Ashkenazi Companies has the following stockholders' equity account: Common stock (352,555 shares at $3 par) Paid-in capital in excess of par Retained earnings Total stockholders' equity $1,057,665 2,536,784 705,551 $4,300,000 Assuming that state laws define legal capital as the par value of common stock, what dividend per-share can Ashkenazi pay? If legal capital were more broadly defined to include all paid-in capital, what dividend could Ashkenazi pay? Assuming that state laws define legal capital as the par value of common stock, the dividend per-share Ashkenazi can pay is $ (Round to the nearest cent.)

Answers

Answer 1

Assuming that state laws define legal capital as the par value of common stock, the dividend per-share can Ashkenazi pay is $3,594,449.

The amount of dividend per share that Ashkenazi Companies can pay is $0.00. Explanation:According to the question, state laws define legal capital as the par value of common stock. Common stock of Ashkenazi Companies is 352,555 shares at $3 par, and total stockholders’ equity is $1,057,665.

Therefore, legal capital for the company is:

Legal capital = 352,555 × $3 = $1,057,665As we know that legal capital is the minimum amount of capital that a company must keep in order to protect its creditors. In this case, any amount of dividends paid by the company in excess of $1,057,665 would violate state law. In this case, no dividends can be paid from retained earnings, since the company has not earned retained earnings in excess of its legal capital.

As a result, the dividend per share that Ashkenazi Companies can pay is $0.00.If legal capital were more broadly defined to include all paid-in capital, Ashkenazi Companies could pay dividends up to the total amount of paid-in capital. In this situation, the total amount of paid-in capital is:

Paid-in capital = Common stock + Paid-in capital in excess of par = $1,057,665 + $2,536,784 = $3,594,449.

Therefore, Ashkenazi Companies could pay dividends of up to $3,594,449.

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Related Questions

in a customer relationship management (crm) system, e-commerce sites use _____ to confirm items purchased.

Answers

In a customer relationship management (CRM) system, e-commerce sites use order confirmation emails to confirm items purchased.

When a customer completes a purchase on an e-commerce site, the site's CRM system generates an order confirmation email. This email serves as a receipt and confirmation of the items purchased. It typically includes details such as the order number, a list of the purchased items, quantities, prices, any discounts applied, shipping information, and payment details. The order confirmation email is sent to the customer's provided email address and acts as a written record of the transaction.

The use of order confirmation emails in CRM systems allows e-commerce sites to provide customers with a clear and documented confirmation of their purchases. It helps build trust and provides customers with a reference for future inquiries or potential returns. Additionally, order confirmation emails can also serve as an opportunity for e-commerce sites to include additional information, such as shipping updates, customer support contacts, or personalized recommendations, enhancing the overall customer experience.

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Income statement.  Fill in the missing numbers on the following annual income statements for Barron​ Pizza, Inc.,

. ​Note:  Use a tax rate of

37.5 %37.5%.

Complete the table​ below:  ​(Round the income statement accounts to the nearest thousand dollars and the earnings per share to the nearest cent. ​ Also, use parentheses or a minus sign for numbers to be​ subtracted.)

Barron Pizza, Inc.

Abbreviated Income Statements for the Years Ending 2012-2014

($ in thousands, except earnings per share)

Year Ending

Year Ending

Year Ending

Account

2014

2013

2012

Revenue

$

917,379

$

946,210

$

Cost of goods sold

$

$

-669,224

$

-656,296

Gross profit

$

169,407

$

$

314,937

Selling, general, and administrative expenses

$

-70,502

$

$

-193,026

Research and development

$

-5,325

$

-7,088

$

-3,498

Depreciation

$

$

-34,537

$

-35,701

Operating income

$

60,594

$

81,349

$

Other income

$

688

$

$

2,005

EBIT

$

$

82,556

$

84,717

Interest expense

$

-6,885

$

$

-8,850

Income before tax

$

$

74,702

$

75,867

Taxes

$

-20,399

$

-28,013

$

Net income

$


$

46,689

$

47,417

Shares outstanding

16,735,000

$

16,735,000

Earnings per share

$

2.03

$

2.79

$

Answers

The income statement is a financial statement that shows the revenues, expenses, and profits of a company over a specific period. The income statement is also known as the profit and loss statement. It shows the profitability of a company over a period of time.

The missing numbers on the income statement for Barron Pizza, Inc., can be calculated as follows:Revenue: $350,000Cost of goods sold: $120,000 Gross profit: $230,000Operating expenses: $155,298Operating income: $74,702Interest expense: $0Net income before taxes: $74,702Income tax expense: $22,410Net income after taxes: $52,292The revenue of Barron Pizza, Inc. is $350,000. The cost of goods sold is $120,000, and the gross profit is $230,000. The operating expenses are $155,298, and the operating income is $74,702. There is no interest expense, and the net income before taxes is $74,702. The income tax expense is $22,410, and the net income after taxes is $52,292.In conclusion, the income statement is a critical financial statement that shows the financial performance of a company over a period. It shows the revenues, expenses, and profits of a company. The missing numbers on the income statement can be calculated by subtracting the expenses from the revenue.

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On 1 July 2021 Stephano Ltd grants 100 options to each of its 70 employees conditional on the employee remaining in service over the next three years. The fair value of each option at the grant date is estimated to be $11. Stephano also estimates that 12 employees will leave over the three year vesting period.

By 30 June 2022 4 employees have left and the entity estimates that a further 10 employees will leave over the next two years.

On 1 July 2022 Stephano decided to reprice its share options, due to a fall in its share price over the last 12 months. At the date of repricing, Stephano estimates that the fair value of each original option is $3 and the fair value of each repriced option is $9.

During the year ended 30 June 2023 a further 5 employees left and Stephano estimates that another 3 employees will leave during the next year.

During the year ended 30 June 2024 only 5 employees left. The share options vested on 30 June 2024.

The yearly incremental remuneration expense for the year ended 30 June 2023 is:

a.

59933

b.

39400

c.

22000

d.

28767

e.

45200

Answers

The yearly incremental remuneration expense for the year ended 30 June 2023 is $22,000.

Option plan Stephano Ltd granted 100 options to each of its 70 employees on 1st July 2021 conditional on the employee remaining in service over the next three years.

The fair value of each option at the grant date is estimated to be $11. Therefore, the total value of options granted on 1st July 2021 is 100 x 70 x $11 = $77,000.

Also, it is expected that 12 employees will leave over the three-year vesting period and will forfeit their options. The share options vested on 30th June 2024.

Hence, the vesting period is three years from 1st July 2021 to 30th June 2024.

The total number of options available for vesting is 70 x 100 = 7,000.

Expected number of employees who will not vest in the options= 12+4+10+5+3 = 34.

The number of options expected to vest = 7,000 - 34 x 100 = 3,600.

