a spring of force constant 245.0 n/m and unstretched length 0.280 m is stretched by two forces, pulling in opposite directions at opposite ends of the spring, that increase to 22.0 n. How long will the spring now be, and how much work was required to stretch it that distance?

When the magnetic field weakens to 0.840 of its original value, a current of approximately 44.5 μA is needed to give full-scale deflection in the galvanometer.

To answer this question, we need to use the formula for the current (I) that produces a deflection in a galvanometer, which is given by:
I = kθ/B

Where k is sensitivity of the galvanometer, θ is deflection angle, and B is magnetic field strength.

In this case, we are given that the galvanometer needle deflects full scale for a 53.0-μA current, which means that:
[tex]I1 = 53.0 μA[/tex]

We are also told that the magnetic field weakens to 0.840 of its original value, which means that:
B2 = 0.840B1

To find the current that will give full-scale deflection with this weaker magnetic field, we can rearrange the formula as follows:
I2 = (B2/B1) (I1)

Substitute:
[tex]I2 = (0.840B1/B1) (53.0 μA)\\I2 = 44.5 μA[/tex]

Therefore, the current that will give full-scale deflection with the weaker magnetic field is 44.5 μA.

Learn more about galvanometer here:

https://brainly.com/question/17247518

#SPJ11

When the magnetic field weakens to 0.840 of its original value, a current of approximately 44.5 μA is needed to give full-scale deflection in the galvanometer.

To answer this question, we need to use the formula for the current (I) that produces a deflection in a galvanometer, which is given by:
I = kθ/B

Where k is sensitivity of the galvanometer, θ is deflection angle, and B is magnetic field strength.

In this case, we are given that the galvanometer needle deflects full scale for a 53.0-μA current, which means that:
[tex]I1 = 53.0 μA[/tex]

We are also told that the magnetic field weakens to 0.840 of its original value, which means that:
B2 = 0.840B1

To find the current that will give full-scale deflection with this weaker magnetic field, we can rearrange the formula as follows:
I2 = (B2/B1) (I1)

Substitute:
[tex]I2 = (0.840B1/B1) (53.0 μA)\\I2 = 44.5 μA[/tex]

Therefore, the current that will give full-scale deflection with the weaker magnetic field is 44.5 μA.

Learn more about galvanometer here:

https://brainly.com/question/17247518

#SPJ11

The magnetic flux through the coil is 0.5 Weber when the coil is perpendicular to the magnetic field and 0 Weber when parallel.

Magnetic flux is the product of the magnetic field and the area perpendicular to it. When the coil is perpendicular to the magnetic field, the maximum amount of magnetic flux passes through it, which is equal to the product of the magnetic field and the area of the face of the coil:

[tex]Φ = B x A = 2.0 T x 0.25 m² = 0.5[/tex]  Weber.

When the coil is parallel to the magnetic field, the magnetic flux passing through it is zero because the area of the face of the coil is parallel to the magnetic field, and hence, the component of the magnetic field perpendicular to the coil is zero.

Learn more about magnetic field here:

https://brainly.com/question/20431008

#SPJ11

At 11 °C, the kinetic energy per molecule in a room is kave = 6.21 x 10^-21 J.

The kinetic energy per molecule in a gas is given by the formula:

KE = (3/2) kT

where KE is the kinetic energy per molecule, k is the Boltzmann constant (1.38 x 10^-23 J/K), and T is the temperature in Kelvin.

To convert a temperature from Celsius to Kelvin, we need to add 273.15 to the Celsius temperature.

So if the temperature is 11 °C, then the temperature in Kelvin is:

T = 11 °C + 273.15 = 284.15 K

Substituting this value into the formula for kinetic energy per molecule, we get:

KE = (3/2) kT = (3/2) (1.38 x 10^-23 J/K) (284.15 K)

KE = 6.21 x 10^-21 J

Therefore, at 11 °C, the kinetic energy per molecule in a room is kave = 6.21 x 10^-21 J.

Learn more about  kinetic energy

brainly.com/question/26472013

#SPJ11

When a light beam travels through a material with a refractive index different from that of vacuum or air, its wavelength and speed are altered. The refractive index of a material is the ratio of the speed of light in vacuum or air to the speed of light in that material.

In this case, the light beam has a wavelength of 340 nm in a material with a refractive index of 2.00. This means that the speed of light in the material is 1/2.00 = 0.5 times the speed of light in vacuum or air.

