after 4 minutes of rescue breathing no pulse is present during pulse check, what immediate actions should be taken

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Answer 1

After 4 minutes of rescue breathing no pulse is present during pulse check, It is advised to immediately begin CPR and turn on the AED.

What is CPR?

Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is described as an emergency procedure consisting of chest compressions often combined with artificial ventilation in an effort to manually preserve intact brain function until further measures are taken to restore spontaneous blood circulation and breathing in a person who is in cardiac arrest.

It is also advised to continue CPR until prompted by the AED to allow a rhythm check, the ALS team arrives, or the patient starts to move.

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a client diagnosed with narcolepsy expresses reluctance to rely on medication therapy. what recommendation should the nurse provide?

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An individual with narcolepsy shows resistance. To prevent sleep deprivation, the nurse offers keeping regular resting and waking intervals.

Describe narcolepsy.

Severe sleep disturbances and unplanned sleep episodes are characteristics of the daytime sleepiness disorder narcolepsy. People without narcolepsy usually are unable to remain awake for prolonged periods of time, regardless of the circumstance. Narcolepsy has the potential to seriously interrupt your daily routine.

What are two causes of narcolepsy?

It has been suggested that hormonal changes, such as those that occur around puberty or midlife, may act as narcolepsy triggers. a sickness, such as the avian flu, or the vaccine was using to prevent it can cause substantial psychological stress. The onset of narcolepsy symptoms typically happens between the ages of 15 and 30. A interval of sleep is frequently followed by a strong desire to sleep.

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a 3-month-old female develops colicky pain, abdominal distention, and diarrhea after drinking cow's milk. the best explanation for her symptoms is:

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D) Excess of undigested lactose in her digestive tract, resulting in increased fluid movement into the digestive lumen and increased bowel motility and develops  colicky pain, abdominal distention, and diarrhea after drinking cow's milk.

Milk and milk products include the sugar lactose. When your small intestine produces insufficient amounts of the digesting enzyme lactase, lactose intolerance results. In order for your body to absorb lactose from meals, lactase breaks it down. Milk. Milk, particularly that from cows, goats, and sheep, is a significant source of lactose in our diet. You might need to alter the amount of milk in your diet, depending on how light or severe your lactose sensitivity is.

a 3-month-old female develops colicky pain, abdominal distention, and diarrhea after drinking cow's milk. the best explanation for her symptoms is?

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the nurse determines that which individual presenting to the clinic is at the greatest risk for development of an integumentary disorder?

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An outdoor construction worker is the individual presenting to the clinic is at the greatest risk for development of an integumentary disorder.

The integumentary system is prone to a number of illnesses, conditions, and wounds. These can include skin cancer and severe burns, both of which can be fatal, as well as irksome but often benign bacterial or fungal infections that are classified as diseases.

Some major disorders of the integumentary system: -

Acne. Alopecia Areata. Atopic Dermatitis.Epidermolysis Bullosa.Hidradenitis Suppurativa (HS).Ichthyosis. Pachyonychia Congenita. Pemphigus.

The major organ of the body that physically separates the internal environment it protects and maintains from the exterior environment is the integumentary system. The epidermis, dermis, hypodermis, related glands, hair, and nails are all a part of the integumentary system.

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nursing sensitive indicators that improve if there is a greater quantity or quality of nursing care are referred to as: group of answer choices structure indicators. process indicators. outcome indicators. standard indicators.

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Aspects of nursing care including evaluation, intervention, and RN work satisfaction are measured by process indicators. Patient outcomes that are found to be nursing sensitive are those that advance with higher levels of nursing care, either in terms of quantity or quality.

Nursing-specific indicators capture the framework, workflow, and results of nursing care. The availability of nursing personnel, the caliber of the nursing staff, and the training/certification of the nursing staff are all indicators of the structure of nursing care. Nursing-sensitive indicators pinpoint care structures and care workflows, both of which have an impact on patient outcomes. Nursing-sensitive indicators are separate from medical indicators of care quality and are unique to nursing. For instance, the number of hours of nursing care supplied each patient day is one structural nursing indication.

