After single dose of antibiotics, how many days should a person with a bacterial infection abstain from sexual intercourse

Answers

Answer 1

It is advised to refrain from having sexual intercourse for 7 days at least. But this can vary based on the disease.

Sexually Transmitted Infections

Sexually transmitted infections are infections that are passed from one person to another sexually.  Some of the most common STIs are Bacterial vaginosis, Chlamydia, Syphilis, Gonorrhea, Hepatitis-B, Herpes, HPV, Pelvic Inflammatory Diseases, Crabs, etc.

STIs are commonly seen and can be transmitted by various non-penetrative sexual contact. Many STIs are caused by bacteria which can be cured by antibiotic treatment The treatment can be a single dose or a full course that lasts 7 days. If there is any limitation do express that to the doctor. Similarly, inform the previous partners to get them checked up.

Note: - I believe your question lacks a key component and the question should have been “after a single dose of antibiotics, how many days should a person with a bacterial infection that can be sexually transmitted (STI) abstain from sexual intercourse.”

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Related Questions

A comprehensive weight-control program should include a balanced, reduced-kcal diet and _________.

Answers

Answer:
Aerobic exercise and resistance training.

Explanation:
Any half-decent weight control program will consist of a reduced calorie diet plan and to some extent of physical activity.
The World Health Organization (WHO), recommends at least 300 minutes of moderate activity on a weekly basis for the average adult.

Question 4 of 10.
When opening a multidose vial:
Mark the vial with the date of expiration.
Expiration is 14 days from opening.
O Vaccine expiration is within 7 days of opening.
OMark for follow up
86°F

Answers

The correct answer would be to mark the date and time of opening of the vial. This is considered standard practice within the healthcare world.

Which person within a fire and emergency services organization is responsible for providing subordinates within formation on the organization's safety, health, and wellness programs

Answers

A company officer within a fire and emergency services organization is responsible for providing subordinates with the formation of the organization's safety, health, and wellness programs.

What is a company officer?

The term "Company Officer" refers to any individual who has been given permission by the Company's board of directors to sign documents that are legally binding on the Company, either directly or through their position as an officer of a general partner, manager, or other business entity that has the exclusive right to run the Company.

They are in charge of overseeing the corporation's daily operations. This can involve keeping records, selecting and dismissing employees, controlling finances, assigning responsibilities, and more. Corporate executives frequently hold the most important positions inside an organization.

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The complete question is:

Which person within a fire and emergency services organization is responsible for providing subordinates with information on the organization's safety, health, and wellness programs?

Select one:

a.Health officer

b.emergency officer

c.Company officer

d.physician

The HPV vaccine is nearly 100% effective in preventing ___ strains of HPV that cause warts and cervical cancer

Answers

The HPV vaccine primarily protects against strains #16 and #18.

Answer: #16 or #18

A client is a member of an HMO and has chronic shoulder pain from an old injury. The client has decided to pursue shoulder surgery and the HMO has required a utilization review. What will this review focus on

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A client is a member of an HMO and has chronic shoulder pain from an old injury. The client has decided to pursue shoulder surgery and the HMO has required a utilization review. His review will focus on The costs and benefits of the proposed surgery.

Health maintenance organization is referred to as HMO. Doctors, hospitals, and other healthcare professionals that have agreed to accept payment at a specific level for any services they perform are part of an HMO's network.Insurance companies use the utilization review process to determine the need for medical care and to guarantee that payment will be made for the care. Precertification or preauthorization for elective treatments, concurrent evaluation, and, if necessary, retrospective review for emergency cases are all common components of utilization review. Profits are usually a pertinent factor, but many other factors would be taken into account. A utilization review does not primarily focus on the client's baseline functioning or the circumstances of the first injury.

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The Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA) made it a ______ to cause the death of a worker by willfully violation safety laws.

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The Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA) made it a criminal punishment to cause the death of a worker by willfully violating safety laws.

The Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (OSHA) was made by congress to guarantee protected and healthy working circumstances for workers by establishing and implementing principles and by giving training, education, assistance, and outreach.