The relationship between the wavelength of light, its speed, and its frequency is given by the equation: c = λf where c is the speed of light, λ is the wavelength, and f is the frequency.

Since the speed of light in the material is 0.5 times the speed of light in air or vacuum, the frequency of the light remains the same, while its wavelength is reduced by a factor of 2.00: λ_material = λ_air/v_material = λ_air/2.00 Substituting the given value of λ_air = 340 nm, we get: λ_material = 170 nm

Therefore, the wavelength of the light beam in the material with a refractive index of 2.00 is 170 nm. This means that the light beam is strongly refracted when it enters the material, as it is bent towards the normal to the surface of the material due to the increase in its refractive index.

Know more about refractive index here:

https://brainly.com/question/29858469

#SPJ11

The correct answer is the wavelength of light falling on the double slits is approximately 1160 nm.

To find the wavelength of light in nm, we can use the formula for double-slit interference:

d * sin(θ) = m * λ

where:

- d is the distance between the slits (2.15 µm or 2.15 * 10^(-6) m)

- θ is the angle of the maximum (61.0°)

- m is the order of the maximum (3 for third-order)

- λ is the wavelength of light

Rearranging the formula to find λ:

λ = (d * sin(θ)) / m

Converting the angle to radians:

θ = 61.0° * (π / 180) ≈ 1.064 radians

Now, plug in the values:

λ = (2.15 * 10^(-6) m * sin(1.064)) / 3

Calculating the wavelength:

λ ≈ 1.16 * 10^(-6) m

Converting the wavelength to nm:

λ ≈ 1160 nm

To know more about wavelength here

https://brainly.com/question/31143857

#SPJ11

In 10 seconds, the wheel turns through an angle of approximately 2094.4 radians or 120000 degrees.

(a) To find the angular velocity in radians per second, first convert the given rate from revolutions per minute to radians per second. Recall that there are 2π radians in one revolution and 60 seconds in one minute.

Angular velocity (ω) = (2.0 × 10^3 rev/min) × (2π radians/rev) × (1 min/60 s)

Now, perform the calculations:

ω = (2.0 × 10^3) × (2π) × (1/60)
ω ≈ 209.44 radians/s

So, the angular velocity of the wheel is approximately 209.44 radians per second.

(b) To find the angle through which the wheel turns in 10 seconds, multiply the angular velocity by the time interval:

Angle (θ) = Angular velocity (ω) × Time (t)

θ = 209.44 radians/s × 10 s
θ ≈ 2094.4 radians

Now, to express this angle in degrees, recall that there are 180 degrees in π radians:

θ (degrees) = 2094.4 radians × (180°/π)

θ (degrees) ≈ 120000°

Therefore, the wheel rotates across an angle of around 2094.4 radians, or 120000 degrees, in 10 seconds.

Learn more about "angular velocity": https://brainly.com/question/20432894

#SPJ11

The pendulum would need to be approximately 18.964 meters long to double its period.

To find the period of a pendulum, we can use the formula:

T = 2π√(L/g)

where T is the period, L is the length of the pendulum, and g is the acceleration due to gravity.

Given that L = 4.74 m and g = 9.8 m/s², let's find the period T:

T = 2π√(4.74/9.8)
T ≈ 2π√(0.4837)
T ≈ 2π(0.6955)
T ≈ 4.372 s

So the period of the pendulum is approximately 4.372 seconds.

Now, to double the period, we have to find the new length L'. We can use the same formula but with the new period T':

T' = 2T
T' ≈ 2(4.372)
T' ≈ 8.744 s

Now, let's solve for L':

8.744 = 2π√(L'/9.8)
(8.744/2π)² = L'/9.8
1.932² = L'/9.8
L' ≈ 1.932² * 9.8
L' ≈ 18.964 m

To double the period, the pendulum would have to be approximately 18.964 meters long.

For more about pendulum:

https://brainly.com/question/29702798

#SPJ11

The requried, regardless of their individual properties or distances from Earth, all three stars have the same luminosity. Option D. is correct.

Luminosity refers to the total amount of energy emitted by a star per unit of time. It is a measure of the intrinsic brightness of a star, independent of its distance from us.

In the given scenario, we have three stars: tau cet, hip 87937, and hip 108870. The information states that these three stars have the same luminosity. This means that all three stars emit the same amount of energy per unit of time, making them equally bright.