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the nurse administers a drug that stimulates beta2 receptors. what type of health condition would this drug treat?

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The progression of diabetes would be made worse by the breakdown of glycogen, rising serum glucose levels, and stimulation of these receptors.

Some heart conditions could be improved by beta1-receptor activation, which also causes more lipolysis. Beta2-receptor stimulation would worsen diabetes since these receptors stimulate glucagon release and glycogen breakdown, which raise serum glucose levels.

The effects of the neurochemical neurotransmitter are mediated through a family of particle channels known as nicotinic receptors, which are among the best known allosteric membrane proteins from both a structural and functional standpoint. Nicotine increases or decreases heart rate and blood pressure through activating nAChRs in both sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglia.

GI motility is regulated by presynaptic nicotinic neurotransmitter receptors (nAChRs) located on myenteric neurons.

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what serum blood level wound the nurse epxect to be decreased in a client with a diagnosis of hyperparathyroidism

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The nurse would expect to see a decreased serum calcium level in a client with a diagnosis of hyperparathyroidism.

Decreased Serum Calcium Level in Hyperparathyroidism

Hyperparathyroidism is a condition in which the parathyroid glands produce too much parathyroid hormone. This increase in parathyroid hormone leads to an increase in calcium levels in the body. The nurse would expect to see a decreased serum calcium level in a client with a diagnosis of hyperparathyroidism.

This decrease in serum calcium level is due to the excessive production of parathyroid hormone, which causes the body to draw calcium out of the blood and into the bones and tissues.

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which instruction would the nurse include in the teaching plan for a patient wwith ulcerative colisitis about ileostomy care?

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The instruction which would be in the first in the priority list for the patient suffering from ulcerative colitis would be Avoid taking enteric-coated medications.

An enteric coating medication are tablets which remain intact as they pass through the acidic stomach till they reach the desired portion and then get activated. Ulcerative colitis is a long-term condition in which the colon and rectum become inflamed, however the cause behind this condition is still not discovered. It may be due to abnormal immune response or genetic history. The common and harmful symptoms of ulcerative colitis are diarrhea and bloody stools which may also include abdominal pain, fever, chills and weight loss due to low appetite. Use of certain skin sealants and ostomy skin cream could be beneficial in the treatment of this disease. The extreme condition of ulcerative colitis can cause Colorectal cancer in rare cases in some patients.

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a patient has expressive speaking aphasia after having a stroke. which portion of the brain does the nurse know has been affected?

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D) Inferior posterior frontal areas. A group of communication problems known as aphasia develop when the language center of the brain is harmed.

How is the Broca's region affected by a stroke?

Injury to the frontal areas of the left hemisphere affects how sentences are put together from individual words. Broca's Aphasia, which manifests as difficulty constructing entire phrases, may result from this.

How might a stroke result in aphasia?

A stroke, which is the obstruction or rupture of a blood artery in the brain, is the most frequent cause of aphasia and results in brain damage. Language-related brain regions suffer from cell death or damage as a result of blood flow problems.

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which of the following is not a benefit provided by either enhanced 911 or enhanced cad systems that utilize mobile digital terminals (mdts)?

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Elimination of responses to non-life-threatening emergency calls is not a benefit provided by either enhanced 911 or enhanced cad systems that utilize mobile digital terminals (mdts)

While there are a few exceptional circumstances in which mitigation may not be possible and organizations may only be able to provide palliative care after an emergency, most emergencies necessitate urgent response to prevent a deterioration of the condition.

Many less severe situations necessitate a determination of whether they qualify as an emergency by the observer (or affected party). This is not always the case, even when certain emergencies are obvious (like a natural disaster that poses a serious threat to many people). Depending on the jurisdiction, the government, whose agencies (emergency services) are in charge of emergency planning and management, typically sets the specific definition of an emergency, the agencies engaged, and the procedures utilized.

