T cells directly attack pathogens or regulate other immune cells, providing humoral and cellular immunity.
What are b cells?
B cells are a type of white blood cells. B cells make a type of proteins called antibodies.
They are part of the immune system that develops from stem cells in the bone marrow. B cells are also called B lymphocyte.
The antibodies created by B cells go and bind to pathogens/foreign substances, like toxins, in order to neutralize them. For example, an antibody can bind to a virus, which will prevent it from entering a normal cell and causing infection in its wake.
The B cells then secrete cytokines in order to attract other immune cells.
Therefore, t cells directly attack pathogens or regulate other immune cells, providing humoral and cellular immunity.
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I don't know how to answer this questions please help me
Explanation 1-4:
In this experiment, the independent variable is the light intensity, which is being deliberately changed by the experimenter through the manipulation of the lamp's distance from the aquatic plant. The dependent variable is the rate of photosynthesis, which is being measured by the amount of gas produced by the plant in one minute. The control variable is the amount of gas produced, which is being held constant by measuring the gas production over a fixed time interval (one minute). Other factors that could affect the rate of photosynthesis, such as temperature, water quality, and the type of plant being used, should also be kept constant in order to isolate the effect of the independent variable on the dependent variable.
Explanation 5:
It is not possible for me to conclude anything about this experiment without additional information. The information provided in the question does not include any data or results from the experiment, so there is nothing that can be concluded at this time. In order to draw conclusions from an experiment, it is necessary to collect and analyze data, test hypotheses, and evaluate the results in the context of the research question or problem being investigated. Conclusions should be based on the evidence gathered during the experiment and should be carefully supported by the data and the experimenter's observations.
the cerebrum is divided into right and left portions known as cerebral hemispheres. convolution are wrikles or folds on the cerebrum and include:
The Gyri of the brain are the upward projections.
The Sulci of the cerebrum are the downward grooves.
Deep groove known as the median longitudinal fissure separates the left and right brain hemispheres.
The major distinguishable regions of the cerebral cortex that make up the surface of each hemisphere of the cerebrum are known as the lobes of the brain. The corpus callosum connects the two hemispheres, which have a nearly symmetrical structural arrangement.
The frontal, parietal, occipital lobe, and temporal lobes are the four lobes of the brain.The Central Sulcus divides the frontal lobe from the parietal lobe. A groove known as the Lateral Sulcus divides the frontal and temporal lobes.The majority of the physical region of the visual cortex is located in the occipital lobe, which is the mammalian brain's visual processing hub.
Cell bodies, synapses, and brain integration processes are located on the gray matter-covered outside of the cerebral cortex.
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which of the following lists represents the order of increasingly higher levels of organization of chromatin? which of the following lists represents the order of increasingly higher levels of organization of chromatin? nucleosome, 30-nm chromatin fiber, looped domain looped domain, 30-nm chromatin fiber, nucleosome 30-nm chromatin fiber, nucleosome, looped domain nucleosome, looped domain, 30-nm chromatin fiber request answer
Nucleosome, 30-nm chromatin fiber, looped domain- this represents order of increasingly higher levels of organization of chromatin.
What is chromatin?
Chromatin, found in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells, is a complex of proteins and DNA. The main function of chromatin is to pack long DNA molecules into more compact and denser structures.
Through chromatin, it is possible for a number of cell processes to occur, like transcription, DNA replication, DNA repair, cell division, and genetic recombination.
The basic unit of organization of chromatin is called the nucleosome. The nucleosome comprises of 147 bp of DNA that wrapped around a core of histone proteins.
So, therefore, nucleosome, 30-nm chromatin fiber, looped domain represents the order of increasingly higher levels of organization of chromatin.
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which of the following best describes the cells that result from the process of meiosis in mammals? responses they are diploid. they are diploid. they can be used to repair injuries. they can be used to repair injuries. they are genetically different from the parent cell. they are genetically different from the parent cell. they are genetically identical to all the other cells in the body. they are genetically identical to all the other cells in the body. they are identical to each other.
The cells that result from the process of meiosis in mammals are genetically different from the parent cell.