OSHA was made due to public clamor against increasing injuries, damages, and death rates at work. The organization has spent years researching and has focused their knowledge and resources on where they can have the best effect in lessening wounds, diseases, and deaths in the working environment.

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What occurred in his childhood that may have triggered schizophrenia? (A beautiful mind)

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John Nash having delusions and hallucinations was what triggered the schizophrenia condition he had.

What is Schizophrenia?

This is a type of mental disorder in which individuals have an abnormal interpretation about reality.

John Nash worked as a spy and felt Russians were after him which was why he experienced paranoid schizophrenia which he later overcame through the support of his wife and friends.

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a researcher is conducting written surey- which of the following is the most important issue thast a researcher addressed in planning the research?

Answers

The most important issue that a researcher addresses in planning the research is the confidentiality of the individual subject's responses.

What is Research?

Research may be defined as the process of methodical examination into and investigation of materials and references in order to demonstrate attributes and acquire unexplored conclusions.

Confidentiality in research is when a researcher preserves the attributes of his subject's personal and secret and permits no one to have credentials to it.

Anonymous details are usually the most reasonable and leisurely method to glorify and brag about confidentiality in the research investigation.

The complete question is as follows:

A researcher is conducting a written survey about people's attitudes toward walking as an exercise option at the local shopping mall that supports a walking program. The survey is anonymous (without codes, names, or other information) and subjects may complete the survey and place it in a box at the shopping mall exits. Which of the following is the most important issue that the researcher addressed in planning the research?

Confidentiality of the individual subject's responsesBreach of confidentialityLess predictable

Therefore, the correct option is A, i.e. Confidentiality of the individual subject's responses.

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Mrs. Peňa is 66 years old, has coverage under an employer plan, and will retire next year. She heard she must enroll in Part B at the beginning of the year to ensure no gap in coverage. What can you tell her?

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Mrs. Pena needs to enroll at any time while she is shielded under her employer plan, but she will have a remarkable eight-month registration duration that disputes from the ordinary general enrollment period, during which she may enroll in Medicare Part B without facing the issues of coverage.

What is an Employer plan?

An employer plan may be defined as a type of plan that offers various benefits to employees at no or relatively low cost during their job durations.

Therefore, it is well described above.

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Is it possible to have organ rejection even with a perfect match?

Answers

Answer:

No, it is not possible

Explanation:

Yes it is possible to have organ rejection even with a perfect match.

The more similarities of antigens between donor and recipient, less chance of organ to reject.

Causes of organ rejection.Rejection is caused by the immune system which identifying the transplant as foreign.

What is antigens?An antigens are term of immunology.An antigens are foreign matter that can bind with specific antibody or receptor.

What is recipient?The persons who receives blood, cells, tissue or organs from another person.It is also known as receiver.

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When did John Nash actually realize that his hallucinations were not real?( a beautiful mind)

Answers

Answer:

When he realized that Marcee, the imaginary niece of his imaginary roommate never gets any older.

7. The payment a health care provider receives from a third party payer is a
O A. co-payment.
O B. claim.
O C. group policy.
O D. reimbursement.

Answers

B: Claim

The payment a health care provider receives from a third party payer is a claim.

O B. claim.

Explanation:

The payment a health care provider receives from a third party payer is a claim.

Because of a heart condition, you decide to try transcendental meditation to improve your health. The benefit that you are most likely to experience is

Answers

Because of a heart condition, you decide to try transcendental meditation to improve your health. The benefit is that you are most likely to experience lowered blood sugar.

What is transcendental meditation?The Transcendental Meditation program is taught one-on-one by instructors trained and licensed by Maharishi Foundation in a personalized and individual manner.It is a simple and effective form of meditation that is shown by research to be quite effective at minimizing anxiety, helping people manage stress, and even lowering blood pressure and carrying other benefits. Those who practice transcendental meditation may experience a decrease in stress and anxiety within minutes.As with other forms of meditation, long-term practice can lead to even more positive changes, including resilience to stress, lower overall anxiety, and even greater life satisfaction.

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When insulin is administered in excess, blood glucose level ______________, producing early signs of hypoglycemia, which, if left untreated, results in a dangerous state called insulin shock.