Therefore, regardless of their individual properties or distances from Earth, all three stars have the same luminosity. This suggests that, in terms of brightness, there is no distinction among tau cet, hip 87937, and hip 108870.

Learn more about luminosity here:

https://brainly.com/question/13945214

#SPJ12

Okay, here are the steps to solve this problem:

(a) To accelerate the car from rest to v0/2, the required work is proportional to the square of the final velocity.

So W = k*v^2  (where k is some constant)

Setting v = v0/2, the work required is:

W = k*(v0/2)^2 = k*v0^2 / 4

Therefore, the work required is W0/4

(b) To accelerate the car from v0/2 to v0, the required work is:

W = k*v^2 (where v starts at v0/2)

Setting v = v0, the work required is:

W = k*(v0/2)^2 * 2 = k*v0^2 / 2  = W0/2

Therefore,

(a) W0/4

(b) W0/2

Does this make sense? Let me know if you have any other questions!

i) These equations yield the real and imaginary parts components of the n = 2, l = 1, m = -1, 0, and 1 orbitals: Zero imaginary parts.

Real part is proportional to cos(phi) for m = -1.

Part in the imagination: proportional to sin(phi)

m = 0:

Real part: z/r * sin(theta) proportional to

Zero imaginary parts

Real component is proportional to -sin(phi) when m = 1.

Part in the imagination: proportional to cos(phi)

Theta is the polar angle in this case, while phi is the azimuthal angle.

ii) The m = -1, 0, and 1 orbitals may be combined to create the more well-known 2p orbitals.

The m = -1 and m = 1 orbitals are linearly combined to form the 2p_x orbital, whereas the real portions of the m = 0 orbitals for positive and negative values of phi are linearly combined to form the 2p_z orbital. By extracting the hypothetical portion of the 2p_x orbital, the 2p_y orbital is obtained.

iii) The more well-known 2p orbitals will still be eigenvectors of the L_x, L_y, and L_z angular momentum operators.

Learn more about imaginary parts visit: brainly.com/question/5564133

#SPJ4

Answer: 3.24 * 10^-4 ohms

Explanation:

For this question, we will use the equation R = p L/A. R represents resisatnce, p is resistivity, L is length, and A is area.

p = 1.61 * 10^-8 ohm-meters

L = 20.4 m

A = (area of a circle)

- Convert diameter into radius (and the correct units): 2.047/2 * 10 ^-3.

Now plug them into the equation.

The substitution of machinery that has sensing and control devices for human labor is best described by the term: d. automation

The best term to describe the substitution of machinery that has sensing and control devices for human labor is "automation". Automation involves the use of machinery with advanced control devices and sensors to perform tasks that were previously done by humans. This can lead to increased efficiency and productivity, but can also result in the loss of jobs for human workers. Automation can be used to replace physical labor, reduce workloads, minimize mistakes, and increase efficiency. Automation can also be used to increase safety by having machines perform tasks that are too dangerous for humans, such as handling hazardous materials.

To learn more about automation click here https://brainly.com/question/28222698

#SPJ11

The capacitance of the capacitor is approximately 4.27 μF (microfarads).

Hi! To find the capacitance of a capacitor with a reactance of 65 ohms at a frequency of 57 Hz, you can use the formula for capacitive reactance:

Xc = 1 / (2 * π * f * C)

Where Xc is the capacitive reactance (65 ohms), f is the frequency (57 Hz), and C is the capacitance we want to find. Rearranging the formula to solve for capacitance:

C = 1 / (2 * π * f * Xc)

Now, plug in the given values:

C = 1 / (2 * π * 57 Hz * 65 ohms)

Calculate the result:

C ≈ 4.27 × 10^-6 F

So, the capacitance of the capacitor is approximately 4.27 μF (microfarads).

To know more about capacitance refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/28445252

#SPJ11

The slope of the plot of spring potential energy versus the square of the displacement would be equal to the spring constant divided by 2 x (k/2).

The theoretical form for the spring potential energy is given by:

[tex]U = 1/2 * k * x^2[/tex]

Here U is the spring potential energy, k is the spring constant, and x is the displacement from the equilibrium position.

To plot the spring potential energy as a function of position, we would need to first calculate the spring constant k and then plug in values of x to the above equation to get the corresponding values of U. The plot of spring potential energy versus position would not be linear. It would be a parabolic curve, because the spring potential energy depends on the square of the displacement.

