Answer:
1
Explanation:
A type 1 ambulance features a conventional, truck cab-chassis with a modular ambulance body that can be transferred to a newer chassis as needed.
A type I ambulance features a conventional, truck cab chassis with a modular ambulance body that can be transferred to a newer chassis as needed.
What is a type I ambulance?A Type I ambulance includes a traditional truck cab chassis and a modular ambulance body that may be moved to a more modern chassis as necessary.
A Type I ambulance features a modular ambulance body that can be moved to a different chassis as needed and is built like a regular truck cab chassis. An integrated cab-body, standard van ambulance is referred to as a Type II ambulance.
The fundamental distinction between these two kinds is that Type I ambulances have cab arrangements resembling pickup trucks and are placed onto truck chassis. Ambulances of Type III are set up on cutaway van chassis.
Therefore, type I ambulance features a conventional, truck cab chassis with a modular ambulance body that can be transferred to a newer chassis as needed.
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You are mentoring a student in the intensive care unit (ICU) while caring for a client with meningococcal meningitis. Which action by the student requires you to intervene most rapidly
The action by the student that requires you to intervene most rapidly is entering the room without putting on a mask & gown.
What is intensive care unit (ICU) ?The Intensive Care Unit (ICU) is a unit in the hospital that specialises in the care of patients that are in critical conditions such as
patients that are from surgery who needs close monitoring.Patients on life support andterminal illness patients.Meningococcal meningitis is a type of infection that affects the meningitis leading to life threatening situations.
This infection is communicable therefore that student should be on personal protection wares to avoid being infected.
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Component(s) of a comprehensive fitness program include intensity, progression, consistency, variety as well as ____.
Answer:
The components of a comprehensive fitness program are:
Cardiovascular Endurance.
Muscular Strength.
Muscular endurance.
Flexibility.
Body Composition.
A sudden onset of difficult breathing, sharp chest pain and cyanosis that persists despite supplemental oxygen is most consistent with
Answer:
A pulmonary embolism.
Explanation:
A sudden onset of difficult breathing, sharp chest pain and cyanosis that persists despite supplemental oxygen is most consistent with pulmonary embolism.
Based on the breast milk consumption of an infant during the first 6 months of life, approximately _____calories are required from the mother each day.
Answer:
500
Explanation:
Based on the breast milk consumption of an infant during the first 6 months of life, approximately 500 calories are required from the mother each day.
You noticed someone showing all the signs of a severe allergic reaction. What is the first and most important action you should take
Answer:
The first action would obviously be to call 911 if you aren't inside a medical facility. The next most important would be to ask the individual if they are carrying an epinephrine autoinjector (AKA an EpiPen or other device.)
Explanation:
A client taking rifampin, isoniazid, and
pyrazinamide for tuberculosis reports contact
lenses being stained orange. Which action should
the nurse perform to help this client?
Answer:
to prescribe rifapentine, instead of
Explanation:
since rifampin dyes saliva, urine, tears, sweat, etc an orange color.
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Ordered: 130mg. Available 1gr/tablet. How many tablets should be given?
1.5 g this ensures the patient gets the right amount of perscription.
Answer:
2
Explanation:
I will assume that 'gr' stands for 'grain' and mot for 'gram' (sometimes used)
1 grain = 65 mg
130 mg/ 65 mg/tab = 2 tablets
How long does a lone star tick need to be attached to transmit disease.
Answer:
around a day or 3 it does not take long
In a study of drug efficacy for depression management, Group 1 received a placebo, Group 2 received 2mg of the drug, and Group 3 received 5 mg of the drug. Which group(s) were the experimental group(s)
The experimental groups are the groups that received the drug and they were groups 2 and 3.
What is an experimental group?The term experimental group refers to the group that receives the treatment which in this case is a certain drug meant or depression management.
The experimental groups are the groups that received the drug and they were groups 2 and 3.
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if sylvia gonzales tells you that she ate breakfast before coming in for the test, what should you do?
Answer:
See below
Explanation:
Check to see if the test requires a fasting period ( NPO ) before proceeding.
If SYLVIA had breakfast before coming for the blood test, It doesn't mean it the test will not be performed.
As there are different types of blood tests, the fasting before the blood test is depend on what you want to test.
What are the different types of blood tests?Blood glucose fasting test refers to check the sugar level in an individual specifically in case of diabetic person, fasting sugar level detect the exact sugar level.
It is prescribed to patient to be on fast before 8 t0 10 hours of blood withdrawal.
For blood cholesterol test, is to detect the concentration of fatty substance mainly three types of cholesterol in body like high density, low density cholesterol and triglycerides.
Low density cholesterol are bad cholesterol for body, if the amount increases, then the person go for blood test at least for 10 hours before blood test.
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Articles that appear in the Journal of the American Medical Association are reliable sources of health information because the editors ________.
Answer:
Articles that appear in the Journal of the American Medical Association are reliable sources of health information because the editors have scientist review and react before publishing.
Articles that appear in the Journal of the American Medical Association are reliable sources of health information because the editors review them.
What is an Article?This is referred to a piece of writing on a particular subject or topic in a newspaper etc.
Articles in the Journal of the American Medical Association are usually reviewed by peers to ascertain its validity.
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Mention at least 2 diseases managed by Obstetrics and Gynecology
Answer:
Pelvic pain
Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)
Explanation:
Pelvic pain- Pelvic pain can arise from your digestive, reproductive or urinary system
Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)- a hormonal disorder common among women of reproductive age
Q.162.A 10 years old girl presented with fever and bruises for last 2 weeks. On examination she is pale; however there is no evidence of lymphadenopathy or hepatosplenomegaly. Her Hb is 6g/dl, TLC is 2700 and platelets are 90000. The most appropriate investigation to clinch the diagnosis is:
a)Bone marrow aspiration
b)Retics count
c)Bleeding time
d)PT and APTT
e)Factor VIII assay
Answer:
In a bone marrow aspiration, a health care provider uses a thin needle to remove a small amount of liquid bone marrow, usually from a spot in the back of your hipbone (pelvis).