The complete question is:

Enhanced 911 or enhanced CAD utilizes mobile digital terminals (MDTs). Which of the following is not a benefit provided by these systems?

a. direct interface between the patrol unit and local, county, state, and federal criminal justice information system computers

b. dramatic increase in response time

c. elimination of responses to non-life-threatening emergency calls

d. better coordination of all emergency agencies, since their movements can be monitored visually by both officers at the scene and dispatchers

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when i am communicating to others about a patient, i only share the protected health information (phi) necessary for them to complete their job. this is an example of:

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Operational disclosure is an example of sharing only necessary protected health information (PHI) necessary for others to complete their job.

There is a delicate line between disclosing just enough PHI to support operations and going overboard. In accordance with the minimal necessary standard, you may only disclose PHI that is necessary to carry out an activity. Operations disclosures that are acceptable include:

Making sure patients are safe

Creating a protocol

completing compliance or training programs

Performing quality evaluations and improvement initiatives

Monitoring for fraud and abuse

preparing for business expansion and operations

Furthermore, there are other circumstances in which disclosing PHI is acceptable aside from TPO disclosures.

The complete question is:

When I am communicating with others about a patient, I only share the protected health information (PHI) necessary for them to complete their job. this is an example of___________.

(A). Treatment Disclosers

(B). Payment Disclosers

(C). Operations Disclosers

(D). Preventing a health threat or Harm

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a nurse is preparing a presentation for a group of staff nurses on personality disorders. when describing antisocial personality disorders (aspd), the nurse would explain that for a person to be diagnosed with the disorder, the person must be at least which age?

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The nurse would describe the antisocial personality disorders of a person would to be diagnosed at least the age of 18.

Sociopathy, or antisocial personality disorder, is characterised by a persistent disrespect for right and wrong, as well as the rights and feelings of others.

Early in life, usually by the age of 8, ASPD manifests itself. If antisocial behaviours have continued after a conduct disorder diagnosis in childhood, the diagnosis changes to ASPD around age 18. Even though ASPD is typically chronic and lifelong for its victims, it tends to become better as people age.

Antisocial personality disorder has no recognised aetiology. Environmental variables, such as child abuse, as well as hereditary ones are thought to have an impact on this disorder. People with alcoholic or antisocial parent are more vulnerable. Men are impacted much more than women.

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miley wants to know what kind of health and longevity she can expect for her future. based on research to date, what factor will have the greatest effect on her health and longevity?

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Miley wants to know lifestyle behaviors of health and longevity she can expect for her future.

What are lifestyle behaviors?

A person's values, knowledge, and norms are shaped by their broader cultural and socioeconomic context, which results in their everyday behaviors, which are referred to as lifestyle behaviors. These actions have an impact on body weight and general health and are influenced by a number of social traits.

Numerous chronic diseases, such as cancer, cardiovascular disease, diabetes, and stroke are prevented by leading a healthy lifestyle that includes eating fruits and vegetables, exercising regularly, and maintaining a healthy weight.

A healthy, balanced diet; drinking plenty of water; exercising frequently; are all examples of lifestyle factors.

Get lots of rest.

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a client with motion sickness is prescribed transdermal scopolamine. the nurse would instruct the client to apply the patch at which frequency?

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To stop motion sickness-related nausea and vomiting: Adults: For a minimum of three days, apply single patch while behind ear as least 4 hours well before effect is required.

What is a transdermal scopolamine?

Following anesthesia, opioid painkillers, and surgery, scopolamine transdermal patches are used to reduce nausea and vomiting. Additionally, it's utilized to stop motion sickness-related nausea and vomiting. Scopolamine is a member of the class of drugs known as anticholinergics.

How should a transdermal scopolamine patch be applied?

Behind your ear, on a healthy, dry, and unbroken piece of skin, apply the patch. Select a spot devoid of scars, cuts, soreness, tenderness, or inflammation. The region should also have minimal to no hair. With your fingertips, pull the patch firmly into position to ensure that the edges adhere effectively.

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a client admitted with digitalis toxicity has taking the same dose for more than 10 years. what question should the nurse ask to assess for the possible cause of the increased serum level of the medication?