Meiosis is a pivotal event in mammalian gametogenesis, and meiotic errors result in infertility or aneuploidy. Recombination, chromosome pairing, and segregation are all important events in meiosis. Induction of genetically programmed double-strand breaks initiates recombination.
In mammals, meiosis refers to the cell divisions that result in gametes, sperm, and eggs. The number of chromosomes in meiosis is half that of somatic cell nuclei. In mammals, meiosis occurs in the germ line, testes, and ovaries. Meiosis is important for three reasons: it allows diploid organisms to reproduce sexually, it promotes genetic diversity, and it aids in the repair of genetic defects.
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Changes in air pressure are caused by differences in air temperature
above the earth, and the temperature of an air mass is determined by
its location. For example, air masses above oceans are typically cooler
than air masses above continents. Air temperature differences create
wind and cause pressure systems to develop. The wind moves
pressure systems and these systems tend to change as they pass over
mountains, oceans, and other areas.
HOW IS THIS RELATED TO MY RESEARCH QUESTION WHICH IS
WHAT EFFECT DOES THE AMOUNT OF AIR PRESSURE HAVE ON HOW FAR A SOCCER BALL TRAVELS WHEN KICKED?
Answer:
The amount of air pressure in the area where the soccer ball is kicked can affect its trajectory and distance traveled. If the air pressure is lower, the ball may travel further due to less resistance from the air. On the other hand, if the air pressure is higher, the ball may not travel as far due to increased resistance from the air. Therefore, understanding the relationship between air pressure and the distance a soccer ball travels when kicked can be useful in predicting and analyzing the performance of a soccer player or team.
Endocrine cells A) are modified connective tissue cells. B are a type of nerve cell. release their secretions directly into body fluids such as blood. D release their secretions onto an epithelial surface. (E) contain few vesicles.
Endocrine cells release their secretions directly into body fluids such as blood. The correct option is C.
What are endocrine cells?Endocrine cells are in charge of producing and releasing hormone molecules into the body. Endocrine cells are typically grouped together in organs referred to as endocrine glands.
Endocrine cells are typically arranged in cords or small clumps, with each cell closely associated with neighboring vessels.
Endocrine gland vessels have fenestrated endothelium to facilitate hormone diffusion into blood.
They are mostly found in two places: scattered in the gut mucosal epithelium or in more concentrated clusters, called islets, in the pancreas.
Mucosal cells, also known as intraepithelial endocrine or enteroendocrine cells, are typically open.
Thus, the correct option is C.
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the natural aging process has a more apparent effect on ______________ muscle fibers, which results in ______________ power.
The natural aging process has a more apparent effect on type 2 muscle fibers, which results in anaerobic power.
What is natural aging?Natural aging is defined as a natural process that develops at ambient temperature through the aging of precipitated solid solutions. We experience and define aging as the increasing degradation to these structures and functions.
A number of physical changes associated with aging include muscular loss, minor cognitive decline, and a diminished sense of taste and smell. Older persons may find it more challenging to achieve their dietary demands as a result of these changes.
Thus, the natural aging process has a more apparent effect on type 2 muscle fibers, which results in anaerobic power.
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before anyone really knew the structure of dan, erwin chargaff at columbia university had, for a long time measured the base
The ratios of adenine (A) to thymine (T) and guanine (G) to cytosine (C) in DNA are equal, according to Erwin Chargaff. The final DNA structure clearly displays this parity.
When Chargaff examined the base %, what did he learn?In 1947, Chargaff discovered that different species' DNA differed from one another in terms of the relative amounts of the A, C, G, and T bases. This molecular variety provided more proof that DNA might be the genetic substance.
What is the structural underpinning of Chargaff's laws?According to Chargaff's criteria, the amounts of guanine and cytosine should be equal in any species' or organism's DNA, and the amounts of adenine and thymine should be identical as well. The purine and pyrimidine bases should also be in a 1:1 stoichiometric ratio, meaning that A+G=T+C.
