Andrea's level of the hazardous materials training is at the Hazardous Materials Specialist level.
Firefighter EMTs and ambulance EMTs each obtain the equal scientific schooling. both require physical tests, CPR certification, and each have to perform emergency medical remedy inside the field.
The primary distinction among these two roles is the time needed for education and normal process responsibilities. EMS offers a comprehensive approach to emergency care with staff trained to handle any complication.
A firefighter/paramedic is a person who combats and carries fires and provides emergency scientific useful resource. People on this role also take steps to prevent fires and to train the general public about fireplace prevention.
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a nature photographer will be embarking on a trip overseas and is beginning a protocol for malaria prophylaxis involving 500 mg of chloroquine phosphate. what instruction should the nurse include in this client's health education?
a protocol for malaria prophylaxis involving 500 mg of chloroquine phosphate. "Make sure you take your pill on the same day each week." the nurse should include in this client's health education.
An antimalarial drug called chloroquine phosphate, usually referred to as chloroquine, has been licensed in the United States for the prevention or treatment of specific kinds of malaria as well as the management of extraintestinal parasites. All parasites that are susceptible to chloroquine should be treated with it. To be swallowed whole, chloroquine phosphate is available as a tablet. Adults typically take one dosage once each week on the same day of the week to avoid malaria. pills you should take for each dose will be specified by your doctor.
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the anticholinergic drug atropine blocks muscarinic receptors. this drug is often administered to treat bradycardia or slow heart rate. what affects does it have on the patient when it is administered?
the anticholinergic drug atropine blocks muscarinic receptors. this drug is often administered to treat bradycardia or slow heart rate. Atropine will inhibit the vagus nerve's effects on the heart, causing the heart rate to rise.
Acetylcholine's effects are counteracted by the antimuscarinic drug atropine. Atropine decreases heart rate in low dosages, and tachycardia results from the paralysis of vagal control. Atropine has a stronger and longer-lasting effect on the heart, gut, and bronchial muscle than scopolamine, but a weaker effect on the iris, ciliary body, and several secretory glands. Instead of its minor effect on vagal excitement, atropine causes bronchiolar dilatation, which may increase respiratory rate and depth of breathing.
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which activity would a general registered nurse be expected to perform as part of genomic care?
The activity that a general registered nurse would be expected to perform as part of genomic care is "obtaining an accurate family history and physical assessment data". The correct answer is C.
All health professionals should be able to create a pedigree, and registered nurses with a baccalaureate in nursing, or BSN degree, are expected to be able to do so. According to the American Association of Colleges of Nursing's publication "Essentials of Baccalaureate Education for Professional Nursing Practice 2008," every BSN degree recipient should be capable of:
"Generate a pedigree from a three-generation family history using standardized symbols and terminology".Although a general registered nurse may not directly refer patients to genetic professionals, it is important that the nurse understand when a referral should be taken into consideration. Genetic counseling is outside the scope of the nurse's practice, so it is crucial that nurses not trying to deliver it.
This question should be provided with answer choices, which are:
A. Calculating recurrence risk for parents who have just had a child with nondisjunction Down syndrome.B. Informing a patient that his test results are positive for a genetic disorder.C. Obtaining an accurate family history and physical assessment data.D. Requesting a consultation visit from a clinical geneticist.The correct answer is C.
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which times for the medication schedule would a nurse teach when corticosteroid therapy is prescribed for a client with an exacerbation of ulcerative colitis
Taking the drug in the early morning mimics usual adrenal secretions; food helps reduce gastric irritation for the medication schedule would a nurse teach when corticosteroid therapy is prescribed for a client with an exacerbation of ulcerative colitis
The main purposes of corticosteroid therapy are to lower inflammation and weaken the immune system. They are employed to treat ailments like asthma. hay fever and allergic rhinitis. Depending on the ailment being treated, corticosteroids are administered in a variety of ways: via the oral route. Tablets, capsules, or syrups are used to alleviate the pain and inflammation brought on by several chronic illnesses, including lupus and rheumatoid arthritis. using an inhaler and nasal spray. Short-term corticosteroid use is generally associated with mild side effects, such as cutaneous effects, electrolyte abnormalities, hypertension, hyperglycemia, pancreatitis, hematologic, immunologic, and neuropsychologic effects. However, clinically significant side effects can also occur on occasion.