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The question the nurse should ask "Do you take regular doses of antacids?".

High degrees of digitalis in the body can beget digitalis toxicity. A minor forbearance to the medicine can also create digitalis toxicity. People with lower forbearance may have an average ranking of digitalis in their blood. They may evolve digitalis toxin if they've other threat procurators.

Antacids are drugs that offset( neutralize) the acid in your belly to help with indigestion and heartburn. They are nigh as fluid or chewable tablets and can be picked up from apothecaries and stores without a prescription.

Antacids don't generally possess numerous side effects if they are simply held sometimes and at the recommended pill.

Retain a sickness that means you require to hold how important salt( sodium) is in your diet, like as high blood pressure or cirrhosis – some antacids bear high standings of sodium, which could frame you unhealthy are holding other drugs – antacids can snoop with other drugs and may necessitate be avoided or held at an unlike time.

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performed on a person who is admitted and discharged from a surgical facility on the same day

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Outpatient surgery is when you have a surgical procedure done and then later that same day you go home.

individuals with diabetes have a difficult time metabolizing foods that are high in

Answers

Blood sugar levels can be raised by consuming a lot of simple carbs, which digest quickly and give out more energy than a person requires. Long-term high levels could prevent the body from producing enough insulin to bring them down to a healthy level.

What is it that diabetics struggle to metabolize?

Insulin resistance hinders the body's capacity to metabolize glucose and is most prevalent in pre-diabetes, metabolic syndrome, and type 2 diabetes. As a result, weight gain is more common, blood sugar levels rise, and insulin resistance increases.

Do diabetics suffer gastrointestinal issues?

Numerous conditions can induce nausea, heartburn, or bloating, but diabetics should pay special attention to these frequent digestive problems.

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the practical nurse (pn) administers two newly prescribed medications, isosorbide dinitrate (a nitrate) and hydrochlorothiazide (a diuretic), to a client. what instructions should the pn reinforce with the client in regard to these medications?

Answers

Isosorbide doesn't often require any monitoring. But patients with low blood pressure and a slow heartbeat should be monitored, and patients who are receiving long-term diuretic treatment.

When situations or activities may cause an attack, take the isosorbide before the first symptoms of chest pain appear. Oral isosorbide dinitrate should be taken on an empty stomach, one hour before or two hours after meals. Sustained-release medications shouldn't be chewed or crushed, and isosorbide mononitrate shouldn't be used to treat acute anginal attacks.

To treat high blood pressure, hydrochlorothiazide may be taken alone or in combination with other medications (hypertension). The workload on the heart and arteries is increased by high blood pressure. In long persists og it can cause the disfunction of heart and arteries.

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a pregnant client in the third trimester tells the nurse in the prenatal clinic that she is experiencing heartburn after every meal. which explanation would the nurse provide regarding the cause of the heartburn?

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The nurse in the pre-natal clinic should explain the pregnant client in the third trimester that the esophageal Spencer relaxes and allows acid to be regurgitated.

Heartburn, also known as pyrosis, is a condition that develops in the second part of pregnancy as a result of esophageal sphincter relaxation and acid regurgitation. The issue is exacerbated by delayed stomach emptying brought on by impaired gastric motility and stomach displacement brought on by uterine expansion. During pregnancy, gastric motility is diminished. The amount of acid that is regurgitated into the esophagus is reduced or eliminated when the stomach pH rises because the gastric secretions become more alkaline. Acid does not enter the small intestine and the pyloric sphincter does not relax.

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which evaluation finding requires follow up by the nurse caring for a client with a total knee replacement? select all that apply.

Answers

A) 650 ml bloody drainage in drain wound, B) Knee flexion at 30° .Fluid that builds up in the wound is removed by a suction drain. 200 to 400 ml of discharge is typical during the first 24 hours following surgery.

What nursing care should the patient receive first while in the pacu?

A report of patient's condition must be given to the receiving nurse on the unit as well as the patient's family. Nursing interventions must include monitoring vital signs, and neurologic status; managing pain; evaluating the surgical site; assessing and maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance; and managing the surgical site.