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Integral membrane proteins have different characteristics and functions than peripheral membrane proteins. Identify the statements that are properties of integral membrane proteins and those that are properties of peripheral membrane proteins. Integral membrane proteins Peripheral membrane proteins Answer Bank can move laterally (sideways) in the hydrophobic part of the membrane | found at the surface of the cell membrane reach through all or part of the membrane pump substances across the cell membrane
Integral membrane proteins can move laterally (sideways) in the hydrophobic part of the membrane | found at the surface of the cell membrane reach through all or part of the membrane pump substances across the cell membrane.
Integral proteins; essential proteins are embedded in membrane because maximum of necessary proteins generally include hydrophobic facet chain. those proteins are strongly connected to plasma membrane and that they may be only removed with the aid of the usage of organic detergents, non-polar solvent and denaturing agents, SMIM23
2) Peripheral proteins; these proteins do no longer engage with hydrophobic core of membrane. They normally have interaction with plasma membrane via lipid polar head or vital proteins, Actin.
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The function of the urinary bladder is to:
A serve as a reservoir for urine before it leaves the body.
B expel urine from the body, aided by the urethra.
C help concentrate the urine in periods of dehydration.
D do both A and B.
D) do both A and B.
The function of the urinary bladder is to, Serve as a reservoir for urine before it leaves the body and expels urine from the body, aided by the urethra. Thus Both A and B.
Urinary Bladder, The lower abdomen is home to this hollow triangle organ. Ligaments that are attached to the pelvic bones and other organs keep it in place. The bladder's walls serve as a reservoir as it unwinds and grows to store urine and expel urine through the urethra.
Urine leakage can be caused by urinary stones, which are hard, stone-like masses that form in the bladder. Disorders of the brain. Urinary incontinence can be brought on by conditions like multiple sclerosis, Parkinson's disease, a stroke, a brain tumor, or a spinal injury that disrupt the nerve signals that control the bladder.
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carbapenemases are produced by various organisms such as enterobacteriaceae, pseudomonas aeruginosa, and acinetobacter species. detecting the presence of carbapenemase activity in these organisms is important to prevent the spreading of resistant organisms. which of the following methods is used to detect the presence of carbapenemase-producing organisms?
A well-researched model organism for single-species biofilm development is Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Due to the propensity of these bacteria to build biofilms in Cystic fibrosis (CF) patients, this study also has direct medicinal relevance.
The multidrug-resistant organism Pseudomonas aeruginosa is known for its widespread distribution, innately evolved antibiotic resistance mechanisms, and association with serious infections such different sepsis syndromes.
A genetic condition called cystic fibrosis (CF) causes organs to produce sticky, viscous mucus, most frequently in the pancreas and the lungs. Viscous mucus obstructs the airways and makes breathing difficult in persons with cystic fibrosis. Control includes a regulated diet and techniques for emptying the lungs.
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Saved tetanus Drag the text blocks below into their correct order. concentrically No immediate movement of the bar is demonstrated despite the production of muscle force, which first demonstrates contraction. isometric When ready, he initiates neural recruitment of his ankle, knee, and hip extensors first by increasing the potentials to the lower-limb extensors of action motor units Voluntarily exerting more effort, additional recruited, which results in the production of greater forces. are frequency 46 eccentric Progressively increasing force production allows the force to exceed that of the bars inertia, and the ankle, knee, and hip extensors begin to contract summation twitches
Through the cycling of actin and myosin cross-bridges, a muscle fibre produces tension.
The muscle may lengthen, shorten, or stay the same when under tension. Although the word "contraction" connotes shortening, it actually refers to the creation of tension within a muscle fibre when used in relation to the muscular system. The variations in muscle length during contractions distinguish a variety of muscle contractions.
Muscles shrink during a concentric contraction, which is a type of muscle contraction used to overcome resistance. A concentric contraction of the biceps, for instance, would force the arm to bend at the elbow when carrying a heavy object, moving the object towards the shoulder. Sarcomere, muscle fibre, and muscle are all compressed by cross-bridge cycling.
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True or False, during the process of bone remodeling, osteoblasts resorb existing bone and osteoclasts form new bone.
False: during the process of bone remodeling, osteoblasts resorb existing bone and osteoclasts form new bone.
Hematopoietic cells called osteoclasts have the ability to resorb bone and take part in bone remodelling and bone marrow development.
Giant cells called osteoclasts have 10 to 20 nuclei.