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the flacc pain scale is used to assess pain in a 2-month-old to 7 years old child. what categories does it assess?
The flacc pain scale assesses five categories in children ages 2 months to 7 years old: facial expression, leg movement, activity, cry, and consolability.
What is a Flacc pain scale?
The Flacc pain scale is a 5-point scale used to measure pain intensity in children ages 2–7 years old who are unable to self-report their pain. It assesses pain behavior and facial expression in response to pain. It is often used in hospitals, clinics, and home settings to assess pain in children who cannot communicate their pain using words.
For example, facial expressions such as frowning, grimacing, or squinting may indicate that the child is in pain. Leg movement, such as kicking or tensing the legs, can also be an indicator of pain.
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A data analyst is working with a file from a customer satisfaction survey. The survey was sent to anyone who became a customer between April and June, 2020. Which of the following is an effective name for the file?
-Survey_Responses
-April_May_June_2020_Responses_to_New_Customer_Survey_ANALYS-SDATA_928310
-Apr-June2020_CustSurvey_V
-NewCustomerSurvey_2020-6-20_V03
-NewCustomerSurvey_2020-6-20_V03
The survey was sent to anyone who became a customer between April and June, 2020 and NewCustomerSurvey_2020-6-20_V03 is an effective name for the file.
A customer satisfaction survey may be a form designed to assist businesses perceive what their customers trust their product or services, their whole, and their client support. customer Satisfaction Score (CSAT) is that the most typically used mensuration for client satisfaction.
A data analyst reviews data to spot key insights into a business's customers and ways that the info will be wont to solve issues. They additionally communicate this info to company leadership and alternative stakeholders.
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ardiac monitoring of a patient in cardiac arrest reveals ventricular fibrillation. in addition to high-quality cpr, what intervention should be a priority for the team?
Epinephrine is the primary drug given and can be repeated each three to five mins. If epinephrine isn't always effective, the subsequent medicine withinside the set of rules is amiodarone three hundred mg.
Defibrillation and medicine are given in an alternating style among cycles of two mins of amazing CPR First name 911 or your nearby emergency number.
Then begin CPR via way of means of pushing difficult and rapid at the person's chest — approximately a hundred to a hundred and twenty compressions a minute. Let the chest upward thrust absolutely among compressions. Continue CPR till an automatic outside defibrillator (AED) is to be had or emergency clinical assist arrive.
Prompt defibrillation is the best intervention for cardiac arrest, apart from amazing CPR, that has been proven to enhance survival; however, the fulfillment of defibrillation is time dependent, with approximately acline in fulfillment after every minute of VF (or pulseless VT).
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which type of eye disorder will the nurse expect to read in the electronic medical record of a client who has increased blood pressure severe myopia
The nurse will expect Glaucoma in the electronic medical record of a client who has increased blood pressure and severe myopia.
Glaucoma is commonly caused by associated diseases such as diabetes, hypertension, and severe myopia. As a result, a client with all of these ailments is more likely to develop glaucoma.
Glaucoma is a common eye condition caused by damage to the optic nerve, which links the eye to the brain. It is generally triggered by fluid accumulation in the front of the eye, which raises intraocular pressure. Glaucoma can cause vision loss if it is not detected and treated early.
Blurred vision or noticing rainbow-colored circles all over bright lights can be symptoms of glaucoma. Usually, both eyes are affected. The treatment for glaucoma will be determined by your symptoms. It may consist of eyedrops, laser treatment, or surgery. Your age, ethnicity, family history, and certain medical conditions can all increase your risk of developing glaucoma.