To make the plot linear, we could plot the spring potential energy versus the square of the displacement (i.e., U versus x^2). This would give us a straight line with slope equal to k/2. The y-intercept would be zero because U is zero at the equilibrium position.

To adjust position or spring potential energy to make this plot linear, we would need to take measurements of displacement and corresponding spring potential energy and then plot U versus x^2. We could then use a linear regression analysis to determine the slope of the line.

Learn more about potential energy visit: brainly.com/question/21175118

#SPJ4

Correct Question:

Finally, write down the theoretical form for the spring potential energy. How could we plot the spring potential energy (as determined from the answer to problem 2) as a function of position to easily show that this theoretical form holds? Will a plot of spring potential energy versus position be linear? How could we adjust position or spring potential energy to make this plot linear? What would be the slope of this plot? (The section "Using Linear Relationships to Make Graphs Clear" in the appendix "A Review of Graphs" will help you answer this question.)

The merry-go-round stops spinning. When you grab the edge of the merry-go-round wheel with your hand, the friction force between your hand and the wheel causes the wheel to slow down and eventually come to a stop.

The direction of rotation before you stopped the wheel will determine the direction it rotates after you stop it.

If the wheel was rotating clockwise before you stopped it, it will rotate counterclockwise after you stop it, and vice versa.

This is due to the conservation of angular momentum, which states that the total amount of angular momentum in a closed system remains constant unless acted upon by an external torque.

For more such questions on friction force, click on:

https://brainly.com/question/24338873

#SPJ11

The wavelength (λ) of the wave can be found using the formula λ = c/f, where c is the speed of light in vacuum (3 × 10^8 m/s) and f is the frequency. Substituting the given values, we get:

λ = (3 × 10^8 m/s)/(2.20 × 10^10 Hz) = 0.0136 m = 13.6 mm

The distance between adjacent nodal planes of the E⃗ field (which is perpendicular to the B⃗ field) is half the wavelength, so it is:

(1/2)λ = (1/2)(0.0136 m) = 0.0068 m = 6.8 mm

The speed of propagation of the wave can be found using the formula v = fλ, where v is the speed and f and λ are the frequency and wavelength, respectively. Substituting the given values, we get:

v = (2.20 × 10^10 Hz)(0.0136 m) = 2.99 × 10^8 m/s

Note that the speed of propagation in a material can be different from the speed of light in vacuum, which is why we use the given frequency and nodal plane separation to calculate the wavelength and speed in this specific material.
Given the frequency of the standing electromagnetic wave is 2.20 × 10^10 Hz, and the distance between the nodal planes of the magnetic field (B⃗) is 4.35 mm.

1. To find the wavelength of the wave in this material, we can use the relationship between the distance between nodal planes and wavelength: the distance between nodal planes is half the wavelength. Therefore:

Wavelength (λ) = 2 * distance between nodal planes
λ = 2 * 4.35 mm
λ = 8.70 mm

2. The distance between adjacent nodal planes of the electric field (E⃗) is the same as the distance between the nodal planes of the magnetic field (B⃗), which is 4.35 mm.

3. To find the speed of propagation of the wave, we can use the formula:

Speed (v) = Frequency (f) * Wavelength (λ)
v = 2.20 × 10^10 Hz * 8.70 × 10^-3 m (converting mm to meters)
v = 1.914 × 10^8 m/s

In summary, the wavelength of the wave in this material is 8.70 mm, the distance between adjacent nodal planes of the E⃗ field is 4.35 mm, and the speed of propagation of the wave is 1.914 × 10^8 m/s.

Learn more about wavelength here;

https://brainly.com/question/13533093

#SPJ11

a.) The minimum kinetic energy needed for a 4.6×10^4-kg rocket to escape the Moon is 7.7×10^10 J.

The escape velocity of the Moon is approximately 2.4 km/s. Using the formula for kinetic energy (KE = 1/2 mv^2), where m is the mass of the rocket and v is the velocity needed to escape, we can calculate the kinetic energy required. Plugging in the given values, we get KE = 1/2 × 4.6×10^4 × (2.4×10^3)^2 = 7.7×10^10 J.

b.) The minimum kinetic energy needed for a 4.6×10^4-kg rocket to escape the Earth is 3.3×10^11 J.