By tying their surface integrins to a bone protein known as vitronectin, they form a tight bond with the bone matrix.
The osteoclast can create a microenvironment that promotes bone resorption thanks to the close apposition, which closes off a portion of the bone beneath it.
Multiple infoldings of the osteoclast cell membrane create a "ruffled border" in the osteoclast's vicinity to the bone.
Bone remodelling is a process that replaces discrete sections of old bone with freshly produced packets of proteinaceous matrix, maintaining bone strength and ion balance.
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The conversion of the potential energy of a proton gradient to a form more useful to the cell is achieved by coupling the movement of protons down their electrochemical gradient with the synthesis of ATP. This coupling is made possible by:ATP synthase.
By coordinating the flow of protons down an electrochemical gradient with the synthesis of ATP, the potential energy of a proton gradient is transformed into a form more beneficial to the cell. ATP synthase allows for this coupling.
Adenosine triphosphate (ATP), an organic compound, provides energy for a number of biological processes in living cells, including muscle contraction, transmission of nerve impulses, dissolution of condensate, and chemical synthesis. All known forms of life contain ATP, which is frequently referred to be the "molecular unit of currency" of intracellular energy transfer. It either transforms into adenosine monophosphate (AMP) or adenosine diphosphate (ADP) when absorbed via metabolic activities (AMP). There are various methods that restore ATP. The average person's body recycles as much ATP as they weigh each day. As a coenzyme and precursor to DNA and RNA, it also has several additional functions. The 9-nitrogen atom of an adenine forms a link with the 1′ carbon atom of a sugar (ribose), and the sugar's 5' carbon atom is then connected to a triphosphate group. In its many metabolic steps, the adenine and sugar groups remain intact, but the triphosphate is converted into di- and monophosphate, producing, respectively, the derivatives ADP and AMP.
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What would the progeny be if you crossed a homozygous rose combed hen with a homozygous pea combed roster? What are the phenotypic ratios that you would see in the F2 progeny?
The F1 progeny from this cross would all have pea combs. The F2 progeny would have a phenotypic ratio of 3:1—three pea combed chickens for every one rose combed chicken.
The progeny of a homozygous rose combed hen crossed with a homozygous pea combed rooster would be a combination of both rose and pea combs. The phenotypic ratio of the F2 progeny would be 3 rose combs: 1 pea comb.
To explain this ratio, we can look at the Punnett square for this cross. The Punnett square for this cross would look like this:
Hen (RR) | Rooster (PP)
-------------------
R | R
R | P
In this Punnett square, the hen is homozygous for the rose comb gene (RR) and the rooster is homozygous for the pea comb gene (PP). The offspring, therefore, would all be heterozygous (Rp) for the rose and pea comb genes.
The F2 progeny would then be a 3:1 ratio of rose combs to pea combs. This is because the heterozygous (Rp) offspring would all have a dominant rose comb allele and a recessive pea comb allele. The offspring would have a 3:1 chance of inheriting the dominant rose comb gene,
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each protein from particular arrangements of the 20 common amino acids; this means that for a chain of just seven amino acids, there are over [ select ] possibilities!
Each protein from particular arrangements of the 20 common amino acids and this means that for a chain of just seven amino acids, there are over one-tenth of the possibilities.
Amino acids are organic compounds that contain each amino and acid practical teams. though many amino acids exist in nature, far and away the foremost necessary square measure the alpha-amino acids, that comprise proteins. solely twenty two alpha amino acids seem within the ordination
A chain of amino acids is known as petide bonds which are those bonds that connect aminoalkanoic acids; created once the acid cluster of 1 amino acid is joined with the nitrogen-containing alkane series cluster of another amino acid through condensation.
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Suppose gene A on the left chromosome is damaged and no longer functions. What form of the trait would show? Why?
An X-linked recessive gene almost never has a counterpart on the Y chromosome. Therefore excessive traits on the X chromosome
What is X-linked recessive chromosome?
