The best interpretation of these results Is that, key element of plant gene regulation is through chromatin regulation. All eukaryotes include chromatin that is crammed into nucleosomes.
Members of the histone protein family make up the bulk of the chromatin regulation protein component. Histone proteins may come near to DNA because of their positive charge. H3 and H4 are core histones that bind to DNA before other gene regulation and are located in the interior of the nucleosome. When DNA gene regulation is significantly compressed, the chromatin regulation architecture prevents transcription factors, polymerases, and other nuclear proteins from reaching it. Fruit production involves a series of developmental gene regulation stages, and crop output is greatly influenced by the fruit set process.
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which of the following lists represents the order of increasingly higher levels of organization of chromatin? which of the following lists represents the order of increasingly higher levels of organization of chromatin? nucleosome, 30-nm chromatin fiber, looped domain looped domain, 30-nm chromatin fiber, nucleosome 30-nm chromatin fiber, nucleosome, looped domain nucleosome, looped domain, 30-nm chromatin fiber request answer
Nucleosome, 30-nm chromatin fiber, looped domain- this represents order of increasingly higher levels of organization of chromatin.
What is chromatin?
Chromatin, found in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells, is a complex of proteins and DNA. The main function of chromatin is to pack long DNA molecules into more compact and denser structures.
Through chromatin, it is possible for a number of cell processes to occur, like transcription, DNA replication, DNA repair, cell division, and genetic recombination.
The basic unit of organization of chromatin is called the nucleosome. The nucleosome comprises of 147 bp of DNA that wrapped around a core of histone proteins.
So, therefore, nucleosome, 30-nm chromatin fiber, looped domain represents the order of increasingly higher levels of organization of chromatin.
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which of the following is not true? prokaryotic cells and viruses do not use enzymes enzymes only work inside of cells enzymes are used up after catalyzing a reaction most enzymes are proteins
The following statements are untrue: Prokaryotic cells and viruses do not use enzymes; enzymes are exhausted after catalysing a process, and enzymes exclusively function inside cells.
Enzymes can be utilised again to speed up the same reaction because they don't get damaged or depleted during the reactions they catalyse. Enzymes are incredibly efficient because each one is very specialised for the chemical reaction it catalyses. One way to think of enzymes is as metabolic process catalysts. As they are not involved in the actual reaction but rather offer a different reaction pathway with lower activation energy, catalysts are not depleted throughout reactions.
The following claims are therefore untrue: Enzymes are exhausted after catalysing a reaction. Enzymes exclusively function inside cells. Prokaryotic cells and viruses do not require enzymes.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. two chambers, the utricle and saccule, contain receptors called___which are composed of___embedded within a gelatinous otolithic membrane.
The macula, which are receptors found in the utricle and saccule, are made up of hair cells that are encased in a gelatinous otolithic membrane.
The utriculus and saccule, which are situated in the bony vestibule, contain the receptor known as the macula. The semicircular canals of the ear have receptors that produce information about rotational movements (angular acceleration), while the utricle and saccule have receptors that produce information about linear acceleration and the effects of gravity. The inner ear is made up of three tiny semicircular canals that are filled with fluid and are situated deep inside the brain (ducts). Each duct's end has a protrusion called an ampulla. The crista, or tiny "balancing" receptors, are found in the ampulla.
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Joints in which the bone ends are bound together by hyaline cartilage or fibrocartilage are classified as:
A. Immovable joints
B. Synovial joints
C. Cartilaginous joints
D. Fibrous joints
C. Cartilaginous joints ,articular cartilage joints
In cartilaginous joints, hyaline cartilage or fibrocartilage holds the bones together. The joints are further divided into primary and secondary cartilaginous joints depending on the kind of cartilage involved. Amphiarthroses. Amphiarthroses are joints with a small range of motion. The word "amphiarthrosis" is singular. In this kind of joint, hyaline cartilage or fibrocartilage holds the bones together. Between the right and left pubic bones is the symphysis pubis.
The sternal body and the manubrium form the manubriosternal joint.
discs between the vertebrae.
symphysis of the sacrococcyx. Fibrous connective tissue holds the bones of fibrous joints together. Since there is no cavity or space between the bones, the majority of fibrous joints remain immobile or have limited range of motion. Three varieties of fibrous tissue exist.
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nk cells derive from the same stem cells as b and t cells. these cells differentiate self from nonself through choose one: a. tlrs. b. mhcs. c. macs. d. mamps.
NK cells are derived from the same stem cells as b and t cells, these cells differentiate self from nonself through (b) MHCs.
The Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) is an essential component in the immune system's ability to distinguish among self and non-self antigens. MHC limits how an antigen is presented to the outside.
The remaining choices are incorrect due to the fact that they do not play a role in the mentioned discrimination but rather play different roles. The membrane attack complex, often known as MACs, is created in the complement pathway. Its purpose is to eliminate antigens; it does not distinguish across self and nonself antigens. Similar to this, TLRs (toll-like receptors) play a receptor role in the innate immune system and do not distinguish among self and nonself.
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TRUE/FALSE. three types of threats to biodiversity are: habitat loss and fragmentation the introduction of exotic, or non-native, species overexploitation, or overharvesting
The statement above is true that three types of threats to biodiversity are: habitat loss and fragmentation the introduction of exotic, or non-native, species overexploitation, or overharvesting.
What is Biodiversity?Biodiversity is a term used for the diversity of natural resources, including the number and frequency of ecosystems, species and genes in a place.
Biodiversity Level
Gene level: Rice (Oryza sativa), Mango (Mangifera indica), Dog (Canis familiaris), Cat (Felis catus).Species level: lime (Citrus aurantifolia), sweet orange (Citrus nobilis), leopard cat (Felis bengalensis), domestic cat (Felis silvestris).Ecosystem Level: Moss ecosystems are located in areas around mountain peaks or in cold areas around the poles and are dominated by mosses. Animals that can be found in it are thick furry animals such as polar bears.Biodiversity Benefits:
Clothing and Food Sector: Humans can meet their protein needs from animal products, namely eggs and fish meat and various other marine animals.Field of Ecology: Acts as the lungs of the earth and maintains global climate stability.Pharmaceutical Field: Honey is believed to increase the immune system of anyone who drinks it.Field of Science and Technology: Until now there are still many animals and plants that have not been studied and their benefits are not known. Thus this situation can still be used as a means of developing knowledge and research for various fields of knowledge.Learn more about Biodiversity at: https://brainly.com/question/11542363
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Endocrine cells A) are modified connective tissue cells. B are a type of nerve cell. release their secretions directly into body fluids such as blood. D release their secretions onto an epithelial surface. (E) contain few vesicles.
Endocrine cells release their secretions directly into body fluids such as blood. The correct option is C.
What are endocrine cells?Endocrine cells are in charge of producing and releasing hormone molecules into the body. Endocrine cells are typically grouped together in organs referred to as endocrine glands.
Endocrine cells are typically arranged in cords or small clumps, with each cell closely associated with neighboring vessels.
Endocrine gland vessels have fenestrated endothelium to facilitate hormone diffusion into blood.
They are mostly found in two places: scattered in the gut mucosal epithelium or in more concentrated clusters, called islets, in the pancreas.
Mucosal cells, also known as intraepithelial endocrine or enteroendocrine cells, are typically open.
Thus, the correct option is C.
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The function of the urinary bladder is to:
A serve as a reservoir for urine before it leaves the body.
B expel urine from the body, aided by the urethra.
C help concentrate the urine in periods of dehydration.
D do both A and B.
D) do both A and B.
The function of the urinary bladder is to, Serve as a reservoir for urine before it leaves the body and expels urine from the body, aided by the urethra. Thus Both A and B.
Urinary Bladder, The lower abdomen is home to this hollow triangle organ. Ligaments that are attached to the pelvic bones and other organs keep it in place. The bladder's walls serve as a reservoir as it unwinds and grows to store urine and expel urine through the urethra.
Urine leakage can be caused by urinary stones, which are hard, stone-like masses that form in the bladder. Disorders of the brain. Urinary incontinence can be brought on by conditions like multiple sclerosis, Parkinson's disease, a stroke, a brain tumor, or a spinal injury that disrupt the nerve signals that control the bladder.
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Saved tetanus Drag the text blocks below into their correct order. concentrically No immediate movement of the bar is demonstrated despite the production of muscle force, which first demonstrates contraction. isometric When ready, he initiates neural recruitment of his ankle, knee, and hip extensors first by increasing the potentials to the lower-limb extensors of action motor units Voluntarily exerting more effort, additional recruited, which results in the production of greater forces. are frequency 46 eccentric Progressively increasing force production allows the force to exceed that of the bars inertia, and the ankle, knee, and hip extensors begin to contract summation twitches
Through the cycling of actin and myosin cross-bridges, a muscle fibre produces tension.