The escape velocity of the Earth is approximately 11.2 km/s. Using the formula for kinetic energy (KE = 1/2 mv^2), where m is the mass of the rocket and v is the velocity needed to escape, we can calculate the kinetic energy required. Plugging in the given values, we get KE = 1/2 × 4.6×10^4 × (11.2×10^3)^2 = 3.3×10^11 J.

For more questions like Earth click the link below:

https://brainly.com/question/7981782

#SPJ11

The power from the sun reaching Earth's upper atmosphere is 1.42 x 10³ kW/m².

To calculate the power per square meter reaching Earth's upper atmosphere from the Sun, we need to use the inverse square law.

The power output of the Sun is given as 4.00 x 10²⁶ W.

The distance between the Sun and the Earth varies throughout the year, but on average, it is about 149.6 million kilometers (9.3 x 10⁷ miles).

Using the formula for the surface area of a sphere, we can find the total surface area of the imaginary sphere with a radius equal to the distance between the Sun and the Earth.

The surface area of a sphere = 4πr²

The surface area of the sphere with a radius of 149.6 million km:

A = 4 x 3.1416 x (149.6 x 10⁹)²

A = 2.827 x 10²³ m²

Now, we can calculate the power per square meter reaching Earth's upper atmosphere by dividing the total power output of the Sun by the total surface area of the sphere.

Power per square meter = Power output of the Sun / Total surface area of the sphere

= (4.00 x 10²⁶ W) / (2.827 x 10²³ m²)

= 1.42 x 10³ kW/m²

Therefore, the power per square meter reaching Earth's upper atmosphere from the Sun is 1.42 x 10³ kW/m².

Learn more about inverse square law:

https://brainly.com/question/30404562

#SPJ11

The ratio of the skater's final moment of inertia to his initial moment of inertia after pulling in his arms is 0.614.

To find the ratio of the skater's final moment of inertia to his initial moment of inertia after pulling in his arms, we can use the conservation of angular momentum principle. The formula is:

Initial angular momentum (L1) = Final angular momentum (L2)

where L1 = I1 × ω1 and L2 = I2 × ω2 (I is the moment of inertia and ω is the angular speed).

Given that the initial angular speed (ω1) is 3.34 rad/s and the final angular speed (ω2) is 5.44 rad/s, we can set up the equation:

I1 × ω1 = I2 × ω2

To find the ratio I2/I1, divide both sides by I1 × ω2:

I2/I1 = ω1/ω2 = 3.34 rad/s / 5.44 rad/s

I2/I1 ≈ 0.614

So the ratio of the skater's final moment of inertia to his initial moment of inertia is approximately 0.614.

Learn more about moment of inertia: https://brainly.com/question/15246709

#SPJ11

The velocity as a function of time is v(t) = 3t² - 30t + 72 ft/s

The velocity at time t, v(t), is the first derivative of the position function s(t) = t³ - 15t² + 72t.

To find v(t), differentiate s(t) with respect to t:

v(t) = ds/dt = 3t² - 30t + 72 ft/s

The velocity of the particle at time t is v(t) = 3t² - 30t + 72 ft/s.

To explain further, the position function s(t) represents the position of the particle at any given time t.

To find the velocity, we need to determine the rate of change of position with respect to time, which is given by the derivative of the position function.

By applying the power rule for differentiation, we find the derivative, which represents the velocity of the particle as a function of time. The velocity function v(t) is thus 3t² - 30t + 72 ft/s.

To know more about derivative click on below link:

https://brainly.com/question/25324584#

#SPJ11

The load, in amps, for a 3-phase, 208V feeder supplying a load calculated at 96.75kVA is approximately 268.64 Amps.

To calculate the load, in amps, for a 3-phase, 208V feeder supplying a load calculated at 96.75kVA, you can use the formula,

Load (Amps) = (kVA x 1000) / (Voltage x √3)

Where,
kVA = 96.75
Voltage = 208V
√3 = 1.732 (the square root of 3)

Multiply kVA by 1000 to convert it to VA.
96.75 x 1000 = 96750VA

Multiply voltage by the square root of 3.
208 x 1.732 = 360.256

Divide the VA value by the result from step 2.
96750 / 360.256 = 268.64 Amps

A 3-phase, 208V feeder's load in amps for feeding a 96.75kVA load is roughly equal to 268.64 Amps.