Genetic disorders connected to mutations in genes on the X chromosome are referred to as having X-linked recessive inheritance. Because he contains just one X chromosome, a guy who carries this mutation will be impacted. A girl who carries a gene mutation in one X chromosome but has a normal gene on the other X chromosome usually has no symptoms. The disorder can only affect females (who have two X chromosomes) if there is a mutation on both X chromosomes. The daughters are often unaffected and are known as carriers because one of their X chromosomes has the mutation but the other one is normal if only the father or mother has the mutant X-linked gene. Sons will be impacted if their mother carries the faulty X-linked gene.
Hence, all about X chromosome
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Under optimal conditions the number of DNA molecules amplified from a single molecule in a PCR after 30 amplification cycles will be
A) 30
B) 30 x 2
C) 30^2
D) 2^30
E) 30^30
Under optimal conditions the number of DNA molecules amplified from a single molecule in a PCR after 30 amplification cycles will be (d) 2^30.
The sample is heated so that the DNA denatures, or splits into two pieces of single-stranded DNA, prior to utilizing PCR to amplify a section of DNA. Also, "Taq polymerase" , an enzyme makes two new DNA strands using the old and previous strands as templates for help. The outcome of this process is the duplication of the original DNA, with one old and one new strand of DNA present in each of the new molecules.
After then, each of these strands may be used to make two other copies, and so on. More than one billion precise duplicates of the original DNA segment are produced when the cycle of denaturing and synthesizing new DNA is repeated up to 30 or 40 times.
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The first correlation below shows the relationship between types of cell division. Below is the correlation that shows the types of cells that each type of cell division produced. The correct answer is the "Gamete Cell."
The type of cells that each type of cell division produced is the Gamete cells.
A cell has 3 elements: the cell membrane, the nucleus, and the cytoplasm. The nucleus is a structure inside the cell that incorporates the nucleolus and the maximum of the cellular DNA. it's also in which maximum RNA is made.
Cells are the basic constructing blocks of all residing things. They form shapes for the body, absorb nutrients from meals, convert the vitamins into electricity, and assist in specialized functions.
Cells provide shape and function for all dwelling matters, from microorganisms to people. Cells residence the organic equipment that makes the proteins, chemical substances, and indicators chargeable for the whole thing that occurs interior our bodies.
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devise a method for determining the molecular weight of the fragment you amplified and describe that method. make sure to think about the information that is available by examining your gel.
DNA ladder, a collection of standards used to determine the size of DNA utilized, is used in this case's agarose gel electrophoresis procedure.
The DNA ladder is placed next to the visualizing DNA pieces. Assume that the DNA next to the number 300 base pairs on the ladder is this size. These are the established criteria used to estimate DNA or RNA size. We can use 2% of agricultural sugar to run DNA fragments up to 500 base pairs for a range. This category of size includes the majority of the amplified DNA.An approximate size of a molecule run on a gel during electrophoresis is determined using a molecular-weight size marker, also known as a protein ladder, DNA ladder, or RNA ladder. This method is based on the idea that molecular weight is inversely proportional to migration rate through a gel matrix. Markers can therefore be employed in gel electrophoresis to assess the size of the other fragments using a logarithmic scale (providing the fragment sizes of the marker are known).To know more about electrophoresis check the below link:
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The tryptophan operon is a repressible operon that is
turned off only when glucose is present in the growth medium.
turned off whenever tryptophan is added to the growth medium.
turned on only when glucose is present in the growth medium.
turned on only when tryptophan is present in the growth medium.
permanently turned on.
The tryptophan operon is a repressible operon that is turned off whenever tryptophan is added to the growth medium.
The tryptophan operon is a collection of genes that are transcribed together and encode the enzymes that produce tryptophan in bacteria. The trp operon was discovered in many other bacteria after being discovered in Escherichia coli. The tryptophan binds to the trp repressor, causing it to change shape and become active (DNA-binding). The trp repressor attaches to the operator, preventing RNA polymerase from binding to the promoter and thus preventing operon transcription.
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Below is a pedigree of a family with a disorder of unknown inheritance. Note that individual 11 is known to have no affected alleles. Superscript a indicates the affected allele for sex-linked traits. What are the possible genotypes of individual 1?
a. Aa
b. X^A X^a
c. X^A X^A
d. aa
c. X^a X^a
d. AA
Below is a pedigree of a family with a disorder of unknown inheritance. Note that individual 11 is known to have no affected alleles.
