whereas an inhibitory post synaptic potential has a reversal potential more negative than threshold.
Excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSP) carry the neuron's potential closer to its volatile threshold. on the other hand Inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSP) change the charge across the membrane to be further from the volatile threshold.
These potentials are also known as graded potential because their size or amplitude is directly proportional to the strength of the triggering event. Example include when large stimulus leads to the generation of a strong graded response and a small stimulus leads to the generation of a weak graded response.
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2 sole for x. Round your answer to the nearest tenth 9 15
This is an inconsistent equation
2(x+3)=9+2x
Distribute
2x+6 = 9+2x
Subtract 2x from each side
2x+6-2x =9+2x-2x
6=9
What is inconsistent equation?Consider the standard form of a linear equation in Slope-Intercept form: y = mx + b where
m is the slope
b is the y-intercept
A consistent system of equations is where the equations have different slopes OR the same slope and y-intercept. This results in the lines crossing so they have at least one solution.
An inconsistent system of equations is where the equations have the same slope but different y-intercepts. This results in parallel lines so they have no solutions.
Therefore, This is an inconsistent equation
2(x+3)=9+2x
Distribute
2x+6 = 9+2x
Subtract 2x from each side
2x+6-2x =9+2x-2x
6=9
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what three events take place as an unspecialized cell differentiates into a cell that helps transport water in plants
A. Holes form in the cell wall and cell dies
B. Hormones cause the cell to grow wider
C. The cell wall gets thicker
D. The cell divides in two
Differentiation drastically alters a cell's size, shape, membrane potential, metabolic activity, and signal response. Epigenetics studies gene expression alterations. Therefore, option A, B and C are correct.
What is cellular differentiation?A stem cell changes from one type to another throughout the process of cellular differentiation. The cell often transforms into a more specialised kind.
A cell's size, shape, membrane potential, metabolic activity, and receptivity to signals all significantly alter during differentiation. These variations in gene expression, which are the subject of the study of epigenetics, are substantially to blame for these changes.
The procambium's vascular precursor cells differentiate to create continuous vascular strands, from which the right spatiotemporal pattern of xylem and phloem cells are produced.
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individuals who have the pav version of the gene that codes for a specific receptor (t2r38) and can detect propylthiouracil (prop) at low concentrations are called:
TASTERS are people that have the pav variant of the gene that codes for a certain receptor (t2r38), which enables them to detect propylthiouracil (prop) at low quantities.
Several research have examined interindividual taste variability and its effects on dietary preferences, nutrition, and health using taste sensitivity to 6-n-propylthiouracil (PROP). For the automatic identification of the PROP taster categories of super taster, medium taster, and non-taster of 84 participants, we applied a supervised learning approach (aged 18–40 years).
The most significant characteristics were the ratings of perceived taste intensity for PROP paper disks (50 mM) and PROP solution (3.2 mM), together with fungiform papilla density.
High estimated values tended to favor ST prediction, whereas low values tended to favor NT prediction. Furthermore, TAS2R38 genotypes (AVI/AVI, PAV/PAV, and PAV/AVI to categorize NTs, STs, and MTs, respectively) were important features.
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which contraceptive is not hormone-based? group of answer choices nexplanon implant ortho evra transdermal patch nuvaring vaginal ring depo-provera injection paragard iud
The answer is (e) Paragard IUD is a contraceptive that is not hormone based.
The intrauterine device (IUD) ParaGard can offer long-term birth control (contraception). It's also referred to as a nonhormonal IUD alternative. The ParaGard is a plastic frame in the shape of a T that is put into the uterus. The coil of copper wire that surrounds the device causes an allergic reaction that is harmful to sperm and eggs (ova), preventing conception.
The sole copper IUD offered in the United States is called ParaGard. For long to 10 years after implantation, it can prevent conception. Effective, long-lasting contraception is provided with ParaGard. Any premenopausal woman, including adolescent women, can use it. Not everyone should use ParaGard. In many situations, your doctor may advise against using ParaGard.
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Compound X ha traveled up the TLC plate 25 mm. If the olvent front i at 75 mm, what i thi component’ Rf value?