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when should sterile gloves be worn? when collecting a urine sample from a patient when collecting a urine sample from a patient when removing a dressing when removing a dressing when bathing a patient when bathing a patient when treating an open wound
Answer:
When treating an open wound
Explanation:
Sterile gloves should be worn when treating an open wound.
an obese adult with premature arteriosclerosis is seen in the clinic. when her serum is tested no chylomicrons are present, ldl levels are normal, and vldl levels are increased. there is an increase in triglycerides and a slight increase in cholesterol. lipoprotein electrophoresis reveals a heavy pre-beta band. she has no skin rash and uric acid is increased. this patient most likely has what type of hyperlipoproteinemia?
Answer:
Type IV
Explanation:
The patient has high triglycerides and increased VLDL, both of which are symptoms of type IV hyperlipoproteinemia.
assessment and management of clients with male reproductive disorders a patient has been prescribed sildenafil. what should the nurse teach the patient about this medication?
The patient ought to consume sildenafil drug medication from the nurse and take it one hour before sexual contact to avoid erection .
During sexual stimulation, sildenafil drug improves dysfunction by boosting blood flow to the genitalia of body. associate degree erection could result from this magnified blood flow. so as to facilitate simple blood flow, sildenafil drug treats PAH by reposeful the blood vessels within the lungs. sildenafil drug aids in sustaining associate degree erection once the has been stroked by control the catalyst. sildenafil drug won't operate to induce associate degree erection while not physical activity to the genitalia of body, like that taking place throughout sexual contact.
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which of the following disease states may require a fluid restriction? a.obesity b.heart failure c.myocardial infarction d.asthma
The heart's ability to pump blood cannot keep up with the body's requirements when it has congestive heart failure. Blood starts to back up as the heart becomes weaker, pushing liquid past the capillary walls.
Congestive refers to the consequent accumulation of fluid in the limbs, lungs, ankles and feet, and/or other organs. Most frequently, a patient may have edoema, or fluid buildup in the legs, shortness of breath, weariness, and arrhythmias, which are irregular heartbeats. The presence of symptoms is not always evident and they might be moderate or severe. An intake visit with a cardiac specialist, nurse, or physician's assistant is routine for patients. The doctor will go through the patient's past records and current health state during this visit.
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the nurse is collecting initial data on a newborn in the delivery room. which observations would the nurse expect to note in a healthy newborn? select all that apply.
The observation that the nurse expect to note in a healthy newborn would be:
Respiratory rate of 40 breaths/minute andThree umbilical cord vessel, two arteries and one vein.That is option 4 and 5.
Who is a healthy newborn?A healthy newborn is defined as the baby that is born with the normal weight of 3.0 to 3.5kg and I'd being delivered within 37 and 40 weeks of gestation.
The anatomical and physiological observations that can be found in a healthy newborn include the following:
Respiratory rate of 40 breaths/minute; The increased breath pre minute in infants is observed because of the leftover fluid in the lungs.Three umbilical cord vessel, two arteries and one vein.Learn more about respiratory rate here:
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Complete question:
The nurse is collecting initial data on a newborn in the delivery room. Which observations should the nurse expect to note in a healthy newborn? Select all that apply.
1.
Sunken anterior fontanel
2.
Appearance of facial jaundice
3.
Heart rate of 80 beats per minute
4.
Respiratory rate of 40 breaths/minute
5.
Three umbilical cord vessel, two arteries and one vein
which skin condition would be most likely to cause increased systemic absorption of a topical medication?
The skin condition most likely to cause increased systemic absorption of topical medications is severe sunburn.
Topical drugs are drugs that are administered directly to the skin or mucous membranes. There are various types of topical medications ranging from ointments, creams, gels, lotions, foams, and others.
Systemic absorption through the skin is minimal but may increase when the skin is inflamed or damaged. Severe sunburn can be an example of inflamed skin.
Multiple birthmarks and port-wine stains on the face are not examples of skin conditions that increase the absorption of topical medications. Rosacea is an example of an inflammatory skin disorder on the face, but most of the drugs prescribed to treat it are topical and rarely absorbed systemically.
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a patient is admitted to the emergency department experiencing symptoms of a thrombolytic stroke. which medication would the nurse expect to be prescribed for the patient?
Alteplase is medication would the nurse expect to be prescribed for the patient, a patient is admitted to the emergency department experiencing symptoms of a thrombolytic stroke.