X^A X^a and X^A X^A are the possible genotypes of individual 1.
An autosomal pedigree depicts the transmission of all qualities other than the sex-linked traits, whereas a sex-linked pedigree depicts the transmission of sex-linked traits among generations. In general, the autosomal pattern of inheritance and the pattern of inheritance of sex-linked traits are highly dissimilar. Because males have an X and a Y chromosome, even a single allele would result in the appearance of a trait in them, the sex-related traits actually occur more frequently in males than in females. Usually, carriers are females.
Using pedigrees, one can determine how a given trait is passed down through a family. A trait's existence or absence as it relates to the link between parents, children, and siblings can be seen in pedigrees. Pedigrees use standardized symbols to denote family members and connections. We can ascertain genotypes, recognize phenotypes, and forecast how a trait will be passed down in the future by studying a pedigree. A pedigree's information can be used to assess an allele's mode of inheritance, such as whether it is dominant, recessive, autosomal, or sex-linked.
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The tissue plasminogen activator (TPA) is a substance released from damaged endothelial cells, which helps convert plasminogen into plasmin to start the clotting process.
The glycoprotein activator (tPA), a component of the fibrinolytic system, converts plasminogen from plasminogen to plasmin.
What use does plasminogen serve?The primary enzyme that breaks down fibrin clots is plasmin, and its zymogen is called plasminogen (PLG). PLG preferentially interacts at cell surfaces where, in contrast to the reaction in solution, it is more effectively activated by PLG activators. This is in addition to its affinity and activating on fibrin clots.
Is plasminogen a factor in clotting?The primary proteolytic process responsible for breaking down blood clots is the plasminogen (Plg) system. The main manifestation of thrombotic disease is either increased clot generation or impaired clot breakdown.
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nk cells derive from the same stem cells as b and t cells. these cells differentiate self from nonself through choose one: a. tlrs. b. mhcs. c. macs. d. mamps.
NK cells are derived from the same stem cells as b and t cells, these cells differentiate self from nonself through (b) MHCs.
The Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) is an essential component in the immune system's ability to distinguish among self and non-self antigens. MHC limits how an antigen is presented to the outside.
The remaining choices are incorrect due to the fact that they do not play a role in the mentioned discrimination but rather play different roles. The membrane attack complex, often known as MACs, is created in the complement pathway. Its purpose is to eliminate antigens; it does not distinguish across self and nonself antigens. Similar to this, TLRs (toll-like receptors) play a receptor role in the innate immune system and do not distinguish among self and nonself.
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which of the following is not true? prokaryotic cells and viruses do not use enzymes enzymes only work inside of cells enzymes are used up after catalyzing a reaction most enzymes are proteins
The following statements are untrue: Prokaryotic cells and viruses do not use enzymes; enzymes are exhausted after catalysing a process, and enzymes exclusively function inside cells.
Enzymes can be utilised again to speed up the same reaction because they don't get damaged or depleted during the reactions they catalyse. Enzymes are incredibly efficient because each one is very specialised for the chemical reaction it catalyses. One way to think of enzymes is as metabolic process catalysts. As they are not involved in the actual reaction but rather offer a different reaction pathway with lower activation energy, catalysts are not depleted throughout reactions.
The following claims are therefore untrue: Enzymes are exhausted after catalysing a reaction. Enzymes exclusively function inside cells. Prokaryotic cells and viruses do not require enzymes.
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an individual who is the offspring of two closely related parents will likely have homozygous alleles identical by . please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button. answer choices descent domains state sequence
An individual who is the offspring of two closely related parents will likely have homozygous alleles identical by descent.
An allele is certainly one of two or greater variations of DNA sequence (a single base or a segment of bases) at a given genomic vicinity. An person inherits alleles, one from each discern, for any given genomic place wherein such variant exists. If the two alleles are the equal, the person is homozygous for that allele. If the alleles are exclusive, the man or woman is heterozygous.
"Allele" is the phrase that we use to describe the alternative form or variations of a gene. humans inherit one allele for each autosomal gene from every discern, and we generally tend to lump the alleles into classes. usually, we call them either regular or wild-type alleles, or ordinary, or mutant alleles.