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When insulin is administered in excess, blood glucose level decreases producing early signs of hypoglycemia, which, if left untreated, results in a dangerous state called insulin shock.

What is Insulin Shock?Low blood sugar, often known as hypoglycemia, is frequently referred to as "insulin shock." It may also be known as an insulin response. Although the precise blood sugar level that causes symptoms varies, it is typically less than 70 mg/dL.The body releases the hormone epinephrine, often known as adrenaline, in response to a low blood sugar level.The body goes into insulin shock when it is so depleted of fuel that it starts to malfunction.If one has diabetes and uses insulin to help control the blood sugar, if he/she injects too much insulin or skip a meal after injecting insulin, then he/she may end up with excess quantities in the blood.

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Hippocrates, an ancient greek philosopher, is often referred to as the ______________ of medicine.

Answers

Answer:

Hippocrates is know as the father of medicine.

Explanation:

During the initial assessment of a preterm infant, it is noted that the infant has a heart murmur. Which shunt from fetal life most likely remains open

Answers

Ductus Arteriosis shunt from fetal life most likely remains open.

What about ductus arteriosis?The foramen ovale, ductus venosus, and ductus arteriosus are the three shunts in the fetal circulation. Two umbilical artery and one umbilical vein are also present.These blood vessels close after birth and develop into ligaments. A murmur heard in a preterm newborn soon after birth would be considered to be a ductal murmur since there is a larger possibility that the ductus arteriosus will remain open in a preterm infant.Some organ systems, such as the central nervous system, are teratogen-sensitive throughout the whole pregnancy. The baby's brain and spine make up its central nervous system. Alcohol is one teratogen that has an impact on the central nervous system.

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A sedentary adult client is consuming an average of 1,326 kcal from carbohydrate, 969 kcal from lipid and 263 kcal from protein. There are NO kcal coming from ethanol. What are the respective percentages of each nutrient

Answers

The respective percentages of each nutrient are 52 %, 38 %, and 10 %

Total calori consumed by the cleint

= 1326 kcal + 96 9kcal + 263 kcal

= 2558 Kcal

Now,

percentage of carbohydrate = 1326 / 2558 - * 100 % = 51. 83 %

percentage of Lipid = 969 / 2558 *  100 % = 37. 8%

percentage of protein = 263/2558 x 100 %

= 10. 28 %

If we around up on down the values then

the

Respective % will be 52 %, 38 %,10 %

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The fluid produced by the mammary glands during the first few days after giving birth is.

Answers

[tex]\huge\underline{\red{A}\green{n}\blue{s}\purple{w}\pink{e}\orange{r} →}[/tex]

The fluid produced by the mammary glands during the first few days after giving birth is Colostrum.

Explanation:

Hope it helps you !!

Hi, I am trying to calculate the dosage of mg i should be taking per night. I am 135 pounds 5’7.

Answers

So you are ok one this

What is the appropriate cardiorespiratory endurance guideline set by the American College of Sports Medicine for the Frequency of a workout

Answers

The appropriate cardiorespiratory endurance guideline set by the American College of Sports Medicine for the Frequency of a workout is 20-60 minutes.

All healthy adults between the ages of 17 and 65 are advised to engage in vigorous-intensity aerobic activity for at least 20 minutes three days a week, or moderate-intensity aerobic activity for at least 30 minutes five days a week, according to the American College of Sports Medicine's cardiorespiratory endurance guidelines. According to the most recent edition of physical activity guidelines for Americans, to get the maximum health advantages from physical exercise, children and adolescents aged 6 to 17 must engage in at least 60 minutes of moderate-intensity movement each day. Thus, the duration of 20-60 minutes is considered best for aerobic exercise.

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Women with decreased numbers or function of a certain type of immune system cell experience pregnancy complications including implantation failure and miscarriage. A deficiency of which cell type might cause such pregnancy outcomes

Answers

Option C - T cells (Tregs) stand for regulatory T cells

Recent systematic studies have shown that Treg levels are significantly decreased in peripheral blood and decidua of pregnant and non-pregnant women with recurrent miscarriages (RM).