What four factors are evaluated during a post-operative assessment?

The intraoperative history, postoperative instructions, circulatory volume status, respiratory status, and cognitive state should all be considered in this evaluation.

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you volunteer at a children's hospital a little boy who has only been able to see in black and white his entire life is undergoing an operation tomorrow

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little boy who has only been able to see in black and white his entire life is undergoing  Achromatopsia is a condition that causes either partial or complete loss of colour perception.

A person with complete achromatopsia is unable to see color; instead, they only perceive black, white, and various tones of gray. Incomplete achromatopsia, a less severe variant of the condition, allows for some degree of colour perception. Photophobia, an increased sensitivity to light and glare, and nystagmus, an uncontrollable  back and forth of the eyes, are additional vision problems related to achromatopsia. The afflicted may also experience nearsightedness (myopia) or, less frequently, farsightedness (hyperopia). These vision problems first appear in the first few months of life.

Achromatopsia differs from the more common varieties of colour blindness (sometimes called colour vision impairment), in which people can perceive colour but have problems differentiating specific hues, such as red and green.

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which pressure change does the nurse determine to be the cause of edema for a cliwnt with albuminuria

Answers

The nurse determines that changes in pressure from within the blood vessels as a cause of edema in clients with albuminuria.

What is albuminuria?

Albuminuria or proteinuria is an increase in the amount of protein in a person's urine. Albuminuria is not a disease. However, the condition can indicate a person has kidney problems.

Damage to the kidneys that causes high levels of protein in the urine is known as nephrotic syndrome.

The main symptom of nephrotic syndrome is fluid buildup in the body or edema. Edema occurs due to low protein in the blood. If the protein level is lacking, fluid from the blood vessels will leak out and accumulate in the body's tissues.

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how would the nurse care for the access site after removing the needle from the implanted port of a central venous access device (cvad)?

Answers

Insert the saline-filled syringe after thoroughly cleaning the end cap on the extension tubing in this way the nurse care for the access site.

What duties do you have as a nurse when caring for patients who have Cvads?

The CVAD bundle concentrates on five essential components: hand hygiene, maximum sterile barrier, chlorhexidine antiseptic, catheter site choice, and daily assessment of the device's need. After the CVAD is installed, the nurse is in charge of providing evidence-based care and maintenance.

Using sterile gauze swabs, cover the catheter insertion site with one hand while removing the catheter firmly but gently with the other. As the catheter is being taken out, gently press down while being careful not to massage the exit site. Stop and call medical personnel if you feel any resistance.

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one of the ways of improving patient compliance with regard to taking antipsychotic medication involves the use of:

Answers

One of the ways of improving patient compliance with regard to taking antipsychotic medication involves the use of injectable medications.

The medication can be released into the bloodstream gradually with long-acting injectables (LAIs). Abilify Maintena or Aristada, Haldol decanoate, Invega Sustenna or Invega Trinza, fluphenazine decanoate, Risperdal Consta, and Zyprexa Relprevv are a few injectable drugs used for individuals with mental diseases.

frequently used injectable drugs including hyaluronic acid, cortisone, and other unusual compounds (for example, botulinum toxin). The anti-inflammatory and antinociceptive effects of corticosteroids are well known.

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a 20-year-old male was recently diagnosed with lactose intolerance. he eats an ice cream cone and develops diarrhea. his diarrhea can be classified as:

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As per the given scenario, his diarrhea can be classified as osmotic diarrhea. The correct option is A.

What is osmotic diarrhea?

Diarrhea is characterized by loose, watery, and possibly more frequent bowel movements.

It can occur alone or in conjunction with other symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, or weight loss. Fortunately, diarrhea is usually only temporary, lasting only a few days.

Diarrhea persists for more than two days without relief. Excessive thirst, dry mouth or skin, urinary incontinence, severe weakness, dizziness or lightheadedness, or dark-colored urine could all be symptoms of dehydration. Abdominal or rectal pain that is severe. Stools that are bloody or black.