When symptoms of a thrombolytic stroke first appear, a tissue plasminogen activator called alteplase can be used to treat them. Descriptions. Blood clots that have developed in the blood vessels can be removed with the use of an injection of alteplase. To increase patient survival, it is applied as soon as heart attack symptoms appear. It is also used to treat blood clots in the lungs and stroke symptoms (pulmonary embolism) tPA is administered to patients via an IV in the arm and works by dissolving blood clots that obstruct blood flow to the brain. It is also known by the generic name alteplase and is sold under the brand name Activase® (Genentech).
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a client with diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 344 mg/dl. this client is most at risk for which type of acid-base imbalance?
When a person's blood sugar rises to potentially dangerous levels that demand medical attention, type 2 diabetes with hyperglycemia develops. A person with type 2 diabetes may have either hyperglycemia, which denotes an increased blood glucose level, or hypoglycemia, which denotes a low level.
What is ketoacidosis in type 2 diabetes?
A severe and potentially fatal diabetes consequence is diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Type 1 diabetics are most likely to experience DKA. DKA can also occur in people who have type 2 diabetes. DKA happens when your body doesn't produce enough insulin to let blood sugar enter your cells for use as fuel.
Why does diabetes have an electrolyte imbalance?
People with type 2 diabetes mellitus frequently have electrolyte imbalances. Although the cause is frequently complicated, diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperglycemia are the primary culprits.
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why woudl there bve a cuasse for comcerm if a pregnant mother is rh- her partner is rh and this is their second child
These Rh antibodies are able to pass the placenta and assault the blood of the unborn child.
The mother's body will actually behave as though she is allergic to her own child. The baby's red blood cells will be effectively broken down if the mother's Rh antibodies assault it while it is still in the womb, which could cause life-threatening anemia.
Because of this, your first pregnancy will not be harmed by being Rh negative. However, if your subsequent child has Rh-positive blood, the antibodies you developed when you were exposed to it during your first pregnancy may cross the placenta and attack the Rh-positive red blood cells. If the mother has an immune system that is Rh-negative, it will view the fetal cells that are Rh-positive as a foreign substance.
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a client develops bacterial meningitis. which action is the priority nursing care? monitoring for signs of intracranial pressure. adding pads to the sides of the bed
A client develops bacterial meningitis, so the priority of the nursing care is monitoring for signs of intracranial pressure because, in this disease, the neurological signs change.
What is bacterial meningitis?The bacterial meningitis happens when the bacteria attacks the meninges that is the outer protective layers of the brain and the spinal cord and this disease would lead to various types of other neurological disorder. The neurons are affected, and the severe infection leads to the death of a person.
Hence, A client develops bacterial meningitis, so the priority of the nurse's care is monitoring for signs of intracranial pressure.
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which assessment finding supports the diagnosis of neuroleptic malignant syndrome in a client iwth schizophrenia being treated with haloperidol
NMS is characterized by muscular rigidity, tremors, difficulty swallowing, fever, hypertension, and diaphoresis which are effects of the use of neuroleptic agents like the haloperidol drug used to treat schizophrenia.
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially lethal idiosyncratic reaction characterized by fever, altered mental status, muscle rigidity, and autonomic dysfunction, can be brought on by antipsychotic treatment. The neuroleptic malignant syndrome is characterized by an extremely high fever (102 to 104 degrees F), an irregular pulse, an accelerated heartbeat (tachycardia), an increased rate of breathing (tachypnea), muscle rigidity, altered mental status, and dysfunction of the autonomic nervous system leading to high or low blood pressure, profuse perspiration, and excessive sweating. During a nursing assessment, a patient with the neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is most likely to display symptoms including hyperpyrexia, severe hypertension, and diaphoresis. Fever, hypertension, and diaphoresis—the three basic symptoms of NMS—should be addressed straight away.
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which lfuid shift will the nurse take into consideration when assessing a client with type 1 diabetes who is experiencing a fluid imbalance
Intracellular to intravascular as a result of hyperosmolarity will be taken into consideration by the nurse.
What is type 1 diabetes?