The given component's Rf value is 0.33 if the compound X has travelled up 25mm on the TLC plate and the solvent front is at 75mm.
The Rf value of a compound is equivalent to the distance travelled by the compound up the TLC plate divided by the distance travelled by the solvent front. Rf value can be denoted by the following expression:-
Rf = distance travelled by the spot / distance travelled by solvent front
Therefore, Rf = 25 / 75 = 0.33 in this case. The Rf or the retention factor in Thin Layer Chromatography (TLC) is utilized in the comparison as well as identification of compounds.
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What was found in the trap of the miller–urey apparatus that supports a hypothesis for the beginning of early life?.
Miller-Urey experiment showed the simulation of conditions on the Earth forming the idea that life, or more specifically organic molecules, could have formed by nothing more than simple chemical reactions.
Miller and Urey created the condition like early Earth atmosphere with a mixture of methane, hydrogen, ammonia and water vapor. This mixture, was then exposed to sparks which simulated lightning, that led to the formation of amino acids.
This experiment effectively proved that origin of life on the planet Earth had occurred because of the some chemical conditions that went through the process of Abiogenesis.
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synthesis of by a specific group of lymphocytes occurs when a person's immune system recognizes a molecule as foreign. multiple choice question.
When an individual's immune system identifies a chemical as alien, specialized cells begin to produce antibodies.
What kinds of things are antibodies?Immunoglobulins, often known as antibodies, are five distinct subtypes found in the body. Different immunoglobulin isotypes include IgA, IgD, IgG, IgE, and IgM. The first line of defense against infection is immunoglobin A (IgA), which is located in mucosal tissue. IgA binds with pathogens in order to mark them for annihilation by other antibodies.
Where can you find antibodies?Blood, as well as other bodily fluids and tissues, contain immunoglobulins. They are created by plasma cells, which are immune system B cell-derived. When a particular antigen binds to an antibody's surface, B cells of a immune system are activated and transform into plasma cells.
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5b
3. Fruit flies are organisms commonly used in genetic studies. They reproduce pickly
and have several traits that can be measured. One trait is the vestigial wing (g) trait,
which is recessive. Most flies have red eyes (E), but the sepia eye (e) trait is recessive.
The image to the right shows a mutant double recessive fly (ggee).
A fly that is heterozygous for both traits (GgEe) is crossed with one that has vestigial
wings and sepia eyes (ggee).
a. Set up a Punnett square and list the phenotypic ratio of the original square
To set up a Punnett square for this cross, you would need to know the genotypes of the two parent flies. In this case, the first parent fly is heterozygous for both traits, meaning it has one dominant and one recessive allele for each trait. The genotype for this fly can be represented as GgEe. The second parent fly is homozygous recessive for both traits, meaning it has two recessive alleles for each trait. The genotype for this fly can be represented as ggee.
To set up the Punnett square, you would first draw a grid with two rows and two columns. In the top row, you would place one copy of the genotype of the first parent fly (GgEe), and in the bottom row, you would place one copy of the genotype of the second parent fly (ggee). In the first column, you would place one copy of the genotype of the first parent fly (GgEe), and in the second column, you would place one copy of the genotype of the second parent fly (ggee).
The resulting Punnett square would look like this:
| GgEe | ggee
--|------|-----
Gg| GgEe | Ggee
ee| ggEe | ggee
The phenotypic ratio of the original square would be 3:1, with 3 flies having vestigial wings and red eyes (GgEe), and 1 fly having vestigial wings and sepia eyes (ggee). This means that out of 4 offspring, 3 would have vestigial wings and red eyes, and 1 would have vestigial wings and sepia eyes.
Note that this is just the phenotypic ratio and does not take into account the probability of each genotype occurring. To calculate the probability of each genotype occurring, you would need to know the frequency of each genotype in the population.
What was found in the trap of the miller–urey apparatus that supports a hypothesis for the beginning of early life?.
An amino acid was discovered in the trap of the Miller-Urey apparatus, supporting the idea that early life began there.
They discovered that the volcano-like experiment had generated the greatest amount of organic molecules, including 22 amino acids, 5 amines, and numerous hydroxylated molecules, which may have been made by hydroxyl radicals produced by the electrified steam.