This underlines the hypothesis that Tregs play a role in the pathogenesis of RM. To ensure a robust placenta and sustainable pregnancy, an active state of tolerance on the level of immunity by Tregs is essential.  

Survival of the allogeneic embryo in the uterus depends on the maintenance of immune tolerance at the maternal-fetal interface. The pregnant uterus is replete with activated maternal immune cells. How this immune tolerance is acquired and maintained has been a topic of intense investigation. The key immune cells that predominantly populate the pregnant uterus are natural killer (NK) cells.

In normal pregnancy, these cells are not killers, but rather provide a microenvironment that is pregnancy compatible and supports healthy placentation. In placental mammals, an array of highly orchestrated immune elements to support successful pregnancy outcomes has been incorporated. This includes active cooperation between maternal immune cells, particularly NK cells, and trophoblast cells.

Please check the attached file for the complete question.

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To participate in the PACE program, an elderly person must A. have been certified for nursing home placement B. be a Medicaid beneficiary C. need only community-based long-term care services D. undergo preadmission screening and resident review (PASRR)

Answers

To participate in the PACE program, an elderly person must have been certified for nursing home placement.

The answer is option A.

PACE provides complete clinical and social offerings to positive frail, aged people (individuals) nonetheless dwelling inside the network. Most of the individuals who are in pace are dually eligible for each Medicare and Medicaid.

Federal government-assisted or even free home care is furnished by the PACE program. The service is for older Americans and it could help keep them out of a nursing home or assisted residing facility.

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Using gestational age, when people take pregnancy tests as soon as they are able to detect pregnancy (hCG hormone), they are considered to be about __ week(s) pregnant.

Answers

Using gestational age, when people take pregnancy tests as soon as they are able to detect pregnancy (hCG hormone), they are considered to be about 4 weeks pregnant.

What is gestational age?

The word most frequently used to express how far along a pregnancy is, throughout pregnancy is gestational age. From the start day of the woman's most recent menstrual cycle to the present day, it is counted in weeks. A typical pregnancy might last between 38 and 42 weeks.

The EDD is determined by adding 266 days to the date of conception under circumstances where the conception date is precisely known, such as in vitro fertilization. The gestational age is calculated by ultrasound by measuring the size of the fetus (the time elapsed since the first day of the last menstrual period).

In a pregnant woman's blood, the typical concentrations of hCG are 6 -  70 IU/L over 3 weeks. 10 - 750 IU/L over 4 weeks. 5 weeks: 200 - 7,100 IU/L.

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Term birth, living male, cesarean delivery, with hemolytic disease due to ABO incompatibility. Code the baby’s record.
ICD-10-CM:
ICD-10-CM:

Answers

Full-term, live male, cesarean delivery(ICD 10 - O82), with hemolytic disease due to ABO incompatibility(ICD 10 - P55). Code in the baby registry.

ICD 10 - O82 Single delivery by cesarean sectionICD 10 - P55 Hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn

What does the ICD mean?

The International Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems, better known as the ICD, is one of the main epidemiological tools in everyday medical practice. The main function of the ICD is to monitor the incidence and prevalence of diseases, through universal standardization.

With this information, we can conclude that ICD-10 is the 10th revision of the International Statistical Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems

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If intakes of saturated fat, trans fatty acids, and/or cholesterol are above the recommendations, the MOST LIKELY risk would be

Answers

If intakes of saturated fat, trans fatty acids, and/or cholesterol are above the recommendations, the MOST LIKELY risk would be heart disease.

What is heart disease?

Coronary artery disease is mistakenly and narrowly referred to as "heart disease".

Cardiovascular disease, which refers to any condition of the heart or blood arteries, is not the same as heart disease.

The four types of heart disease.

Coronary artery diseaseArrhythmiaHeart valve diseaseHeart failure

The most typical cause of coronary artery disease is atherosclerosis, which is a buildup of fatty plaques in your arteries.

Coronary artery disease (CAD), heart arrhythmias, heart failure, heart valve disease, pericardial disease, cardiomyopathy (Heart Muscle Disease), congenital heart disease are the symptoms of heart disease.