Lactose intolerance was recently diagnosed in a 20-year-old male. He eats an ice cream cone and gets diarrhea; his diarrhea is called osmotic diarrhea.

Thus, the correct option is A.

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Your question seems incomplete, the missing options are:

a.

Osmotic

b.

Secretory

c.

Hypotonic

d.

Motility

a child has been receiving a cns stimulant for long-term treatment of attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (adhd). the nurse would be especially alert for which finding? select all that apply.

Answers

The nurse would be especially alert for growth, weight loss for a child has been receiving a CNS stimulant for long-term treatment of attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder.

So the correct answer is option  C and E

Examples of central nervous system stimulants used to treat attention deficit disorder, narcolepsy, or excessive sleepiness include amphetamines, methylphenidate, atomoxetine, modafinil, armodafinil, pitolisant, and solriamfetol. Transdermal use of methylphenidate-containing skin patches is one choice. It is often applied in the morning, once daily, two hours before the intended effect, and left on for up to nine hours. Any prescription label instructions that you are unsure about following, ask your doctor or pharmacist to explain. Observe the methylphenidate patch directions to the letter.

For children and adolescents with ADHD, methylphenidate is the first-line medication, whereas amphetamines are the first-line therapy for adults. Users of prescription stimulants report experiencing a euphoric "rush" as well as elevated blood pressure and heart rate. 

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The complete question is as follows

A child has been receiving a CNS stimulant for long-term treatment of ADHD. the nurse would be especially alert for which finding? select all that apply:

a. respiratory depression

b. hypotension

c. growth

d. hyperglycemia

e. weight loss

the nurse is caring for a client with myasthenia gravis who has received edrophonium intravenously to test for myasthenic crisis. the client asks the nurse how long the improvement in muscle strength will last. the nurse's response is based on the understanding that the duration is usually how many minutes?

Answers

The improvement in muscle strength will last about 30 minutes.

Myasthenia gravis:

Any muscle within your voluntary control will become weak and rapidly fatigued if you have myasthenia gravis. It results from a breakdown in the regular transmission of information between neurons and muscles.

Myasthenia gravis has no known cure, but treatment can ease its signs and symptoms, including muscle weakness in the arms or legs, double vision, drooping eyelids, and problems speaking, chewing, swallowing, and breathing.

Although this illness can strike anyone at any age, it tends to strike women under the age of 40 and men over the age of 60 more frequently.

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what is the individual mandate component of the patient protection and affordable care act? a declaration that each individual is responsible for his or her own health care needs and should not look to the government for assistance a policy measure that assigns, or mandates, each patient to an approved primary care provide

Answers

Individual mandates obliging people to get insurance. Each person is in charge of providing for their own medical requirements and shouldn't depend on the government for support or a certain policy.

What does the Affordable Care Act require?

The Affordable Care Act's individual mandate obliged people to buy the minimum necessary insurance coverage or pay a tax penalty, unless they qualified for an exemption.

What does the individual mandate aim to achieve?

The idea behind the individual mandate is that by making insurance mandatory for everyone, even healthy individuals, the risk pools will be large enough to cut premiums for everyone, including those with expensive medical issues.

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while enrolled in a weight-loss program for employees of the company where he worked, gavin lost nearly 100 pounds over a period of 14 months. at the same time, his bmr slowed. then he was laid off. over the next six months, his bmr remained slowed, and he regained two-thirds of the weight he had lost. which of the following hypotheses best explains this phenomenon?

Answers

The given occurrence is best explained by set point gene hypotheses. According to the set point hypothesis, the human body seeks to keep its weight within the desired range.

Throughout their adult lives, many people maintain a body weight range that is more or less narrow. Some people's bodies may keep them thin when they're young yet permit them to put on weight once they reach middle age. The human body employs regulatory processes to maintain its weight within this range of natural set points. For instance, if you consume a bit more than is necessary to maintain your weight, your body temperature will normally increase and your metabolism will speed up in order to burn off the extra energy.