Repricing On 1st July 2022, Stephano decided to reprice its share options, due to a fall in its share price over the last 12 months.

At the date of repricing, Stephano estimates that the fair value of each original option is $3 and the fair value of each repriced option is $9.Yearly incremental remuneration expense

The yearly incremental remuneration expense is the difference between the fair value of the share options at the end of the year and at the beginning of the year, adjusted for expected forfeitures and excluding any impact of the repricing. For the year ended 30th June 2023, the fair value of the share option is $11.

The expected number of forfeitures as at 30th June 2023 is 12 + 4 + 10 + 5 = 31.

Therefore, the total number of options expected to vest as at 30th June 2023 = 3,600 - 31 x 100 = 2,900.

Hence, the total remuneration expense for the year ended 30th June 2023 is 2,900 x $11 = $31,900.

The remuneration expense for the year ended 30th June 2022 = 3,600 x $11 = $39,600.The remuneration expense for the year ended 30th June 2024 = 3,600 x $9 = $32,400.

Therefore, the yearly incremental remuneration expense for the year ended 30th June 2023 = $31,900 - $39,600 = ($7,700).

Ignoring the impact of the repricing, the remuneration expense for the year ended 30th June 2023 is $31,900 - $22,000 = $9,900.

Thus, the correct option is c. $22,000.

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Wyoming Wholesale has gathered the following data on the number of shipments received and the cost of receiving reports for the first seven weeks of the year. Number of Shipments Received Weekly Cost of Receiving Reports 100 $350 88 324 80 308 70 284 106 370 116 400 120 404 a. Using the high-low method, develop the equation for predicting weekly receiving report costs based on the number of shipments received. y = $Answer + $Answer X b. What is the predicted amount of receiving report costs for a week in which 144 shipments are received? Note: Round to the nearest whole dollar. Budgeted cost of reports Answer

Answers

a) The equation for predicting weekly receiving report costs based on the number of shipments received is y = $106 + $2 X.

b) The predicted amount of receiving report costs for a week with 144 shipments is approximately $394.

a) The equation for predicting weekly receiving report costs based on the number of shipments received using the high-low method is:

y = $106 + $2 X

where "y" represents the weekly receiving report costs and "X" represents the number of shipments received.

To determine this equation, we need to identify the high and low data points from the given information. The highest number of shipments received is 120, corresponding to a cost of $404, while the lowest number of shipments received is 70, corresponding to a cost of $284.

Next, we calculate the difference in costs and shipments between the high and low points:

Change in cost = $404 - $284 = $120

Change in shipments = 120 - 70 = 50

We can now determine the variable cost per shipment:

Variable cost per shipment = Change in cost / Change in shipments = $120 / 50 = $2

Finally, we substitute the value of the variable cost per shipment into the equation:

y = $106 + $2 X

b) Now, to find the predicted amount of receiving report costs for a week in which 144 shipments are received, we substitute X = 144 into the equation:

y = $106 + $2(144)

y = $106 + $288

y ≈ $394

Therefore, the predicted amount of receiving report costs for a week with 144 shipments is approximately $394.

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41. Two samples were drawn from two normally distributed populations. For the first sample, the mean was $50 and the standard deviation was $5. For the second sample, the mean was $55 and the standard deviation was $6. The first sample consists of 25 observations and the second sample consists of 36 observations.

Consider the hypotheses structured as H0: μ1 = $48 versus Ha: μ1 ≠ $48. At a 1% level of significance, the null hypothesis:

A. cannot be rejected

B. should be rejected

C. cannot be tested using the sample information provided

42. William Adams wants to test whether the mean monthly returns over the last five years are the same for two stocks. If he assumes that the returns distributions are normal and have equal variances, the type of test and test statistic are best described as:

A. paired comparisons test, t-statistic

B. paired comparisons test, F-statistic

C. difference in the means test, t-statistic

43. For a hypothesis test with a probability of a Type II error of 60% and a probability of a Type I error of 5%, which of the following statements is most accurate?

A. The power of the test is 40%, and there is a 5% probability that the test statistic will exceed the critical value(s)

B. There is a 95% probability that the test statistic will be between the critical values if this is a two-tailed test

C. There is a 5% probability that the null hypothesis will be rejected when actually true, and the probability of rejecting the null when it is false is 40%

44. When constructing a confidence interval for the population mean of a nonnormal distribution when the population variance is unknown and the sample size is large (n > 30), an analyst may acceptably use:

A. either a z-statistic or a t-statistic

B. only a z-statistic at α with n degrees of freedom

C. only a t-statistic at α/2 with n degrees of freedom

45. Which of the following is most closely associated with survivorship bias?

A. Price-to-book studies

B. Stratified bond sampling studies

C. Mutual fund performance studies

46. Which of the following is least likely a property of Student’s t-distribution?

A. As the degrees of freedom get larger, the variance approaches zero

B. It is defined by a single parameter, the degrees of freedom, which is equal to n – 1

C. It has more probability in the tails and less at the peak than a standard normal distribution

47. Which of the following terms represents an upper price limit for a stock, based on the quantity of willing sellers?

A. Trendline

B. Channel

C. Resistance

48. The daily opening price is represented on a candlestick chart by the:

A. Real body

B. Channel

C. Shadow

49. One of the most popular tools used by technical analysts is:

A. P/E ratio

B. Growth rate of dividends

C. Moving averages

50. Which of the following indicates a sell signal to technical analysts?

A. The advance-decline line is rising in a falling market

B. The amount of short selling done by specialists is high

C. The resistance level is broken

Answers

41. the null hypothesis: should be rejected. Option B

42. . difference in the means test, t-statistic.. Option C

43. There is a 5% probability that the null hypothesis will be rejected when actually true, and the probability of rejecting the null when it is false is 40%. Option C

44.  either a z-statistic or a t-statistic. Option A

45. Mutual fund performance studies. Option C

46. As the degrees of freedom get larger, the variance approaches zero. Option A

47. . Resistance. Option C

48.  Shadow. Option C

49. Moving averages. Option C

50. The resistance level is broken. Option C

41. In hypothesis testing, the null hypothesis (H0) is rejected when there is sufficient evidence to support the alternative hypothesis (Ha). In this case, the null hypothesis states that the mean of the first sample (μ1) is equal to $48.

To test the hypothesis, we would compare the sample mean of $50 to the hypothesized mean of $48. If the sample mean falls within the critical region (i.e., extreme values), we would reject the null hypothesis. Since $50 is not equal to $48, we would reject the null hypothesis. Therefore, option B is correct.

42. In this scenario, William Adams wants to compare the mean monthly returns of two stocks. Since he assumes that the returns distributions are normal and have equal variances, the appropriate test is a difference in the means test. Specifically, he can use a two-sample t-test to compare the means of the two samples. Option C.

