Alright I’m not smart please help

Answer:

5

Step-by-step explanation:

90% of 50 is 45.

So 50-45

5

Hope this helps

Answer:

The mean launch temperature for flights with O-ring damage is significantly lesser than Flights with No O-ring

Step-by-step explanation:

Let

Null hypothesis : H0 : μ1 ≥ μ2

Alternate hypothesis : Ha : μ1 < μ2

next calculate the test statistic

t = -2.312

calculate the P-value

p-value = T.DIST ( t ,df )  (  excel function )

            = 0.0270

Given that P-value ( 0.020 ) < level of significance ( 0.05 ) we will not fail to reject the null hypothesis

Attached below is the detailed solution

Your question is incomplete

I have provided the various variables used in the question and their types

Step-by-step explanation:

The independent/explanatory variable in this question is the number of hours spent watching tv. This variable is what is used to explain the changes that occurs in the dependent variable.

The dependent/response variable is the number of aggressive actions that the individual commits. This is the variable we are interested in. This variable is measured using the independent variable.

The confounding variable is gender. And this variable has an impact on both the dependent and the explanatory variables.

Answer:

[tex]\frac{1}{8}[/tex] cup

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]y=\frac{7}{8} -\frac{1}{4}-\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

[tex]y=\frac{7}{8}-\frac{2}{8}-\frac{4}{8}[/tex]

[tex]y=\frac{7}{8}-\frac{6}{8}[/tex]

[tex]y=\frac{1}{8}[/tex]

Answer:

C, 15 yd

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helps

Answer:

yes

no

yes

no

if their is a 6 in the y spot of the coordinate than it is a yes

Answer:

52 cards

Step-by-step explanation:

the colors I am not sure of thought sorry

Answer:

9.7 * 10 to power of 4

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Don't know the meaning of this question

Answer:

B. 300

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's take the entire number as 'x'

according to the question,

x * 64% = 193

x * 64/100 = 193

x * 64 = 193 * 100

x = 19300/ 64

x = 301.5

round down to 300

A..........

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The diagonals of a rhombus are perpendicular:

We have the equation for MT:

Perpendicular lines have negative-reciprocal diagonals, therefore AH has slope of 1/2.

Since AH passes through point (4, -5), the equation of the line is:

Correct choice is D

Answer:

c=2pie r

2*3.14*0.5

=3.14

option d

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Arrange your numbers in numerical order.

Count how many numbers you have.

If you have an odd number, divide by 2 and round up to get the position of the median number.

If you have an even number, divide by 2. Go to the number in that position and average it with the number in the next higher position to get the median.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

From the information given:

The probability distribution at the end of 6 months is determined as follows:

After 6 months;

Mean of probability distribution =  value of Initial cash  + [tex]\alpha[/tex]T  

=2.0 +(0.1 × 6)

=2.6

After 6 months;

The probability distribution's standard deviation is estimated by using the following formula:

Standard deviation:

[tex]= b\sqrt{T}[/tex]

[tex]= 0.4 \times \sqrt{6}[/tex]

= 0.9798

Hence, after 6 months;

The company's cash position is supposed to be allocated monthly, with the following expenses.

Mean                            2.6

Standard deviation     0.9798

Variance                      0.96

After 12 months, the probability distribution is as follows:

Mean = value of Initial cash  + [tex]\alpha[/tex]T

= 2.0 +(0.1 × 12)

= 3.2

The standard deviation is:

The standard deviation of probability distribution = [tex]b \sqrt{T}[/tex]

[tex]= 0.4 \times \sqrt{12}[/tex]

= 1.3856

Hence, after 6 months;

The company's cash position is supposed to be allocated monthly, with the following expenses.

Mean                            3.2

Sandard deviation      1.3856

Variance                      1.92

b)  

in 6-month distribution, the probability of the negative value of the cash position is as follows.

Now, for us to find the negative cash distribution;

We need to estimate the z -scores value.

The z-score inform us greatly on the concept of how far a particular data point is from the mean.

For a normal distribution;

[tex]z = \dfrac{x-\mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

Here;

the value of x = zero as a result that if it exceeds zero. the cash position will be negative.

∴

[tex]z = \dfrac{x-\mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

[tex]z = \dfrac{0 - 2.6}{0.9798}[/tex]

[tex]z = -2.6536[/tex]

Using the standard distribution tables, it is now possible to calculate that the likelihood N(-2.65) equals 0.004 or 0.4 percent.