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In the United States approximately ______ percent of births occur in hospitals, with sterile procedures, electronic monitoring, and drugs to dull pain.

Answers

In the United States approximately 98 percent of births occur in hospitals, with sterile procedures, electronic monitoring, and drugs to dull pain.

Which are the natural childbirth methods attempt to reduce the pain?The Leboyer technique, hypnosis, psychoanalgesia (natural childbirth and psychoprophylaxis), acupuncture, transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS), aromatherapy, touch and massage, mother movement and postural changes throughout labor, and water birthing are some of these methods.Because the majority of CPMs work in homes and birthing facilities, they must have experience giving birth there.The umbilical cord, placenta, and other membranes are cut loose and ejected. It is the stage of childbirth that lasts the longest.

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Mrs. Higgins believes that aliens from another planet have removed her stomach and are watching her to see how long it takes her to grow another one. Mrs. Higgins is most likely suffering from.

Answers

In this case, Mrs. Higgins is most likely suffering from a mental disorder called schizophrenia.

What is schizophrenia?

Schizophrenia is a mental (cognitive)  disease characterized to have hallucinations and loss of memory.

Schizophrenia symptoms include delusions based on fictitious situations, hallucinations beyond the real context, speech problems and motor problems that affect the normal movement of the individual.

Schizophrenia is a degenerative progressive disease that may be alleviated with proper medical care .

In conclusion, Mrs. Higgins suffers from a mental condition called schizophrenia.

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During your assessment, you ask Hilda what dietary restrictions (if any) she has been following for her hypertension and diabetes. What type of historical information does this provide?

Answers

Excessive amount of sugar and oily dietary restrictions was followed by her in the condition of hypertension and diabetes.

Hypertension : A condition in which the force of the blood against the artery walls is too high.

Usually hypertension is defined as blood pressure above 140/90, and is considered severe if the pressure is above 180/120.

Diabetes : a  disease in which the body’s ability to produce or respond to the hormone insulin is impaired, resulting in abnormal metabolism of carbohydrates and elevated levels of glucose in the blood and urine.

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Adults who are physically active are healthier and less likely to develop many chronic diseases than adults who are inactive. Adults who are physically active are healthier and less likely to develop many chronic diseases than adults who are inactive. True False

Answers

The given statement is TRUE that, Adults who are physically active are healthier and less likely to develop many chronic diseases than adults who are inactive.

Adults who spend less time sitting and engage in any level of moderate-to-vigorous exercise reap some health benefits.

It is undeniably proven that physical inactivity increases the risk of cardiovascular disease and other illnesses:

People who are less fit and active are more likely to acquire high blood pressure.One can lower their risk of type 2 diabetes by exercising.According to studies, persons who are physically active have a lower risk of coronary heart disease than those who are inactive. This is true even after researchers took into account food, drinking, and smoking habits.Lack of exercise can make anxiety and depression symptoms worse.Lack of exercise may make some malignancies more likely.Overweight or obese adults who were physically active greatly lowered their risk of disease.Physical activity among older persons can lower their risk of falling and osteoporosis.Physical activity can strengthen the bones and muscles, help maintain a healthy weight, increase the ability to carry out daily tasks, and improve cognitive health.

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The word obese is generally used to describe people who are dangerously (for their own health) overweight. Growing obesity is definitely an American environmental trend. According to the book, ___ of Americans are obese.

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The word obese is generally used to describe people who are dangerously (for their own health) overweight. Growing obesity is definitely an American environmental trend. According to the book, more than 1/3 of Americans are obese.

Eco-products, Sustainable investing, Renewable power, and, internet-zero emissions are key sustainable business developments for 2021. they'll create sufficient risks and opportunities to shake the manner corporations operate not in 2050 but in 2021.

The notion is the sensory revel in of the arena. It includes each recognizing environmental stimuli and actions in reaction to those stimuli. through the perceptual procedure, we advantage information about the properties and elements of the surroundings that are vital to our survival.

Environmental traits that are breaking favorably for the fulfillment potentialities of marketers' modern strategic marketing plans or the ones they could expand in the destiny.

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