Learn more about "load": https://brainly.com/question/25543272

#SPJ11

The comfort-related properties of indoor air that climate sensors measure are III. Humidity, IV. Temperature, and V. Ventilation.

Climate sensors in indoor spaces measure various comfort-related properties to ensure a healthy and comfortable environment. These properties include:

Learn more about indoor air at

https://brainly.com/question/17137739

#SPJ11

The final temperature of the mixture would be 50°C when 50 ml of water at 80°C is added to 50 ml of water at 20°C.

To determine the final temperature, we need to use the principle of conservation of energy, which states that the total energy in a closed system remains constant. In this case, we can assume that the two samples of water together form a closed system.
First, we need to calculate the amount of energy in each sample of water using the specific heat capacity formula:
q = m x c x ΔT
where q is the energy in Joules, m is the mass in grams, c is the specific heat capacity in J/g°C, and ΔT is the change in temperature in °C.
For the first sample of water at 80°C:
[tex]q_1 = 50 * 4.18 *(80 - T_1)[/tex]
where T1 is the final temperature we are trying to find.
For the second sample of water at 20°C:
[tex]q_2 = 50 *4.18 * (T_1 - 20)[/tex]
Now, since the total energy in the closed system remains constant, we can set q1 equal to [tex]q_2[/tex] and solve for [tex]T_1[/tex]:
[tex]50 * 4.18 * (80 - T_1) = 50 * 4.18 * (T_1 - 20)[/tex]
Simplifying the equation, we get:
[tex](80 - T_1) = (T_1 - 20)[/tex]
[tex]100 = 2T_1[/tex]
[tex]T_1[/tex] = 50°C
Therefore, the final temperature of the mixture would be 50°C.

Learn more about energy :

https://brainly.com/question/1371184

#SPJ11

Despite contacting the glacier sample boundary at an angle larger than the critical angle, the first incident laser beam is still refracted as the  Total internal refraction condition is not met.

Critical angle:  it is the angle of incidence where the angle of refraction becomes 90 degrees.

The Total internal reflection (TIR) is a phenomenon that takes place when the two conditions are fulfilled.

First: a light ray is traveling in the more dense medium and approaching the less-dense medium.

Second: the angle of incidence for the light ray is greater than the critical angle.

Here, the second condition is met, but the first condition is not met.

Hence, the first incident laser beam is still refracted as the Total internal refraction condition is not met.

To learn more about Total internal reflection :

https://brainly.com/question/13088998

#SPJ12

you have a 9.00-V battery, a 2.6-μF capacitor, and a 7.85-μF capacitor. In series, A) Total charge stored = 1.76 * 10⁻⁵ C; B) Energy stored=  7.9 * 10⁻⁵ J; In parallel, C) Total charge stored= 94.05 * 10⁻⁶ C; D) Energy stored= 4.23 * 10⁻⁴ J

Given V= 9V

C1 = 2.6 μF

C2 = 7.85 μF

If capacitors are connected in series:

then, Ceq = (C1 * C2)/ C1+ C2 = (2.6 * 7.85)/ (2.6 + 7.85) = 1.953  μF

A) Q = CV = 1.953  μF * 9V = 17.578  μC = 1.76 * 10⁻⁵ C

B)  Energy stored = U = 1/2 CV²

or, U= 1/2 (1.953 * 10⁻⁶ F) * (9V)² = 7.9 * 10⁻⁵ J

If capacitors are conncted in parallel,

Ceq = C1+ C2 = (2.6 + 7.85) μF = 10.45 μF

C) Here, Q= CV = 10.45 μF * 9V = 94.05 * 10⁻⁶ C

D) Energy stored = U = 1/2 CV²

or, U= 1/2 (10.45* 10⁻⁶ ) (9)² = 4.23 * 10⁻⁴ J

To know more about capacitors here:

https://brainly.com/question/17176550#

#SPJ11

The change in the angular momentum of the meterstick cannot be determined from this information.

An object's angular momentum is comparable to its linear momentum, which is defined as the mass in motion, except that the item is rotating as opposed to traveling in a straight line. We can think of angular momentum as the mass in rotation.

Change in angular momentum

ΔL = L(final) - L(initial)

ΔL = Iω,

where I = moment of inertia and

ω = angular velocity.

No information can be obtained from the question about angular velocity, hence we can't calculate the change in angular momentum.