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adeneine occurs in about the same percentage as in a sample of dna cytosine occurs in about the same percantage as in a sample of dna so that a always pairs with ____ and c always pairs with ___
Adenine and cytosine always occur in about the same percentage in a sample of DNA, so that A always pairs with T (Thymine) and C always pairs with G (Guanine).
This complementary base pairing is essential for the process of DNA replication and is essential for the functioning of living organisms.
Adenine and Cytosine are two of the four nucleobases that make up the molecules of DNA. They are commonly referred to as A and C and are important components of genetic information. Adenine and Cytosine always occur in about the same percentage in a sample of DNA, which means that A always pairs with T and C always pairs with G.
A and T are referred to as complementary base pairs because they bond together and form a hydrogen bond. The hydrogen bond is created by the partial positive charge of the A and the partial negative charge of the T. A and T can only pair together because they fit perfectly and form a stable bond. In the same way, C and G form a complementary base pair and also form a stable bond. The G has a partial negative charge and the C has a partial positive charge that allows them to bond together.
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The point where the axon terminal synapses with the muscle fiber sarcolemma is called the _____________. a. sarcolemma junction b. active site c. neuromuscular junction d. membrane receptor
The point where the axon terminal synapses with the muscle fiber sarcolemma is called the neuromuscular junction.
The neuromuscular junction (NMJ) is a highly specialized synapse between a motor neuron nerve terminal and its muscle fiber that are responsible for converting electrical impulses generated by the motor neuron into electrical activity in the muscle fibers. On arrival of the motor nerve action potential, calcium enters the presynaptic terminal, which leads to the release of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACh).
ACh crosses the synaptic gap and binds to ACh receptors tightly clustered on the surface of the muscle fiber, this leads to the endplate potential which initiates the muscle action potential that results in muscle contraction.
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the energy we expend to maintain respiration and circulation is known as the energy cost of physical activity. True or False
The energy cost of physical activity refers to the energy required to maintain our breathing and blood circulation. False.
Energy expenditure describes how much a person uses during physical activity and to maintain vital bodily processes like respiration, circulation, and digestion. Even when the body is at rest, it needs energy (kilojoules) to keep all of its systems running smoothly. This is known as the basal metabolic rate (BMR) (such as breathing, keeping the heart beating to circulate blood, growing and repairing cells and adjusting hormone levels). The energy used up while movement is known as physical activity energy expenditure, or PAEE. The thermic effect of food, sometimes referred to as diet-induced energy expenditure, is connected to food digestion, absorption, and storage.
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Which of the following processes does NOT involve redox (i.e oxidation/reduction) reactions? Select only ONE answer choice. O Photosystem II and its affiliated processes Photosystem and its affiliated processes O Synthesis of ATP by ATP synthase Electron transport chain in photosynthesis Calvin Cycle
(C)Synthesis of ATP by ATP synthase is the process which does not involve redox reaction.
Both photosystems I and II are involved in the reactions that are light-dependent. When light strikes either photosystem, electrons are released. Numerous carrier molecules transfer the electrons that PSII emits into the electron transport chain. Because of the uneven distribution of the [tex]H^+[/tex] ions during the transit of the electron transport chain, ATP is created. The electrons travel from the ETC to PS I. As the electrons from PS I reach the NADP, they combine to produce NADPH. Reduction is the transfer of electrons, and oxidation is the donation of electrons. Thus, redox processes are involved in both photosystems.
Reduction and oxidation processes occur even during the Calvin cycle. Complexes in ETC involve redox processes. However, redox processes are not involved in the ATP synthases' production of ATP. This is due to the fact that ATP is created when ATP synthases join ADP and the phosphate group to create ATP. Through phosphorylation, it is created.
Thus, Redox reaction is not involved in Synthesis of ATP by ATP synthase process.
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Corrected Question:
Which of the following processes does NOT involve redox (i.e oxidation/reduction) reactions? Select only ONE answer choice.
(A)Photosystem II and its affiliated processes.
(B)Photosystem and its affiliated processes.
(C)Synthesis of ATP by ATP synthase.
(D)Electron transport chain in photosynthesis Calvin Cycle.