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During telephase, the
A. Nuclear membrane breaks down
B. Spindle fibers reappear
C. Chromosomes have reached opposite poles of the cell
D. Chromosomes replicate
Answer:
C. Chromosomes have reached opposite poles of the cell
Explanation:
Telophase is the phase of mitosis when the cell begins to split, forming nuclear membranes around each new set of chromosomes.
What would be the consequence of treating the vector, before ligation, with calf intestinal phosphatase?
A. It would prevent the plasmid's DNA from reversing polarity during ligation.
B. It would prevent the ends of the plasmids from being ligated.
C. It would ligate the ends of the plasmids.
D. It would reverse the polarity of plasmids' DNA
The consequence of treating the vector, before ligation, with calf intestinal phosphatase - It would prevent the ends of the plasmids from being ligated.
The correct option is B.
Unwanted DNA fragment chimaeras can also result from the ligation of DNA fragments into a vector. Treatment with calf intestinal alkaline phosphatase (CIAP) reduces the likelihood of noncontiguous fragments being ligated.
It would stop the polarity of the plasmid's DNA from switching during ligation.
Depending on the phosphatase you select, you should treat your digested backbone plasmid with a phosphatase before to the ligation stage or prior to the gel purification phase. Commonly utilised enzymes include CIP (calf alkaline phosphatase) and SAP (shrimp alkaline phosphatase).
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Determine whether each of the following is a characteristic of the life cycle of a seed plant, a seedless plant, or both. Sporophyte generation pollination sporophyte contains male and female reproductive structures single fertilization sperm cells transported by water to egg cells.
The formation of sporophytes can occur in both seed-bearing and seedless plants. While male and female gametes unite to generate a diploid zygote in seed plants, which then grows into a sporophyte.
Gametes, or sex cells, are produced during the sexual phase, known as the gametophyte generation, whereas spores are produced during the asexual phase, known as the sporophyte generation. The gametophyte is diploid (has two sets of chromosomes), whereas the sporophyte is haploid (has one set of chromosomes) (has a double set). The single-celled diploid zygote develops and divides normally (via mitosis), maintaining 2n chromosomes. The outcome is the sporophyte, a multicellular diploid creature (because at maturity it produces spores).
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Which type of reproduction occurs when a single unicellular organism divides into two new, genetically identical cells?
A) selfing
B) sexual reproduction
C) asexual reproduction
D) conjugation
Answer: c. asexual reproduction
Answer:
C
Explanation:
in exact binary fission
Which of the following is a radical?A:OH B:O C:H D:H2O
Answer: is A (OH)
explanation. OH. The hydroxyl radical is very stable as a dilute gas, but it decays very rapidly in the condensed phase. It is pervasive in some situations. ~ Wikepidia
All i know is that OH is a radical-
hope it helpls
write any three function of nervous system
It controls the voluntary and involuntary movement of the body.
It maintains the balance of the body.
It maintains the homeostasis of the body by doing functions such as thermal regulation, etc.
It mostly helps with things such as Emotions, Learning, And Movement.
All of the following conditions are associated with a deficiency of vitamin D EXCEPT ______.
-beriberi
-osteoporosis
-osteomalacia
-rickets
Vitamin D insufficiency is not linked to beriberi. People with thiamin deficiency in humans develop the sickness.
What Is beriberi caused by vitamin D deficiency?Loss of bone density brought on by a vitamin D deficiency can increase the risk of fractures and osteoporosis. Other illnesses can also be brought on by severe vitamin D deficiency. It may lead to rickets in kids. The rare condition rickets makes bones brittle and susceptible to fracture.Thiamine pyrophosphate, the biologically active form of the vitamin thiamine (also spelled thiamin), or vitamin B-1, is what is needed to treat beriberi, also known as thiamine deficiency.A lack of vitamin B1, commonly known as thiamine deficiency, results in the illness beriberi. People who consume mostly white rice or other highly refined carbohydrates in their diets frequently develop it in developing nations.To Learn more About beriberi refer To:
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VERY URGENT!!!!!!!!! WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST FOR CORRECT ANSWER!!!