The muscle may lengthen, shorten, or stay the same when under tension. Although the word "contraction" connotes shortening, it actually refers to the creation of tension within a muscle fibre when used in relation to the muscular system. The variations in muscle length during contractions distinguish a variety of muscle contractions.
Muscles shrink during a concentric contraction, which is a type of muscle contraction used to overcome resistance. A concentric contraction of the biceps, for instance, would force the arm to bend at the elbow when carrying a heavy object, moving the object towards the shoulder. Sarcomere, muscle fibre, and muscle are all compressed by cross-bridge cycling.
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devise a method for determining the molecular weight of the fragment you amplified and describe that method. make sure to think about the information that is available by examining your gel.
DNA ladder, a collection of standards used to determine the size of DNA utilized, is used in this case's agarose gel electrophoresis procedure.
The DNA ladder is placed next to the visualizing DNA pieces. Assume that the DNA next to the number 300 base pairs on the ladder is this size. These are the established criteria used to estimate DNA or RNA size. We can use 2% of agricultural sugar to run DNA fragments up to 500 base pairs for a range. This category of size includes the majority of the amplified DNA.An approximate size of a molecule run on a gel during electrophoresis is determined using a molecular-weight size marker, also known as a protein ladder, DNA ladder, or RNA ladder. This method is based on the idea that molecular weight is inversely proportional to migration rate through a gel matrix. Markers can therefore be employed in gel electrophoresis to assess the size of the other fragments using a logarithmic scale (providing the fragment sizes of the marker are known).To know more about electrophoresis check the below link:
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The point where the axon terminal synapses with the muscle fiber sarcolemma is called the _____________. a. sarcolemma junction b. active site c. neuromuscular junction d. membrane receptor
The point where the axon terminal synapses with the muscle fiber sarcolemma is called the neuromuscular junction.
The neuromuscular junction (NMJ) is a highly specialized synapse between a motor neuron nerve terminal and its muscle fiber that are responsible for converting electrical impulses generated by the motor neuron into electrical activity in the muscle fibers. On arrival of the motor nerve action potential, calcium enters the presynaptic terminal, which leads to the release of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACh).
ACh crosses the synaptic gap and binds to ACh receptors tightly clustered on the surface of the muscle fiber, this leads to the endplate potential which initiates the muscle action potential that results in muscle contraction.
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Cell theory began to develop in 1839, following the research of Matthias Schleiden and Theodor Schwann into plant and animal tissues. Both the botanist Schleiden and the physiologist Schwann noticed that every organism they viewed under a microscope, whether plant or animal, was composed of cells. Their observations that all living species are made up of one or more cells led to the early formation of cell theory. Which tenet of cell theory is described by the paragraph about the historical observations of cells? All cells come from preexisting cells. O The cell is the basic unit of every organism. An organism is dependent on the total activity of all its cells. O All organisms are composed of one or more cells.
All organisms are composed of one or more cells.
Give a brief description of cell theory.
The scientific idea that cells make up living organisms, that they are the fundamental structural and organizational unit of all species, and that they all originate from previously existing cells is known as cell theory. It was first proposed in the middle of the nineteenth century. Because cells are the foundation of all life, this is essential for our understanding of biology. We can have single-celled organisms like yeasts and bacteria. All living things grow and develop on the basis of cell division, which is the division of a cell from one to two to four.
Hence, the answer is all organisms are composed of one or more cells.
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Under optimal conditions the number of DNA molecules amplified from a single molecule in a PCR after 30 amplification cycles will be
A) 30
B) 30 x 2
C) 30^2
D) 2^30
E) 30^30
Under optimal conditions the number of DNA molecules amplified from a single molecule in a PCR after 30 amplification cycles will be (d) 2^30.
The sample is heated so that the DNA denatures, or splits into two pieces of single-stranded DNA, prior to utilizing PCR to amplify a section of DNA. Also, "Taq polymerase" , an enzyme makes two new DNA strands using the old and previous strands as templates for help. The outcome of this process is the duplication of the original DNA, with one old and one new strand of DNA present in each of the new molecules.
After then, each of these strands may be used to make two other copies, and so on. More than one billion precise duplicates of the original DNA segment are produced when the cycle of denaturing and synthesizing new DNA is repeated up to 30 or 40 times.
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the energy we expend to maintain respiration and circulation is known as the energy cost of physical activity. True or False
The energy cost of physical activity refers to the energy required to maintain our breathing and blood circulation. False.