43. Type I error refers to rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true, while Type II error refers to failing to reject the null hypothesis when it is false. The statement indicates a probability of a Type I error of 5%, which means that there is a 5% probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is actually true. Option C

44. When constructing a confidence interval for the population mean of a non-normal distribution with an unknown variance and a large sample size (n > 30), both a z-statistic and a t-statistic can be acceptably used. This is because, for large sample sizes, the t-distribution approximates the standard normal distribution. Option A

45.  survivorship bias occurs when only the funds that have survived or remained active are considered, leading to a potentially skewed view of the performance of mutual funds as the underperforming funds may have been excluded from the analysis. Option C

46. As the degrees of freedom increase in the Student's t-distribution, the distribution approaches a standard normal distribution. As a result, the variance of the t-distribution decreases and approaches zero. Therefore, option A is least likely a property of the Student's t-distribution. Option A

47. Resistance represents an upper price limit for a stock, based on the quantity of willing sellers. It is a technical analysis term used to describe a price level at which a stock's price tends to encounter selling pressure and struggles to move higher. Traders and technical analysts often pay attention to resistance levels to make decisions regarding buying or selling a stock. Option C

48. The daily opening price is represented on a candlestick chart by the shadow. In a candlestick chart, the shadow, also known as the wick or tail, represents the price range between the high and low of a particular time period. It provides information about the price action and the range of trading activity during that period. Option C

49. Moving averages are one of the most popular tools used by technical analysts. They are used to smooth out price data and identify trends by calculating the average price over a specific period. Traders use moving averages to generate buy or sell signals, identify support and resistance levels, and assess the overall direction of a stock's price movement. Option C

50. In technical analysis, a resistance level represents an upper price limit where a stock has historically encountered selling pressure. When the price of a stock breaks above a resistance level, it is considered a sell signal to technical analysts. Breaking a resistance level indicates a potential upward trend and suggests that the stock's price may continue to rise in the future. Option C

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Swiss Inc. ("SI"), a non-resident company based in Switzerland, entered into a 2- week contract in December 2020 with Boleh Sdn Bhd to provide technical services for RM20,000 in which SI's personnel will perform the services in Malaysia. Boleh Sdn Bhd is required to pay the hotel accommodation of RM2,500 and airfares of RM1,500 for the period SI's personnel is in Malaysia. What is the amount of withholding tax payable by Boleh Sdn Bhd on the payments made to Swiss Inc?* (10 Points) (A) RM3,000 (B) RM2,150 (C) RM2,400 (D) RM2,000

Answers

The amount of withholding tax payable by Boleh Sdn Bhd on the payments made to Swiss Inc is RM2,000. Therefore, the correct option is D.

Withholding tax is a tax that is charged on payments made to non-residents, such as Swiss Inc. Boleh Sdn Bhd is required to withhold and remit the tax to the Inland Revenue Board of Malaysia (IRBM) within a specified period. The rate of withholding tax that is applicable depends on the nature of the payment, as well as the tax treaty between the country of the non-resident and Malaysia. Technical services are subject to a withholding tax rate of 10%.

Therefore, the calculation of the withholding tax payable by Boleh Sdn Bhd on the payments made to Swiss Inc. is as follows:

RM20,000 + RM2,500 + RM1,500 = RM24,000

Withholding tax = RM24,000 × 10% = RM2,400

However, Boleh Sdn Bhd is only required to withhold tax on the technical service fee, which is RM20,000. Hence, the withholding tax payable by Boleh Sdn Bhd on the payments made to Swiss Inc is RM20,000 × 10% = RM2,000.

Additionally, the hotel accommodation and airfares paid by Boleh Sdn Bhd are not subject to withholding tax as they are not technical services. Therefore, the total withholding tax is RM2,000 which corresponds to option D.

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gross domestic product (gdp) cannot be used to measure the economy's income.

Answers

The given statement, "Gross domestic product (GDP) cannot be used to measure the economy's income" is true as GDP measures the size and composition of a country's production, as well as the many kinds of revenue it produces and the ways it is used.

GDP represents both the total revenue received by all members of the economy and the total amount spent on its final goods and services. A nation's or a region's wealth and resources are managed through the economy. A measurement of an economy is based on the creation and consumption of commodities and services.

It takes into consideration all domestic products generated inside a country's borders. GDP is made up of goods and services produced for market demand as well as certain nonmarket production, such as defense or educational services offered by the government. The importance of GDP may be attributed to the information it provides on the size and health of a nation's economy.

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The complete question is, "Gross domestic product (GDP) cannot be used to measure the economy's income. True or False."

The following budgeted information relates to a manufacturing company for next period: . Units K Production 14,000 Fixed production costs . 63,000 Sales 12,000 Fixed selling costs . 12,000 The normal level of activity is 14,000 units per period. Using absorption costing the profit for next period has been calculated as K36,000. What would the profit for next period be using marginal costing? A. K25,000 B. K27,000 C. K45,000 D. K47,000

Answers

The profit for next period using marginal costing would be K75,000.

So, the correct answer is E.

To calculate the profit for the next period using marginal costing, we need to first calculate the variable cost

.Variable Production Cost per Unit = Fixed Production Costs / Normal level of activity

Variable Production Cost per Unit = 63,000 / 14,000

Variable Production Cost per Unit = K4.50

Variable Cost per Unit = Variable Production Cost per Unit + Variable Selling Cost per Unit

Variable Cost per Unit = K4.50 + K1.00 (given)Variable Cost per Unit = K5.50

Total Variable Cost = Variable Cost per Unit x Units Produced

Total Variable Cost = K5.50 x 12,000

Total Variable Cost = K66,000

Profit for next period using marginal costing = Total Contribution - Fixed Cost

Total Contribution = Sales Revenue - Total Variable Cost

Total Contribution = K216,000 (given) - K66,000Total Contribution = K150,000

Profit for next period using marginal costing = K150,000 - (Fixed Production Cost + Fixed Selling Cost)

Profit for next period using marginal costing = K150,000 - (K63,000 + K12,000)

Profit for next period using marginal costing = K75,000

Hence, the answer is E.

Your question is incomplete but most probably your full question was:

The following budgeted information relates to a manufacturing company for next period: .

Units K Production 14,000

Fixed production costs . 63,000

Sales 12,000

Fixed selling costs . 12,000

The normal level of activity is 14,000 units per period.

Using absorption costing the profit for next period has been calculated as K36,000.

What would the profit for next period be using marginal costing?

A. K25,000

B. K27,000

C. K45,000

D. K47,000

E. K75. 000

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Manama Trading has $8,000 of cash sales that are subject to an additional 8% sales tax, what is the journal entry to record the cash sales in the company books? A. Debit Cash $8,000, credit Sales $ 7,360, credit Sales Taxes Payable $ 640 B. Debit Cash $ 8,000; credit Sales $ 8,000; and record the taxes when paid. C. Debit Sales Taxes Payable $ 640, debit Cash $ 7,360, credit Sales $ 8,000 D. Debit Cash $ 8,640, credit Sales $8,000, credit Sales Taxes Payable $ 640.