A man with normal color vision married a woman with normal color vision whose father was colorblind. their chances of having a colorblind daughter is......
ALSO:
A man with normal color vision married a woman with normal color vision whose father was colorblind. their chances of having a colorblind SON is.....
a. 0%
b.50%
c.100%
Answer:
\
i got 200 wpm The chances of a couple having a colorblind daughter if the man has normal color vision and the woman has normal color vision whose father was colorblind are approximately 25%.
Color blindness is an inherited trait that is passed down from parents to their children through genes. The gene for color blindness is located on the X chromosome, which means that females have two copies of this gene (one from each parent) while males have only one copy. If a woman carries the gene for color blindness on one of her X chromosomes, she will not be colorblind herself because she has a normal copy of the gene on the other X chromosome. However, she can pass the gene on to her children, particularly her daughters.
In this case, the man has normal color vision and therefore does not carry the gene for color blindness. The woman has normal color vision, but her father was colorblind, which means that she carries the gene for color blindness on one of her X chromosomes. Therefore, there is a 50% chance that she will pass the gene on to her children. If she passes the gene on to a daughter, the daughter will have a 50% chance of being colorblind because she will inherit one copy of the gene from her mother and one copy from her father. Therefore, the chances of the couple having a colorblind daughter are approximately 25%.
The chances of a couple having a colorblind son if the man has normal color vision and the woman has normal color vision whose father was colorblind are approximately 0%.
As mentioned above, males have only one copy of the X chromosome and therefore only one copy of the gene for color blindness. If the man has normal color vision, he does not carry the gene for colorblindness and cannot pass it on to his children. If the woman carries the gene for color blindness on one of her X chromosomes, she will not pass it on to
Check all that are true statements regarding the effects of the parasympathetic division. The lack of divergence in the preganglionic axons prevents the mass activation that is seen In the sympathetic division. The effects of the parasympathetic division tend to be widespread Parasympathetic activity can affect only one group of organs without affecting all other organs The parasympathetic division is most active when the body must process nutrients and conserve energy.
The correct answer is D,C,A :The parasympathetic nervous system regulates homeostasis and the body during rest.
It regulates involuntary activities such as digestion; the parasympathetic nervous system can impact one organ while not affecting others.
Your autonomic nervous system's parasympathetic nervous system balances your sympathetic nervous system. While your sympathetic nervous system is in charge of your body's "fight or flight" reaction,
your parasympathetic nervous system is in charge of your body's response when you are at rest.
When the body is calm, resting, or eating, the parasympathetic nervous system is in charge of relaxation and digesting. After a stressful incident, it basically undoes the job of sympathetic division.
The parasympathetic nervous system slows breathing and heart rate while increasing digestion.
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Full Question :
Check all that are true statements regarding the effects of the parasympathetic division.
A The lack of divergence in the preganglionic axons prevents the mass activation that is seen In the sympathetic division.
B The effects of the parasympathetic division tend to be widespread
C Parasympathetic activity can affect only one group of organs without affecting all other organs
D The parasympathetic division is most active when the body must process nutrients and conserve energy.
Are all human cells capable of mitosis and cell divsion? How does this affect your body's abilty to repair itself? Support our answer with specific examples.
Yes, all human cells are capable of mitosis and cell division.
Mitosis is a process by which a single parent cell divides to make two new daughter cells. Each daughter cell receives a complete set of chromosomes from the parent cell. This process allows the body to grow and replace cells.
Any kind of internal or external damage leads a signal ti cell to divide at a faster rate so that the healing occurs.
Through the process of mitosis, an equal number of cells are produced. Repair of cells occurs only in somatic cells and mitosis tends to divide somatic cells
For example When cells are lost or when a tissue fragment breaks. Therefore, mitosis will produce a huge number of new cells over time to plug the hole and enlarge the tissue once more. This guarantees that the tissue is restored to normal function. Similar to how a wound heals You will notice that the blood gap closes within a few days and that new platelets and skin cells are developing to plug the hole and make additional skin. The forming of new cells of the skin is due to a continuous type of division which is mitosis
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