Energy expenditure describes how much a person uses during physical activity and to maintain vital bodily processes like respiration, circulation, and digestion. Even when the body is at rest, it needs energy (kilojoules) to keep all of its systems running smoothly. This is known as the basal metabolic rate (BMR) (such as breathing, keeping the heart beating to circulate blood, growing and repairing cells and adjusting hormone levels). The energy used up while movement is known as physical activity energy expenditure, or PAEE. The thermic effect of food, sometimes referred to as diet-induced energy expenditure, is connected to food digestion, absorption, and storage.
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Which of the following processes does NOT involve redox (i.e oxidation/reduction) reactions? Select only ONE answer choice. O Photosystem II and its affiliated processes Photosystem and its affiliated processes O Synthesis of ATP by ATP synthase Electron transport chain in photosynthesis Calvin Cycle
(C)Synthesis of ATP by ATP synthase is the process which does not involve redox reaction.
Both photosystems I and II are involved in the reactions that are light-dependent. When light strikes either photosystem, electrons are released. Numerous carrier molecules transfer the electrons that PSII emits into the electron transport chain. Because of the uneven distribution of the [tex]H^+[/tex] ions during the transit of the electron transport chain, ATP is created. The electrons travel from the ETC to PS I. As the electrons from PS I reach the NADP, they combine to produce NADPH. Reduction is the transfer of electrons, and oxidation is the donation of electrons. Thus, redox processes are involved in both photosystems.
Reduction and oxidation processes occur even during the Calvin cycle. Complexes in ETC involve redox processes. However, redox processes are not involved in the ATP synthases' production of ATP. This is due to the fact that ATP is created when ATP synthases join ADP and the phosphate group to create ATP. Through phosphorylation, it is created.
Thus, Redox reaction is not involved in Synthesis of ATP by ATP synthase process.
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Corrected Question:
Which of the following processes does NOT involve redox (i.e oxidation/reduction) reactions? Select only ONE answer choice.
(A)Photosystem II and its affiliated processes.
(B)Photosystem and its affiliated processes.
(C)Synthesis of ATP by ATP synthase.
(D)Electron transport chain in photosynthesis Calvin Cycle.
each protein from particular arrangements of the 20 common amino acids; this means that for a chain of just seven amino acids, there are over [ select ] possibilities!
Each protein from particular arrangements of the 20 common amino acids and this means that for a chain of just seven amino acids, there are over one-tenth of the possibilities.
Amino acids are organic compounds that contain each amino and acid practical teams. though many amino acids exist in nature, far and away the foremost necessary square measure the alpha-amino acids, that comprise proteins. solely twenty two alpha amino acids seem within the ordination
A chain of amino acids is known as petide bonds which are those bonds that connect aminoalkanoic acids; created once the acid cluster of 1 amino acid is joined with the nitrogen-containing alkane series cluster of another amino acid through condensation.
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The tissue plasminogen activator (TPA) is a substance released from damaged endothelial cells, which helps convert plasminogen into plasmin to start the clotting process.
The glycoprotein activator (tPA), a component of the fibrinolytic system, converts plasminogen from plasminogen to plasmin.
What use does plasminogen serve?The primary enzyme that breaks down fibrin clots is plasmin, and its zymogen is called plasminogen (PLG). PLG preferentially interacts at cell surfaces where, in contrast to the reaction in solution, it is more effectively activated by PLG activators. This is in addition to its affinity and activating on fibrin clots.
Is plasminogen a factor in clotting?The primary proteolytic process responsible for breaking down blood clots is the plasminogen (Plg) system. The main manifestation of thrombotic disease is either increased clot generation or impaired clot breakdown.
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label the nerves of the lumbar plexus (t12 and l1-l4) anterior view by clicking and dragging the labels to the correct location.
Labeling of the nerves of the lumbar plexus (t12 and l1-l4) anterior are done below:
How many nerves are in the lumbar plexus?Additionally, the lumbosacral plexus releases five nerves, each of which is named after the muscle it innervates. There are several of them, including the quadratus femoris nerve (L4-S1), the obturator internus nerve (L5-S2), the piriformis nerve (S1-S2), and nerves to the levator ani and coccygeus that emerge from S3 and S4, respectively.
The nerves that originate in your lower back go downward and combine with other nerves to produce a network of nerves that regulates pain perception and lower limb motion. The groyne and genital region are sensed by the L1 spinal nerve, which also aids in hip muscle movement.
Thus, labeling in the image are shown below:
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The complete question is as follows:
The conversion of the potential energy of a proton gradient to a form more useful to the cell is achieved by coupling the movement of protons down their electrochemical gradient with the synthesis of ATP. This coupling is made possible by:ATP synthase.