Thus, we can conclude that set point gene hypotheses provide the best explanation for the observed phenomenon. The set point theory states that the body tries to maintain its weight within the specified range.

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the nurse plans to teach a 7-year-old child with recently diagnosed type 1 diabetes how to give insulin injections. which would be included in the first lesson? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.

Answers

When the cells in the pancreas quit generating insulin, type 1 diabetes occurs. Without insulin, glucose cannot reach the muscles cells for use as fuel.

Instead, blood glucose levels increase, which makes a person feel incredibly sick. If insulin is not replaced, type 1 diabetes can be fatal. Insulin injections are required for the rest of a person's life if they have type 1 diabetes.

Do not reuse needles.Remove all bubbles from the syringe before injection.Do not move the direction of the needle-syringe during insertion or withdrawal.

Type 1 diabetes can strike anyone at any age, but it most frequently affects young children and those under 30. A person's lifestyle does not contribute to this illness. Although the precise origin is unknown, research indicates that someone with a genetic predisposition may be affected by anything in the environment. The immune system of the body attacks and annihilates.

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Vesalius and other sixteenth-century physicians, who made important contributions to medical knowledge, had which of the following in common?a.A realization that microscopic infection caused diseaseb.A heavy reliance on hospitals to treat serious injuriesc.Knowledge of a primitive system of vaccinationd.Anatomical knowledge based on dissection of apese.A willingness to challenge Greco-Roman medical authority

Answers

Vesalius and other sixteenth-century physicians, who made important contributions to medical knowledge, had a willingness to challenge Greco-Roman medical authority in common.

Andreas Vesalius was a 16th-century expert, physician, and author of 1 of the foremost prestigious books on human anatomy, First State Humani Corporis Fabrica Libri Septem. anatomist is commonly stated because the founding father of fashionable human anatomy. He was born in Belgian capital, that was then a part of the royal family Of Netherlands (European country).

One of the primary distinguished doctors in Greco-Roman medical authority was anatomist Galen. He became AN knowledgeable on the human anatomy by dissecting animals, as well as monkeys, in Greece.