A normal PT with an abnormal aPTT means that the defect lies within the intrinsic pathway, and a deficiency of factor VIII, IX, X, or XIII is suggested. A normal aPTT with an abnormal PT means that the defect lies within the extrinsic pathway and suggests a possible factor VII deficiency
Bleeding time is a medical test done on someone to assess their platelets function. It involves making a patient bleed, then timing how long it takes for them to stop bleeding using a stopwatch or other suitable devices.
in the case of jesse gelsinger, a young man who died during gene therapy, the therapy involved delivery via a viral vector. was this germ-line or somatic therapy?
which type of radiation source would pose the greatest health risk when used internally for a medical procedure
Answer:
Alpha particles
Explanation:
What type of radiation is most harmful? It depends on whether your exposure to radiation is internal or external. Alpha particles are the most harmful internal hazard as compared with gamma rays and beta particles.
You need to make 350g of 15% zinc oxide. How much zinc oxide is required?
Answer:
52.5 gm
Explanation:
350 g * 15 % = 350 * .15 = 52.5 gm
The organ that is the first site of chemical digestion.
Answer:
The stomach
Explanation:
The stomach is the first place because your mouth and saliva do not do a chemical digestion, it only primes it for the chemical digestion in the stomach, plus the mouth is not a organ, it is a body part, for example the tongue or esophages are organs.
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What are some reasons someone might not seek help for autism
Answer:
they might not seek help because they are ashamed or just cant ask for help
what are the three main stages of aerobic cellular respiration?
which components of bile can become solids when thy interact with calcium
Abstract
Background: Previous studies have shown that human bile contains one or more factors that inhibit the precipitation of calcium carbonate from supersaturated solutions of calcium chloride and sodium bicarbonate. Lower concentrations of this factor have been observed in the gallbladder bile of patients with calcified gallstones. We hypothesized that gallbladder bile contains factors that inhibit calcium carbonate and these factors are present in varying concentrations in normal persons and in patients with cholesterol gallstones with and without calcium carbonate.
Methods: Gallbladder bile of patients without gallstones (n = 8) and of patients with cholesterol gallstones containing either calcium carbonate (n = 8) or other calcium salts (n = 8) was assayed for calcium carbonate inhibition. Individual components of bile (bilirubin, phospholipid, bile salts, and albumin) were tested in different concentrations in the same assay system. In addition, samples of model bile were tested.
Results: An inhibitory factor for calcium carbonate precipitation was present within all human gallbladder bile, irrespective of the absence, presence, or type of gallstones. The addition of a bilirubin-albumin solution to a supersaturated solution of calcium chloride and sodium bicarbonate entirely blocked precipitation of calcium carbonate from solution. In addition, serial dilutions of bilirubin exhibited a linear response between bilirubin concentration and inhibitory effect. Model bile and phospholipid dissolved in sodium taurocholate also exhibited a modest inhibitory effect on calcium carbonate precipitation.
Conclusions: We conclude that bilirubin, cholesterol, and phospholipids incrementally interfere with calcium carbonate precipitation in supersaturated solutions through the preferential formation of a soluble calcium complex.
How many compressions per cycle should be provided to an adult, child or infant when doing cpr?.
Answer:
15 compressions to 2 breaths.
Explanation:
Two minutes usually allow for five cycles of 30 chest compressions and two breaths. A two-minute CPR cycle is usually tiring.
The health educator uses ________________ to monitor student progress toward objectives and to modify instruction.
Answer:
formative assessment
Explanation:
Why does John use a phr instead of one from his provider
Answer:
because he has high iQ
Explanation:
Methylergonovine is prescribed for a woman to treat postpartum hemorrhage. Before administration of methylergonovine, what is the priority assessment
Answer:
Blood pressure
Explanation:
Methylergonovine, an ergot alkaloid, is used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage by contracting the uterus. Methylergonovine causes continuous uterine contractions and may elevate the blood pressure. A priority assessment before the administration of the medication is to check the blood pressure. The obstetrician needs to be notified if hypertension is present. blood pressure is related specifically to the administration of this medication.
According to the Dental Board regulations, how long should sterilization monitoring records be stored
Answer:
one year
Explanation:
muscles when moving produce body____
Answer:
heat
Explanation:
id.k if this is right
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have a good day
A client is admitted to the cardiac care unit for an electrophysiology (EP) study. What goal should guide the planning and execution of the client's care
Answer:
Diagnose the dysrhythmia.
Explanation:
What's the name of the first woman who started nursing?
The nursing instructor is teaching a class on the nutritional needs of the pregnant client. The instructor determines the session is successful when the students correctly choose which supplement as being known to prevent up to 70% of CNS birth defects
Folic acid is the supplement which is known as being able to prevent up to 70% of CNS birth defects.
What is Folic acid?This is known as Vitamin B9 and is soluble in water. It helps in the production of new healthy erythrocytes in the body.
This prevent CNS birth defects due to it favoring adequate production of healthy cells in a fetus.
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Not yet answered Points out of 1.00
1 tbsp =
mL
Select one:
O a. 5
O b. 15
O c. 30
O d. 60
Flag question
Answer:
B. 15mL
Explanation:
The unit of measurement varies by region: a United States tablespoon is approximately 14.8 ml (0.50 US fl oz), a United Kingdom and Canadian tablespoon is exactly 15 ml (0.51 US fl oz).
Answer:
The answer is B. 15
Explanation:
1 tbsp = 15ml