As a result, there's a 0.4 percent chance of getting a negative cash balance after six months.

For 12 months distribution:

The Probability of negative cash position is calculated as follows:

[tex]z = \dfrac{x-\mu}{\sigma} \\ \\ z = \dfrac{0-3.2}{1.3856} \\ \\ z = -2.3094[/tex]

Using the standard distribution tables,

N(-2.31) equals 0.0104 or 1.04 percent.

As a result, there's a 1.04 percent chance of getting a negative cash balance after 1 year  

c) To determine the time period over which the likelihood of achieving a negative cash condition is highest, it's necessary to examine the z-score more closely. Essentially, the z-score measures the difference between a given value(x) and the mean of all potential values [tex](\mu)[/tex], expressed in terms of the total set's standard deviation [tex](\sigma)[/tex]

This suggests that the higher the z-score, the greater the difference occurring between x and [tex]\mu[/tex], and thus the likelihood of receiving x is minimal. As a result, the best chance of finding a certain value is when the z-score is the lowest.

To do so, calculate the derivative of the z-score in relation to the time interval. The point where the derivative is equivalent to zero is where the z-scores are at their lowest.

The first step is to go over the z-score formula in more detail, as seen below.;

[tex]z = \dfrac{x-\mu}{\sigma} \\ \\ z = \dfrac{0-(initial \ value + \alpha T)}{b \sqrt{T}} \\ \\ z = \dfrac{-initial \ value }{b\sqrt{T}}-\dfrac{a \sqrt{T}}{b} \\ \\[/tex]

Now, compute the derivative of this equation with respect to T as follows:

[tex]\dfrac{dz}{dT}= \dfrac{initial \ value \times T^{-\dfrac{3}{2}}}{2b} - \dfrac{aT^{-\dfrac{1}{2}}}{2b}[/tex]

Now, figure out the value of T at which this derivative is equal to zero by substituting all values as follows:

[tex]0 = \dfrac{2.0 \times T^{-\dfrac{3}{2}}}{2\times 0.4}- \dfrac{0.1 \times T^{-\dfrac{1}{2}}}{2 \times 0.4} \\ \\ \\ 0.1 \times T^{-\dfrac{1}{2}}= 2.0 \times T^{-\dfrac{3}{2}} \\ \\ \\T = \dfrac{2}{0.1} \\ \\ \\ T = 20[/tex]

As a result, the time period in which achieving a negative cash condition is = 20 months.

Answer:

A. 0.42

B. 0.12

C. 0.45

Step-by-step explanation:

A. The probability that they make the right decision on the first try

First person = 60%

Second person = 70%

= 60% * 70%

= 0.42

B. Probability that they make wrong decision

= Wrong decision from first person * wrong decision from second person

Wrong decision = 1- right decision

= 1-0.60 * 1-0.70

= 0.40x0.30

= 0.12

3. Probability they delay decision

= 0.60(1-0.60)+0.70(1-0.70)

= 0.60x0.40 + 0.70x0.30

= 0.24+ 0.21

= 0.45

The best estimate is 11/24.

To solve, find a common denominator between both 8 and 12. They can both multiply into 24.

To turn 8 into 24, you multiply by 3, so you must do the same with its numerator. To turn 12 into 24, you multiply by 2, so again, you must do the same with its numerator:

3/8 ---> 9/24

1/12 ---> 2/24

Then, you can add the numerators together and keep the denominator 24:

9/24 + 2/24 = 11/24.

Answer:

c = 15 ft

Step-by-step explanation:

a^2 + b^2 = c^2

9^2 + 12^2 = c^2

c^2 = 225

c = √225

c = 15 ft

Step-by-step explanation:

You have to click the number of Xs for each kilometer travelled. For example, there are 2 "3 km" answers, so under the 3 column, you click 2 Xs.

Answer: I believe the answer is 23k.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

obtuse, scalene

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

obtuse,scalene

Step-by-step explanation:

it is more than 180°but less than 360°

it does not have equal sides

Answer:

The answer is 6cm

Step-by-step explanation:

2cm(the one on top) and 4cm are directly opposite the unknown side which is the same when being cut horizontally so therefore the unknown side is equal to 2cm+4cm which is = 6cm

Answer:

8

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

y=x is a function!

Step-by-step explanation:

The reason it is a function is because it can create a:

A slope

A why y and x intercept

and a graph

Remember that x=1 and Y=1 ALWAYS

Answer:

The answer is c)

Step-by-step explanation:

g(x)=x^2-4