If one has type 1 diabetes, the pancreas either does not produce insulin or produces very little insulin. Insulin promotes the entry of blood sugar into the body's cells for utilization as energy. Without insulin, blood sugar cannot enter cells and accumulates in the bloodstream.
Hyperglycemia's osmotic impact draws the fluid from cells, resulting in cellular dehydration. Fluid is drawn from the interstitial compartment to the intravascular compartment by hyperglycemia. The extracellular compartment includes interstitial fluid; the osmotic pull of glucose exceeds that of other osmotic forces. A rise in hydrostatic pressure causes a shift from intravascular to interstitial.
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somatrem is administered to a client with pituitary dwarfism. which is the expected therapeutic effect of this medication?
Somatrem is a growth hormone. Thus if it is administered to a client with pituitary dwarfism then it is to stimulate growth.
Somatrem, a recombinant growth hormone, is used to treat Turner's disease, chronic renal failure, small stature for gestational age, and interrupted growth in children with growth hormone insufficiency or deficit. The most essential thing is that your child will grow, most likely 1 to 2 inches within the first 6 months of commencing treatment, even if it frequently takes 3 to 6 months to detect any changes in height.
The body uses somatropin to metabolize protein, retain lean muscle mass, burn calories, and burn fat. Furthermore, it promotes IGF-1 secretion (insulin-like growth factor-1). Somatropin shouldn't be used by Prader-Willi individuals who are extremely obese, have a history of sleep apnea or upper airway obstruction, or have severe respiratory impairment.
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What is growth curve
The growth curve is a very sensitive indicator of a youngster’s overall health. Ideally, the head circumference should be measured with a rigid tape above the supraorbital ridge, parallel to the ground, and encompassing the largest circumference of the head. Accurate weight measurements are usually easier to take than length or height.
All of the following statements are true about appraising the clinical significance of a finding of study, except which one?
Clinical significance of the study findings is always addressed in research reports
Clinical significance is a way of portraying the practical meaning of the study findings
Clinical significance is a judgment based on finding information and clinical knowledge
In experimental studies, the size of the treatment effect is an important determinant of clinical significance
All of the following statements are true about appraising the clinical significance of a finding of study, except clinical significance of the study findings is always addressed in research reports.
What is clinical significance?
Clinical relevance is the practical significance of a therapeutic effect in medicine and psychology—whether it has a real, true, tactile, perceptible impact on daily life. Clinically relevant findings are those that advance medical treatment and enhance a person's physical function, mental health, and capacity for social interaction. The phrase "improving quality of life" in relation to medical care covers both subjective and objective concepts.
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All of the following statements are true about appraising the clinical significance of a finding of study, except clinical significance of the study findings is always addressed in research reports.
What is clinical significance?Clinical relevance is the practical significance of a therapeutic effect in medicine and psychology—whether it has a real, true, tactile, perceptible impact on daily life. Clinically relevant findings are those that advance medical treatment and enhance a person's physical function, mental health, and capacity for social interaction. The phrase "improving quality of life" in relation to medical care covers both subjective and objective concepts.
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mary is a split-brain patient, which means that she . a. has an underdeveloped cerebellum b. has motor impairments c. has damage to the prefrontal cortex d. had her corpus callosum severed
Answer:
d. had her corpus callosum severed
Explanation:
It means that she had her corpus collosum severed.
we study three types of immune disorders: immunodeficiency disorders, autoimmune disorders, and allergies. aids is an example of an immunodeficiency disorder. how is it different from a severe allergy or an autoimmune disorder, such as type 1 diabetes?
Immunodeficiency is the inability of your immune system to effectively fight off infection. The opposing syndrome autoimmune reaction is an overactive immune system that targets healthy cells as though they were foreign objects.
An immune system issue occurs when your immune system isn't functioning properly. The most prevalent immunodeficiency disorder is acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS). can hinder the production of healthy white blood cells, which are necessary for the immune system. The body assaults typical, healthy tissues when someone has an autoimmune disorder. The combination of a person's genes and an environmental factor most likely causes those genes to be activated. Type1 diabetes:The cells in the pancreas that produce insulin are attacked by the immune system. In order to utilise sugar as fuel, insulin removes it from the blood.