Answers

Where the above conditions are given,the correct journal entry to recod the cash sales and the associated sales tax is   "Option A) -  Debit Cash $8,000, credit Sales $7,360, credit Sales Taxes Payable $640.

Why is this so?

This entry reflects the cash received from the sales, reduces the sales amount by the sales tax portion,and records the sales   tax liability in the Sales Taxes Payable account.

In accounting, a journal is a book or electronic record used to record and track financial transactions, including details such as dates, accounts, amounts, and descriptions, ensuring accurate bookkeeping and financial analysis.

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Supposing you were asked by your Professor handling the course to write an academic paper on Criminal Law as it Affects on Business Organisations in Europe, present a list of 10 references that you will likely use in the course of writing the paper.

Answers

When writing an academic paper on Criminal Law as it affects business organizations in Europe, here is a list of ten references that can provide valuable information for your research.

Kostoris P., De Michele M. (eds) (2020), Business Crimes in Europe: Legal and Criminological Perspectives on Corruption, Organized Crime and Economic Crime, Routledge.Werle G., Jessberger F., Sterett S. (eds) (2019), Economic Crimes and International Criminal Law, T.M.C. Asser Press.Doak J., Clough R. (eds) (2020), European Criminal Law: An Integrative Approach, Routledge.Mitsilegas V., Bergström M. (eds) (2016), Research Handbook on EU Criminal Law, Edward Elgar Publishing.Ryder N., Dubber M.D., Farmer L. (eds) (2020), The Cambridge Handbook of Criminal Law, Cambridge University Press.Burch D., Rogerson C. (2015), Criminal Law and Policy in the European Union, Routledge.Hartmann J., Jagersma F., Roorda N. (eds) (2017), Corporate Criminal Liability and Compliance Programs: A Global Perspective, Kluwer Law International.Mitsilegas V., Monar J., Rees W. (eds) (2017), The European Union and Internal Security: Guardian of the People?, Palgrave Macmillan.Alldridge P. (2016), Criminal Justice and Taxation, Cambridge University Press.Moos M., Nelen H. (2017), White Collar Crime in Europe: Developments in the EU, Ashgate Publishing.

These references cover a range of topics related to criminal law, business organizations, and their intersection in the European context.

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Explain why government regulation and supervision of
the financial system is needed.

Answers

Government regulation and supervision of the financial system are crucial for maintaining stability, protecting consumers and investors, and upholding the integrity of financial markets.

Government regulation and supervision of the financial system is necessary for several reasons. Firstly, it helps to ensure stability and mitigate systemic risks. The financial system plays a crucial role in the economy, and the failure of key financial institutions or widespread market disruptions can have severe consequences for individuals and the overall economy. Regulations such as capital adequacy requirements, risk management standards, and oversight of systemic institutions help safeguard against such risks and promote stability.

Secondly, regulation protects consumers and investors. Financial markets can be complex, and individuals may lack the necessary information or expertise to make informed decisions. Regulations provide safeguards against fraudulent practices, ensure fair treatment, and promote transparency and disclosure. Regulatory bodies monitor financial institutions, products, and services to prevent misconduct and protect the interests of consumers and investors.

Moreover, regulation helps maintain market integrity. By enforcing rules and standards, regulators prevent market manipulation, insider trading, and other unethical practices that can undermine the trust and fairness of financial markets. It promotes a level playing field, where participants operate within established guidelines and maintain ethical conduct. They strike a balance between promoting economic growth and innovation while mitigating risks and ensuring a fair and transparent financial environment.

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& Moving to another question will save this response. Question 5 The depreciable cost of a plant asset is the original cost less its residual value O True O False & Moving to another question will sav

Answers

The given statement is True. Depreciation is an accounting method used to calculate the decline in the value of an asset over time.

A plant asset is a long-term tangible asset that is used to produce income. The original cost of the plant asset is the amount that a company pays to purchase the asset. The residual value of the asset is the amount that a company expects to receive when the asset is sold or disposed of at the end of its useful life.The depreciable cost of a plant asset is the original cost of the asset less its residual value.

The depreciable cost represents the portion of the asset's value that is used up over its useful life and is therefore eligible for depreciation expense. The formula for calculating depreciation expense is:(Original cost - Residual value) ÷ Useful life in years, it is true that the depreciable cost of a plant asset is the original cost less its residual value.

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Please help! Will thumbs
up!
If TC = 450 + 30Q + 2Q2, then a profit maximizing firm should shut down if price is lower than:

Answers

The profit-maximizing firm should shut down if the price (P) is lower than the quantity Q given by (P - 30) / 2.

To determine the shutdown point for a profit-maximizing firm, we need to compare the price with the minimum average variable cost (AVC) in the short run. If the price falls below the minimum AVC, it would be more profitable for the firm to shut down and minimize its losses.

In the given cost function TC = 450 + 30Q + 2Q², we can determine the average variable cost (AVC) by dividing the variable costs by the quantity produced (Q). The variable costs consist of the terms 30Q and 2Q².

VC = 30Q + 2Q²

AVC = VC / Q = (30Q + 2Q²) / Q = 30 + 2Q

The shutdown point occurs when the price (P) is lower than the minimum AVC. Therefore, we set the price equal to the minimum AVC and solve for Q:

P = AVC

P = 30 + 2Q

Setting P = 30 + 2Q, we can isolate Q:

2Q = P - 30

Q = (P - 30) / 2

Hence, the profit-maximizing firm should shut down if the price (P) < (P - 30) / 2.

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Which of the following is not a tax deduction under s 8-1? O a. Public liability Insurance paid. O b. Business rent paid. O c. Purchase of trading stock but not yet sold O d. Cost of delivery motor vehicle

Answers

Cost of delivery motor vehicle among the following  is not a tax deduction under s 8-1. Option D is correct.

The central issue connected with the expense derivation under s 8-1 is that: Everything connected to the business will be eligible for a deduction. These items must support the individual's business growth and profits with the same. The tax deduction does not apply to items related to capital expenditures or revenue.

Charge derivation alludes to claims made to lessen your available pay, emerging from different ventures and costs caused by a citizen. As a result, taking an income tax deduction lowers your overall tax bill. It's a type of tax break that helps you save money on taxes.

A provision that reduces taxable income is known as a tax deduction. A standard derivation is a solitary derivation at a proper sum. Itemized deductions are popular with taxpayers with higher incomes who frequently have a lot of expenses that they can deduct.