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individuals suffering from a zinc deficiency should include more whole grains and beans in their diets. t/f shows the light intensity on a screen behind a double slit. the slit spacing is 0.20 mm and the screen is 1.7 m behind the slits. what is the wavelength (in nm ) of the light? Noblemen and ladies both participated every day in. Compared to noblemen, noblewomen were more directly involved with. A noblewoman had to be prepared to assume many of a nobleman's responsibilities because the nobleman might frequently be. which of the following is the process of learning how other firms do things in an exceptionally high-quality manner? Decribe one way the pread of Buddhim led Chinee culture to change during the Period 1200-1450 Penelope wants to open a chain of Yoga studios but does not have the funds to do so. Penelope has not had any luck attracting large investors, so her friend suggests she try crowdfunding. Crowdfunding is a cooperative activity in which people network and pool funds and other resources via the Internet to assist a cause or invest in a venture. Penelope may raise money for her Yoga studios venture by crowdfunding as long as:A. she does not prohibit the resale of the security.B. she provides detailed offering information in all outside advertising.C. sales of securities are no more than $1 million in any 12-month period.D. she sells the funds on at least seven online sites. What is Latin Christmas called? Emily has used a rhetorical appeal in this excerpt. How does the appeal strengthen her claim? her use of ethos establishes her expertise in the area of baking because she attended a culinary university. Her use of logos provides facts about the benefits of baking, which strengthens her claim. Her use of pathos evokes empathy in the listener, making them want to bake goods for community bake sales. Her use of pathos describes her learning to bake with her grandmother, which makes her a credible source. which of the following involves admitting to having a serious problem, recognizing there is an outside (or higher) power that could help, consciously relying on that power, admitting and listing character defects, seeking deliverance from shortcomings, apologizing to people you have harmed, and helping others with the same problem dieter opens an account for $100,000 at east state bank. the account provides that its funds, which represent most of dieter's assets, are held in trust for flo, the bank employee who opens the account and who retains the card required to access it. less than a year later, dieter dies, and flo withdraws the funds. these facts indicate a living trust. a nuncupative will. descent by election. undue influence. Which statements are TRUE regarding the post-registration requirements of the Uniform Securities Act?I Broker-dealers are subject to post-registration requirementsII Broker-dealers are not subject to post-registration requirementsIII Agents of broker-dealers are subject to post-registration requirementsIV Agents of broker-dealers are not subject to post-registration requirements what are the traditional source of islam? Describe the different schools of thought for how we should approach these sources. Which do you agree with and why? Which graph is not a function?Please help me!!! which of the following can be transmitted from an infected mother to her fetus across the placenta and is typically acquired most often during the second pregnancy? Analyze and record transactions for merchandise purchases using a perpetual system. Journal Entry A buyer uses a perpetual inventory system, and it purchased $4,000 of merchandise on credit terms of 2/10, n/30 on December 15, the buyer pays the invoice in full. Complete the buyer's necessary journal entry by selecting the account names and dollar amounts from the drop-down menus. The order of the account names in the journal entry must match the illustration set forth in this module. 5. Later, on Dec. 15 based on the following statements, which european policy is described? colonies are required to provide raw materials. development of manufacturing in the colonies is discouraged. after injuring seven macaw with a blowgun while he takes breakfast at the nance tree, the twin hunahpu is overpowered and loses which object? The diagrams above represent two allotropes of solid phosphorus. Which of the following correctly identifies the allotrope with the higher melting point and explains why?Allotrope I, because it has P4 molecules with covalent bonds that are stronger than dispersion forces between individual P atoms in allotrope II.Allotrope II, because it has covalent bonds between the phosphorous atoms that are stronger than the dispersion forces between the P4 molecules in allotrope I.Allotrope II, because it has metallic bonding that is stronger than the covalent bonding found in the P4 molecules in allotrope I.Both allotropes have the same melting point because they both contain phosphorous atom You work at a computer repair store. You're building a new computer that will be used for video editing and storing pictures. You have installed the operating system on Disk 0 and then installed four SATA hard drives. You want to have the following additional volumes:The Editing volume (drive letter E:) will be used to store raw video files for editing. This volume needs to be optimized for performance.The Media volume (drive letter M:) will be used to store digital photos and completed video files. This volume needs to provide fault tolerance so that a failure in one drive will not affect the availability of the files.In this lab, your task is use Disk Management to create and format the following volumes:The Editing volume as a striped volume (RAID0) using all of the space on Disk 1 and Disk 2.The Media volume as a mirrored volume (RAID1) using all of the space on Disk 3 and Disk 4.Format all volumes using NTFS.Create a striped volume as follows:Click the power button to turn on the computer.Right-click Start and select Disk Management.Make sure MBR is selected as the partition style.Select OK to initialize all disks.Maximize the window for easier viewing.Right-click Disk 1 and select New Striped Volume.Click Next.Under Available, select Disk 2.Select Add.What will be the total capacity of the new volume?Click Next.From the Assign the following drive letter drop-down list, select E.Click Next.Make sure NTFS is selected as the file system.In the Volume label, enter Editing.Click Next.Click Finish.Click Yes to convert the disks to dynamic disks.Create a mirrored volume as follows:Right-click Disk 3 and select New Mirrored Volume.Click Next.Under Available, select Disk 4.Select Add.What will be the total capacity of the new volume?Click Next.From the Assign the following drive letter drop-down list, select M.Click Next.Make sure NTFS is selected as the file system.In the Volume label, enter Media.Click Next.Click Finish.Click Yes to convert the disks to dynamic disks. a copper, cu(s) , electrode is immersed in a solution that is 1.00 m in ammonia, nh3 , and 1.00 m in tetraamminecopper(ii), [cu(nh3)4]2 . if a standard hydrogen electrode is used as the cathode, the cell potential, ecell , is found to be 0.057 v at 298 k . part a based on the cell potential, what is the concentration of cu2 in this solution?