Therefore, the change in the angular momentum of the meterstick cannot be determined from this information.

To know more about angular momentum, click here :

https://brainly.com/question/29563080

#SPJ12

Answer:150g

Explanation:

a) you can use formula: m=D.V

with: D= 1000kg/m³ and V=0,15m³

As a result, the individual is subject to the friction force for 0.765 seconds. Utilizing the work-energy concept and the conservation of momentum, we can find a solution to this issue.

First, we may calculate the total ultimate velocity of the passenger and the cart using the conservation of momentum. The overall momentum is preserved since there are no outside forces operating horizontally on the person-cart system.

[tex]m_p* v_p,i + m_c * v_c,i = (m_p + m_c) * v_f\\(60.0 kg)(4.00 m/s) + (120 kg)(0) = (60.0 kg + 120 kg) * v_f\\v_f = 2.00 m/s[/tex]

Next, we can use the work-energy principle to find the distance that the person slides on the cart before coming to rest. The work done by the friction force is equal to the change in kinetic energy of the person-cart system:

[tex]W_friction = \alpha (K)[/tex]

where W_friction is the work done by the friction force and ΔK is the change in kinetic energy of the person-cart system. The change in kinetic energy is:

[tex]K = (1/2) (m_p+ m_c) - (1/2) m_p * v_p*i^2[/tex]

Substituting the given values, we get:

[tex]K = (1/2) (60.0 kg + 120 kg) (2.00 m/s)^2 - (1/2) (60.0 kg) (4.00 m/s)^2\\K = -720 J[/tex]

The negative sign indicates that the kinetic energy of the person-cart system decreases as a result of the friction force.

The work done by the friction force is:

[tex]W_friction = f_k * d[/tex]

where f_k is the kinetic friction force and d is the distance that the person slides on the cart. The kinetic friction force is:

[tex]f_k = u_k * m_p * g[/tex]

where μ_k is the coefficient of kinetic friction, m_person is the mass of the person, and g is the acceleration due to gravity. Substituting the given values, we get:

[tex]f_k = (0.400) (60.0 kg) (9.81 m/s^2) =[/tex] 235.4 N

Substituting the values of ΔK and f_k, we get:

235.4 N * d = -720 J

d = -720 J / (235.4 N) = -3.06 m

The negative sign indicates that the displacement of the person is in the opposite direction of the friction force, which is expected since the person slides backward relative to the cart.

Finally, we can find the time that the friction force acts on the person by dividing the distance by the initial velocity of the person:

t = d / [tex]v_p,[/tex]

i = -3.06 m / 4.00 m/s = -0.765 s

t = 0.765 s

Learn more about friction force visit: brainly.com/question/23161460

#SPJ4

The worker must apply a horizontal force of approximately 19.78 N to maintain the motion of the box of mass 11.2 kg.

To find the horizontal force the worker must apply to maintain the motion of a box with a mass of 11.2 kg at a constant speed of 3.10 m/s, we need to consider the frictional force acting on the box.

Here are the steps to calculate the required force:

1. Calculate the gravitational force acting on the box: F_gravity = mass * g, where g = 9.81 m/s² (gravitational acceleration).

F_gravity = 11.2 kg * 9.81 m/s² = 109.872 N

2. Calculate the frictional force: F_friction = coefficient of kinetic friction * F_gravity

F_friction = 0.18 * 109.872 N = 19.77696 N

3. Since the box is moving at a constant speed, the applied force must be equal to the frictional force to maintain the motion.

F_applied = F_friction = 19.77696 N

So, the worker must apply a horizontal force of approximately 19.78 N to maintain the motion of the box.

For more information on mass, speed and force refer to https://brainly.in/question/23858054

#SPJ11

A surface integral is a powerful tool for computing the flux of a vector field.  In this case, the vector field is F = ˆr/|r|2 and the surface is a unit sphere centered at the origin.

To compute the flux of this vector field, we need to take the surface integral of the dot product of F and the normal vector of the surface. This can be expressed mathematically as the integral over the surface of F · n da.

Since the normal vector of a unit sphere is always the position vector, then the surface integral can be expressed as the integral over the surface of ˆr/|r|2 · ˆr da. This integral can be solved to yield the result that the flux of F leaving the unit sphere is 4π.

Know more about flux here

https://brainly.com/question/30858765#

#SPJ11