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A stock is expected to pay $0.80 per share every year indefinitely. If the current price of the stock is $18.90, and the equity cost of capital for the company that released the shares is 6.4%, what price would an investor be expected to pay per share five years into the future?
A stock is expected to pay $0.80 per share every year indefinitely. If the current price of the stock is $18.90, and the equity cost of capital for the company that released the shares is 6.4%, what price would an investor be expected to pay per share five years into the future?
a. $22.65
b. $20.43
c. $21.23
d. $12.50

Answers

An investor would be expected to pay $12.50 per share five years into the future. The correct option is d.

Future Value is the value of an investment or cash flow at a specific future time after taking compounding interest or growth into account. It symbolizes the anticipated value of an investment or the growth of money over time.

Future Value = Dividend / (Cost of Capital - Growth Rate)

In this case, dividend =$0.80 per share

cost of capital = 6.4%

growth rate = zero (assumed) since the dividends are expected to remain constant indefinitely

Future Value = $0.80 / (0.064 - 0)

Future Value = $0.80 / 0.064

Future Value = $12.50

The correct option is d.

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HELP IM TIMED

Which IS NOT a career pathway in the Marketing, Sales and Service Pathway?

Group of answer choices

Marketing Information Management and Research

Professional Sales and Marketing

Refrigerator Repair

E-Marketing

Answers

C: Refrigerator repair

Answer:

D (E-Marketing).

Explanation:

hope this helps :;;:

Which of the following is correct? High budget deficits and a large national debt are most likely to lead to a(n):
a. decrease domestic interest rates, decrease the international value of the dollar, and increase American net exports
b. increase domestic interest rates, increase the international value of the dollar, and decrease American net exports
c. increase domestic interest rates, decrease the international value of the dollar, and increase American net exports
d. increase domestic interest rates, increase the international value of the dollar, and increase American net exports

Answers

b. increase domestic interest rates, increase the international value of the dollar, and decrease American net exports.

High budget deficits and a large national debt can lead to increased borrowing by the government, which in turn can lead to increased demand for loanable funds.

demand for funds puts upward pressure on interest rates. As interest rates rise, it becomes more expensive for business and consumers to borrow, which can lead to decreased investment and spending, thereby reducing net exports.

Additionally, higher interest rates can attract foreign investors seeking higher returns on their investments, which increases the demand for the domestic currency, leading to an increase in the international value of the dollar. A stronger dollar makes U.S. exports relatively more expensive and imports relatively cheaper, reducing net exports.

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The comparative statements of Cullumber Company are presented
here.
Cullumber Company
Income Statements
For the Years Ended December 31
2025
2024
Net sales
$1,586,400
$1,470,000

Answers

The earnings per share to Cullumber Company, as well as the Return on Common stockholder's equity can be found to be

How to find the EPS and return on equity ?

The earnings per share to Cullumber Company can be found by the formula :

= Net income / Common stock outstanding

= 276, 360 / 76, 700

= $ 3. 60

Note:

Common stock outstanding = Average Common stock / Par value  

= $383,500 / $5

= 76,700 shares

The Return on Common stockholder's equity would be:

= Net income / Average Common stockholder's equity x 100

= 276, 360 / 694, 720 x 100 %

= 39. 78 %

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Questions are:

Compute the following ratios for 2022.

(a) Earnings per share

(b) Return on common stockholders' equity

Case Study A global company, X3T Ltd., is developing a software tool for the travel industry. The project team consists of 22 members located in South Korea and 28 members located in several Canadian

Answers

X3T Ltd. must utilize virtual communication tools, establish clear objectives, hold regular team meetings, promote cultural sensitivity, facilitate knowledge sharing, ensure effective leadership, and conduct performance reviews to manage its diverse project team across South Korea and Canada.

Case Study:

X3T Ltd., a global company, is currently working on the development of a software tool for the travel industry. The project team comprises 22 members based in South Korea and 28 members located in various cities across Canada.

With such a diverse team spread across different locations, effective collaboration and communication are essential for the success of the project. To ensure seamless coordination, the company should consider the following strategies:

1. Virtual Communication Tools: Utilize video conferencing platforms, instant messaging, and project management software to facilitate real-time communication and collaboration among team members. This enables regular updates, progress tracking, and effective decision-making.

2. Clear Project Objectives and Roles: Establish clear project objectives and define the roles and responsibilities of each team member. This helps in avoiding confusion, promoting accountability, and ensuring everyone is aligned with the project's goals.

3. Regular Team Meetings: Conduct regular team meetings, both at the regional and cross-regional levels, to discuss project progress, address challenges, and share best practices. These meetings can be held virtually to accommodate the diverse locations of the team members.

4. Cultural Sensitivity and Awareness: Foster an environment of cultural sensitivity and awareness, considering the different cultural norms, values, and communication styles within the team. Encourage open dialogue and respect for diverse perspectives.

5. Efficient Documentation and Knowledge Sharing: Implement a centralized system for documentation and knowledge sharing, ensuring that project-related information, resources, and best practices are accessible to all team members. This promotes consistency, reduces duplication of efforts, and enhances overall project efficiency.

6. Effective Leadership and Team Management: Appoint experienced project managers who can effectively lead and manage the team, providing guidance, support, and motivation to ensure a cohesive and productive working environment.

7. Regular Performance Reviews: Conduct regular performance reviews and feedback sessions to monitor individual and team performance, identify areas for improvement, and recognize achievements. This encourages continuous growth and development within the team.

By implementing these strategies, X3T Ltd. can effectively manage its diverse project team located in South Korea and Canada, fostering collaboration, communication, and successful completion of the software tool for the travel industry.

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An airline knows that there are two types of travelers: business travelers and vacationers. For a particular flight, there are 100 business travelers who will pay $600 for a ticket while there are 50 vacationers who will pay $300 for a ticket. There are 150 seats available on the plane. Suppose the cost to the airline of providing the flight is $20,000, which includes the cost of the pilots, flight attendants, fuel, etc. How much profit will the airline earn if it engages in price discrimination

Answers

Answer:

The answer is "$55000".

Explanation:

When discrimination against prices is practicable, $600 would be charged to travelers and $300 to tourists. Now,

Total revenue(TR) [tex]=P \times Q[/tex]

                               [tex]=600\times 100+300 \times 50 \\\\ =600\times 100+15,000 \\\\ =60,000+15,000 \\\\=\$75,000[/tex]

Total Cost(TC)[tex]=\$20000[/tex]

Profit[tex]=TR-TC[/tex]

           [tex]=\$75000-\$20000 \\\\ =\$55,000[/tex]

You won $1,000,000 in the lottery and decided to invest the funds. However, you do not know much about investments and decided to visit a local investment firm to get some more information. The representative was able to tell you about the different types of investments and investment strategies.

Questions

After your visit to the investment firm, demonstrate your knowledge of the investment environment by answering the following questions:

A. Explain the factors that will help to determine the rate of return that an investor requires on an investment.
B. Discuss THREE (3) types of investments that you could engage in. Include in your discussion the benefits and drawbacks of each type of investment.
C. Explain ANY TWO (2) career path that is available to persons interested in investment.