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the nurse teaches a mother about the dietary measures to be followed for her 5-month-old infant. during the follow-up visit, the nurse finds that the child has indigestion. which action by the mother is responsible for this situation?
Feeding mashed sweet potatoes to the infant. May cause indigestion. Food goes back up from a baby's stomach, causing infant reflux, which is when a baby spits up.
Healthy infants experience reflux several times every day. Reflux is not a cause for worry as long as your infant is healthy, comfortable, and growing well. The illness, which is sometimes known as gastroesophageal reflux (GER), is rarely serious and becomes less frequent as a baby becomes older. Infant reflux that persists over the age of 18 months is unusual. In the event that your infant:
Not putting on weight.spits up repeatedly with power, sending stomach contents flying out of his or her mouth (projectile vomiting).spits forth a yellow or green liquid.spits up blood or a substance that resembles coffee.Learn more about Infant
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which contraception-related statement made by an adolescent with irregular menstruation indicates the need for further education
One of the main strategies for lowering teenage pregnancy rates is contraception. DMPA shots administered up until day 7 of the menstrual cycle Pediatricians are advised to create a working plan by the American Academy of Pediatrics.
Which of the following methods for female sterilization includes cutting or tying off specific reproductive system structures?Summary. A permanent method of contraception is tubal sterilisation, sometimes known as tubal ligation or "getting your tubes tied."
Which of the following occurs to suppress ovulation when the pill is taken for contraception?The main hormone responsible for preventing pregnancy is progesterone. The primary mode of action is ovulation prevention; they impede follicular growth and stop ovulation. [1] The hypothalamus uses progesterone negative feedback to reduce the gonadotropin-releasing hormone's pulse frequency.
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a client is taking masculinizing hormone therapy. what education will the nurse provide regarding masculinizing hormone therapy and the cessation of menses?
A client is taking masculinizing hormone therapy, and the nurse should educate the patient regarding masculinizing hormone therapy and the cessation of menses and in such cases, the menstrual cycle will terminate.
What is masculinizing hormone therapy?Masculinizing hormone therapy is a kind of treatment that is given to patients to convert them to male with the help of different hormones, such as the male hormone testosterone. Here, the female hormone will stop working because the patient has more male hormone, which is testosterone, and the ovarian cycle will terminate. person with a gender identity issue, go for it, but it has many critical phases.
Hence, the nurse should educate the patient regarding masculinizing hormone therapy and the cessation of menses. In such cases, the menstrual cycle will terminate.
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a nurse is caring for an older client who is prescribed an antianxiety agent parenterally. which activity should the nurse prioritize?
Caring for an older client who is prescribed an antianxiety agent parenterally, nurse should prioritize to have ave resuscitative equipment ready.
Resuscitative equipments include Oxygen mask with reservoir bag, Automated External Defibrillator (AED) with electrodes and razor, Oxygen mask with reservoir bag, Syringe and needles.
Antianxiety agents are drugs which are used to treat symptoms of anxiety, such as feelings of fear, dread, uneasiness, and muscle tightness, that may occur as a reaction to stress. It also helps to an evast extent to reduce anxiety.Most antianxiety agents block the action of certain chemicals in the nervous system. Also called anxiolytic and anxiolytic agent.
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physical examination reveals bluish skin, nail beds, and mucous membranes. which term correctly describes this condition?
Cyanosis is a disease that has the symptoms of bluish skin, nail beds, and the mucous membrane.
Cyanosis is a bluish color withinside the skin, lips, and nail beds due to a scarcity of oxygen withinside the blood. Cyanosis takes place due to the fact that blood with low stages of oxygen turns blue or red. This low-oxygen blood reasons a blue-red tint to the skin. Disorders of deoxygenated hemoglobin are similarly divided into broad groups: valuable cyanosis and peripheral cyanosis.
The medicines used for cyanosis are Methaemoglobinaemia, which can be genetic or related to positive drugs - eg, quinones, primaquine, sulfonamides. Sulfhaemoglobinaemia is typically related to positive drugs, specifically sulfonamides.
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