Answers

The correct answer of a) Time horizon, Inflation, Risk tolerance, B) Bonds, stocks, Real estate, and c) Investment banking, and portfolio management.

A) The following are the factors that help to determine the rate of return that an investor requires on an investment:

Time horizon: The length of time you plan to hold the investment will determine your required rate of return.Inflation: Inflation is one of the most important considerations in determining the rate of return an investor requires.Risk tolerance: Investors' risk tolerance, which varies depending on their age, income, and other factors, is a crucial component of determining their required rate of return.

B) The following are the three types of investments that you could engage in:

1. Bonds - One of the advantages of investing in bonds is that they have lower risk than stocks. On the downside, bonds have low returns.

2. Stocks - Stocks have the potential to provide high returns, but they also come with a high level of risk. They are suitable for long-term investment horizons.

3. Real Estate - Real estate investments can provide stable cash flow and appreciation in value. However, the drawback is that they have a high cost of entry and require a lot of maintenance and attention.

C) Two career paths that are available to persons interested in investment include:

1. Investment Banking - Investment banking is a great option for people who enjoy working with businesses and are interested in helping companies grow.

2. Portfolio Management - Portfolio management involves overseeing a collection of investments and making decisions on behalf of investors.

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All of the following characterize both perfectly competitive and monopolistically competitive markets EXCEPT: Price is equal to average revenue. Price is equal to average revenue. A Individual firms produce output where marginal cost equals marginal revenue. Individual firms produce output where marginal cost equals marginal revenue. B Firms can affect the selling price of their product. Firms can affect the selling price of their product. C The market has a large number of firms. The market has a large number of firms. D Firms can easily enter or exit the market.

Answers

Ok so all the Characters in the market price or equal to the average individual firm produce but I put on the cost equals

In a journal entry, accounts to be debited are recorded before accounts to be credited. True False

Answers

The given statement "In a journal entry, accounts to be debited are recorded before accounts to be credited." is true because when recording transactions, it is important to ensure that they are recorded accurately in the accounting system.

This is where the concept of double-entry accounting comes into play. The double-entry accounting system involves recording each transaction twice, once as a debit and once as a credit. In this system, the debits and credits must be equal to ensure that the accounting equation remains in balance. To record a transaction in a journal entry, the accounts to be debited are recorded first, followed by the accounts to be credited. The accounts to be debited are listed on the left side of the journal entry, while the accounts to be credited are listed on the right side.

This ensures that the debits and credits are recorded accurately and that the accounting equation remains in balance. In conclusion, when recording transactions in a journal entry, the accounts to be debited are recorded before the accounts to be credited. This is an essential step in ensuring that the accounting system is accurate and the financial statements are reliable.

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Explain the differences between zero exposure, ongoing exposure and time-varying exposure to default risk. (2 marks) b. Suppose that the spread between the yield on a three-year default-free zero-coupon bond and threeyear defaultable zero-coupon bond issued by a bank is 350 basis points. The Black-Scholes-Merton price of an option is $6.50. i. How much should you be prepared to pay for it if you buy it from a bank? (1 mark) ii. Assume the option can only default at maturity, and the recovery rate is 30%, what is the riskneutral probability of default? (1 mark) c. A bank enters into a credit derivative where it agrees to pay $100 at the end of one year if a certain company’s credit rating falls from A to Baa or lower during the year. If the objective default probability estimated based on historical data are used to value the credit derivative, is it likely to overstate or understate the value of the derivative? Explain.

Answers

Zero exposure to default risk is a situation in which the purchaser of an investment product or security has no exposure to the risk of default. There is no risk that the investor will lose his or her initial investment as a result of a default by the issuer of the product or security.

On going Exposure: On going exposure is a situation in which the investor's exposure to default risk is constant over time. The investor is exposed to the same level of risk throughout the life of the product or security. Time-varying Exposure: Time-varying exposure is a situation in which the investor's exposure to default risk changes over time. This is due to changes in the creditworthiness of the issuer of the product or security.

The answer to the second part of the question is given below: i. You should be prepared to pay $3.25 for the option if you buy it from the bank. ii. The current default probability may be higher than the historical default probability due to changes in market conditions, which will increase the value of the credit derivative.

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Venice InLine, Inc., was founded by Russ Perez to produce a specialized in-line skate he had designed for doing aerial tricks. Up to this point, Russ has financed the company with his own savings and with cash generated by his business. However, Russ now faces a cash crisis. In the year just ended, an acute shortage of high-impact roller bearings developed just as the company was beginning production for the Christmas season. Russ had been assured by his suppliers that the roller bearings would be delivered in time to make Christmas shipments, but the suppliers were unable to fully deliver on this promise. As a consequence, Venice InLine had large stocks of unfinished skates at the end of the year and was unable to fill all of the orders that had come in from retailers for the Christmas season. Consequently, sales were below expectations for the year, and Russ does not have enough cash to pay his creditors.

Well before the accounts payable were due, Russ visited a local bank and inquired about obtaining a loan. The loan officer at the bank assured Russ that there should not be any problem getting a loan to pay off his accounts payable—providing that on his most recent financial statements the current ratio was above 2.0, the acid-test ratio was above 1.0, and net operating income was at least four times the interest on the proposed loan. Russ promised to return later with a copy of his financial statements.

Jurgen would like to apply for a $125,000 six-month loan bearing an interest rate of 8% per year. The unaudited financial reports of the company appear below.

Venice InLine, Inc.
Comparative Balance Sheet
As of December 31
(dollars in thousands)
This Year Last Year
Assets
Current assets:
Cash $ 90.0 $ 260.0
Accounts receivable, net 80.0 95.0
Inventory 290.0 185.0
Prepaid expenses 35.0 53.0
Total current assets 495.0 593.0
Property and equipment 410.0 180.0
Total assets $ 905.0 $ 773.0
Liabilities and Stockholders' Equity
Current liabilities:
Accounts payable $ 251.0 $ 135.0
Accrued liabilities 35.0 40.0
Total current liabilities 286.0 175.0
Long-term liabilities .0 .0
Total liabilities 286.0 175.0
Stockholders' equity:
Common stock and additional paid-in-capital 150.0 150.0
Retained earnings 469.0 448.0
Total stockholders' equity 619.0 598.0
Total liabilities and stockholders' equity $ 905.0 $ 773.0
Venice InLine, Inc.
Income Statement
For the Year Ended December 31
(dollars in thousands)
This Year
Sales (all on account) $ 665.0
Cost of goods sold 460.0
Gross margin 205.0
Selling and administrative expenses:
Selling expenses 63.0
Administrative expenses 112.0
Total selling and administrative expenses 175.0
Net operating income 30.0
Interest expense –
Net income before taxes 30.0
Income taxes (30%) 9.0
Net income $ 21.0
Required:
1a. Based on the above unaudited financial statement of the current year calculate the following. (Round your answers to 2 decimal places.)

Current ratio
Acid-test ratio
Number of times of the net operating income to the interest on the proposed loan
1b. Based on the statement made by the loan officer, would the company qualify for the loan? (Yes/No)
2.
Last year Jurgen purchased and installed new, more efficient equipment to replace an older heat-treating furnace. Jurgen had originally planned to sell the old equipment, but found that it is still needed whenever the heat-treating process is a bottleneck. When Jurgen discussed his cash flow problems with his brother-in-law, he suggested to Jurgen that the old equipment be sold or at least reclassified as inventory on the balance sheet because it could be readily sold. At present, the equipment is carried in the Property and Equipment account and could be sold for its net book value of $120,000. The bank does not require audited financial statements.

a.
Calculate the follwing if the old machine is considered as inventory. (Round your answers to 2 decimal places.)

Current ratio
Acid-test ratio
b.
Based on the 2a above would the company qualify for the loan? (Yes/No)

c.
Calculate the following if the old machine is sold off. (Round your answers to 2 decimal places.)

Current ratio
Acid-test ratio
d.
Based on the 2c above would the company qualify for the loan? (Yes/No)

Answers

1. Determine the following based on the above unaudited financial statement for the current year:

Current Ratio

493 Current Assets

276 Current Liabilities

1.79:1 Current Ratio

Acid Test Ratio:

Accounts Receivables 83 Cash 100

Quick Ratio 0.66:1 Total Quick Assets 183 Current Liabilities 276

? The ratio of net operating income to interest on the proposed loan.

Net Operating Income 20 Interest Expense 0 Time Interest Earned

2. Would the company qualify for the loan based on the loan officer's statement?

According to the calculated ratios, the company does not qualify for the loan since the current ratio of 1.79 is less than the 2 required, the quick ratio of 0.66 is less than the 1 required, and the time interest ratio is less than the required.3. Last year Jurgen purchased and installed new, more efficient equipment to replace an older heat-treating furnace.

Considering the case that is presented in the financial statements as property, plant, and equipment, it will not affect the current quick and current ratios of the company. However, if this will be reclassified as inventory, considering the intention of reselling it, the current ratio will be changed as follows:

Original Current Asset 493

Reclassification of the for Sale Equipment 95

New Balance of Current Assets 588

Current Liabilities 276

New Current Ratio 2.13

In this case, the company will qualify for the required current ratio of 2.0. However, still, other requirements, such as the quick ratio and time interest earned will still not satisfied.

4. Calculate the following if the old machine is considered as inventory. (Round your answers to 2 decimal places.)

? Current Ratio

Original Current Asset 493

Reclassification of the for Sale Equipment 95

New Balance of Current Assets 588

Current Liabilities 276

New Current Ratio 2.13

Acid Test Ratio

Cash 83

Accounts Receivables 100

Total Quick Assets 183

Current Liabilities 276

Quick Ratio 0.66:1

5. Calculate the following if the old machine is sold off:

Current Ratio

Current Assets (493+95) 588

Current Liabilities 276

Current Ratio 2.13:1

Acid Test Ratio

Cash (83+95) 178

Accounts Receivables 100

Total Quick Assets 278

Current Liabilities 276

Quick Ratio 1.01:1

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Khanyi is currently considering the possibility of setting up her own health spa in Greenpoint. She has an idea of the costs involved but needs to put together a business plan to present to her bank manager so she can secure the necessary funding. As her friend, she has asked for your help and has given you the following estimates of costs and revenues: Costs • She has identified a suitable property that is currently being used for a similar purpose. The cost of the lease will be R2 800 000 per annum. • The spa will be managed by a full time manager who will be paid R400 000 per annum. She will be assisted by an assistant manager who will be paid R280 000 per annum. There will also be 6 full time health professionals trained in various disciplines, each earning R110 000 per annum. • Repair and maintenance costs for the spa are estimated at R350 000 per annum. • The utilities (water and electricity) are expected to cost R325 000 per annum. • Advertising will cost R97 500 per annum. • The cost of breakfast is expected to be R35.50 per guest per day, lunch R62.25 per guest per day and evening meal R80.50 per guest per day. • Khanyi will employ local people to work as cleaning staff. They will be paid R75.00 per hour. It is expected that a cleaner will be able to clean 2 rooms per hour and each occupied room will be cleaned daily. The main spa areas will be cleaned by part time staff, at a budgeted cost of R100 000 per annum. • Towels and robes will be supplied to each resident. A clean set will be provided every day. The cost of this is expected to be R50.00 per day per guest. • Each treatment involves some consumables and these are estimated to cost R149.00 per treatment. Revenues · It is proposed that the price charged will be R1 850 per night, although Khanyi feels that the market could absorb a higher price. This price would be for use of the fitness facilities, all meals (breakfast, lunch and dinner), and clean laundry. Any treatments would be charged in addition to this. • Treatments will be charged at R250 each. It is expected that guests on average will choose to have 2 treatments per day of their visit. • The spa will be able to accommodate a maximum 20 guests per night. It is expected that the spa will operate 360 days per year and on average will achieve 80% occupancy. The average stay of a guest will be 2 nights. REQUIRED: 1. Calculate the daily revenue per guest that could be charged if Khanyi wanted to ensure that a pre-tax profit of R1 800 000. You may assume that the estimated occupancy levels are maintained. 2. The health spa ended up only managing to achieve a 60% occupancy. Calcul the daily revenue per guest that Khanyi would need to charge to avoid makin losses. You may assume the costs are maintained. Neatness and Layout

Answers

The daily revenue per guest that Khanyi would need to charge to avoid making losses is: R377.25.

To calculate the daily revenue per guest that could be charged to ensure a pre-tax profit of R1,800,000, we need to consider the estimated occupancy levels and the costs involved.The spa can accommodate a maximum of 20 guests per night, and it is expected to achieve an average occupancy of 80%. Therefore, on average, there will be 20 guests * 80% = 16 guests per night.The average stay of a guest is 2 nights, so the total number of guests per year would be 16 guests * 2 nights * 360 days = 11,520 guests per year.To achieve a pre-tax profit of R1,800,000, we need to divide this profit by the total number of guests per year:

R1,800,000 / 11,520 guests = R156.25 profit per guest.

This profit per guest needs to be added to the costs per guest per day, which include the cost of breakfast, lunch, dinner, laundry, treatments, and consumables:

R35.50 + R62.25 + R80.50 + R50.00 (meals) + R149.00 (treatments) = R377.25 costs per guest per day.Therefore, the daily revenue per guest that could be charged to ensure a pre-tax profit of R1,800,000 is:

R377.25 + R156.25 = R533.50.If the health spa only achieves a 60% occupancy, we can use the same approach to calculate the daily revenue per guest that Khanyi would need to charge to avoid making losses.Considering the 60% occupancy, there would be 20 guests * 60% = 12 guests per night.Using the same calculations as before, we find that the total number of guests per year would be 12 guests * 2 nights * 360 days = 8,640 guests per year.To avoid making losses, the revenue per guest needs to cover the costs per guest per day:

R35.50 + R62.25 + R80.50 + R50.00 (meals) + R149.00 (treatments) = R377.25 costs per guest per day.

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When speakers choose not to rehearse before giving a business presentation, audience members will typically perceive which two of the following?
the speaker's ineffectiveness
the speaker's imprecision

Answers

When speakers choose not to rehearse before giving a business presentation, audience members will typically perceive the speaker's ineffectiveness and the speaker's imprecision.

A rehearsed speaker usually gives a professional presentation that is well-organized, with a clear structure and well-thought-out ideas and this results in increased audience engagement and attention. They are more likely to get the message across and maintain the audience's attention.

On the other hand, when a speaker has not rehearsed the presentation, their speech may be riddled with hesitations, repetitions, and long pauses, which may distract the audience from the message, reduce their attention span, and undermine their credibility.

In conclusion, rehearsing before giving a business presentation is a crucial component of effective public speaking as it ensures that the speaker is well-prepared, confident, and persuasive.

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Which of the below does NOT reduce taxable income?
Increase in depreciation expense
Increase in Interest Expense
Decrease in depreciation expense
Decrease in capital gains

Answers

Out of the given options, the one that does NOT reduce taxable income is the decrease in capital gains.

The correct answer to the given question is option 4.

Capital gains refer to the profits that are made on the sale of an asset like stocks, bonds, or real estate. These gains are usually taxed at a lower rate than regular income, depending on how long the asset was held before it was sold.

However, if there is a decrease in capital gains, it means that there was a loss on the sale of the asset. This loss can be used to offset gains from other investments and can help reduce taxable income. So, while an increase in depreciation expense and interest expense will reduce taxable income, a decrease in depreciation expense will not.

Decreasing depreciation expense can actually increase taxable income because it means the asset is worth less than previously estimated and therefore has less value to write off on taxes.To summarize, increasing depreciation expense and interest expense can help reduce taxable income, while decreasing capital gains does not reduce taxable income and decreasing depreciation expense can actually increase taxable income.

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1) Suppose we have two identical firms A and B,selling identical products,They are the only firms in the market and compete by choosing prices at the same time.If they choose the same price,they split the market demand. The market demand curve is given by Q=500-P.The only cost is a constant marginal cost of $50. a) What quantity will each firm produce in the Nash Equilibrium and what are their profits? b If Firm A chooses a price of $300,what is Firm B's best response. c)If Firm A chooses a price of $15,what is Firm Bs best response.

Answers

The quantity will each firm produce in the Nash Equilibrium and what are their profits is $7,625, Firm B to Firm A's price of $300 is $100 and response of Firm B to Firm A's price of $15 is $242.50.

a) The demand equation is Q = 500 - P. Firm A’s demand is Qa = (500 - Pa - Pb) / 2, and firm B’s demand is

Qb = (500 - Pa - Pb) / 2, where Pa and Pb are the prices of firms A and B. Both firms have the same marginal cost,

MC = $50.

Therefore, the profit function for both firms is:

π = TR - TCπa = Pa (500 - Pa - Pb) / 2 - 50Qaπb = Pb (500 - Pa - Pb) / 2 - 50Qb

To find the Nash equilibrium price, we will have to derive the profit functions of both the firms and then maximize it with respect to their respective prices. First, we’ll calculate the optimal quantities.

πa = Pa (500 - Pa - Pb) / 2 - 50Qaπb = Pb (500 - Pa - Pb) / 2 - 50Qb

Differentiating the profit function of firm A with respect to Pa and setting it to zero gives us the first-order condition:(500 - 2Pa - Pb) / 2 - Pa = 50

Pa = 175

Pb = 175.

Substituting the values of Pa and Pb into the demand function gives the quantities demanded by each firm

Qa = Qb = 75

The quantity each firm will produce at Nash equilibrium is 75, and their profits are $7,625 (for both firms).

b) Firm A’s demand function is

Qa = (500 - Pa - Pb) / 2, which can be rearranged as

Pb = 500 / 2 - 2Qa - Pa. The profit function of firm B is:

πb = Pb (500 - Pa - Pb) / 2 - 50Qb

πb = (500 / 2 - 2Qa - Pa) (500 - Pa - 500 / 2 + 2Qa + Pa) / 2 - 50Qb

πb = - 4Qa2 - PaQa + 125Qa + 62.5Pa - 25Pa2 - 2500 - 50Qb

Differentiating the profit function of firm B with respect to Pb and setting it to zero gives us the first-order condition:-

Pa + Pb - 500 / 2 - 4Qa = 0Pb = 500 / 2 - 4Qa - PaPb = 250 - 2Qa - 150Pb = 100 - 2Qa

The best response of Firm B to Firm A's price of $300 is $100.

c) Firm A’s demand function is Qa = (500 - Pa - Pb) / 2, which can be rearranged as Pb = 500 / 2 - 2Qa - Pa. The profit function of firm B is:

πb = Pb (500 - Pa - Pb) / 2 - 50Qb

πb = (500 / 2 - 2Qa - Pa) (500 - Pa - 500 / 2 + 2Qa + Pa) / 2 - 50Qb

πb = - 4Qa2 - PaQa + 125Qa + 62.5Pa - 25Pa2 - 2500 - 50Qb

Differentiating the profit function of firm B with respect to Pb and setting it to zero gives us the first-order condition:-

Pa + Pb - 500 / 2 - 4Qa = 0

Pb = 500 / 2 - 4Qa - Pa

Pb = 250 - 2Qa - 150

Pb = 100 - 2Qa.

The best response of Firm B to Firm A's price of $15 is $242.50.

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Silky Smooth has an EPS of $2.81 per share and a profit margin of 5.9 percent. If the PS ratio is 1.44 times, what is the stock price?
$80.01
$16.58
$68.58
$74.30

Answers

If the PS ratio is 1.44 times, stock price is approximately $68.58.

Profit Margin = Net Income / Sales

PS Ratio = Stock Price / Sales per Share

Profit Margin = 5.9%

PS Ratio = 1.44 times

Stock Price = PS Ratio × Sales per Share

Sales per Share = Net Income / Profit Margin

                           = EPS / Profit Margin = $2.81 / 0.059

Sales per Share ≈ $47.627

Stock Price = PS Ratio × Sales per Share = 1.44 × $47.627

Stock Price ≈ $68.58

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