By coordinating the flow of protons down an electrochemical gradient with the synthesis of ATP, the potential energy of a proton gradient is transformed into a form more beneficial to the cell. ATP synthase allows for this coupling.
Adenosine triphosphate (ATP), an organic compound, provides energy for a number of biological processes in living cells, including muscle contraction, transmission of nerve impulses, dissolution of condensate, and chemical synthesis. All known forms of life contain ATP, which is frequently referred to be the "molecular unit of currency" of intracellular energy transfer. It either transforms into adenosine monophosphate (AMP) or adenosine diphosphate (ADP) when absorbed via metabolic activities (AMP). There are various methods that restore ATP. The average person's body recycles as much ATP as they weigh each day. As a coenzyme and precursor to DNA and RNA, it also has several additional functions. The 9-nitrogen atom of an adenine forms a link with the 1′ carbon atom of a sugar (ribose), and the sugar's 5' carbon atom is then connected to a triphosphate group. In its many metabolic steps, the adenine and sugar groups remain intact, but the triphosphate is converted into di- and monophosphate, producing, respectively, the derivatives ADP and AMP.
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the natural aging process has a more apparent effect on ______________ muscle fibers, which results in ______________ power.
The natural aging process has a more apparent effect on type 2 muscle fibers, which results in anaerobic power.
What is natural aging?Natural aging is defined as a natural process that develops at ambient temperature through the aging of precipitated solid solutions. We experience and define aging as the increasing degradation to these structures and functions.
A number of physical changes associated with aging include muscular loss, minor cognitive decline, and a diminished sense of taste and smell. Older persons may find it more challenging to achieve their dietary demands as a result of these changes.
Thus, the natural aging process has a more apparent effect on type 2 muscle fibers, which results in anaerobic power.
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before anyone really knew the structure of dan, erwin chargaff at columbia university had, for a long time measured the base
The ratios of adenine (A) to thymine (T) and guanine (G) to cytosine (C) in DNA are equal, according to Erwin Chargaff. The final DNA structure clearly displays this parity.
When Chargaff examined the base %, what did he learn?In 1947, Chargaff discovered that different species' DNA differed from one another in terms of the relative amounts of the A, C, G, and T bases. This molecular variety provided more proof that DNA might be the genetic substance.
What is the structural underpinning of Chargaff's laws?According to Chargaff's criteria, the amounts of guanine and cytosine should be equal in any species' or organism's DNA, and the amounts of adenine and thymine should be identical as well. The purine and pyrimidine bases should also be in a 1:1 stoichiometric ratio, meaning that A+G=T+C.
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Atmospheric
pressure is also known as barometric pressure because it
is measured using a barometer. A rising barometer indicates increasing
atmospheric pressure and a falling barometer indicates decreasing
atmospheric pressure.
HOW DOES THIS FACT FROM MY SUB QUESTION ANSWER THAT COMES FROM A ARTICLE RELATE TO MY RESEARCH QUESTION WHICH IS
What effect does the amount of air pressure have on how far a soccer ball travels when kicked?
Answer:
The greater the air pressure in the ball, the farther it will travel when a force is applied,the lower the friction, the farther the ball will go.
Atmospheric pressure may also affect how far the ball will travel.
Changes in air pressure are caused by differences in air temperature
above the earth, and the temperature of an air mass is determined by
its location. For example, air masses above oceans are typically cooler
than air masses above continents. Air temperature differences create
wind and cause pressure systems to develop. The wind moves
pressure systems and these systems tend to change as they pass over
mountains, oceans, and other areas.
HOW IS THIS RELATED TO MY RESEARCH QUESTION WHICH IS
WHAT EFFECT DOES THE AMOUNT OF AIR PRESSURE HAVE ON HOW FAR A SOCCER BALL TRAVELS WHEN KICKED?
Answer:
The amount of air pressure in the area where the soccer ball is kicked can affect its trajectory and distance traveled. If the air pressure is lower, the ball may travel further due to less resistance from the air. On the other hand, if the air pressure is higher, the ball may not travel as far due to increased resistance from the air. Therefore, understanding the relationship between air pressure and the distance a soccer ball travels when kicked can be useful in predicting and analyzing the performance of a soccer player or team.
What would the progeny be if you crossed a homozygous rose combed hen with a homozygous pea combed roster? What are the phenotypic ratios that you would see in the F2 progeny?
The F1 progeny from this cross would all have pea combs. The F2 progeny would have a phenotypic ratio of 3:1—three pea combed chickens for every one rose combed chicken.
The progeny of a homozygous rose combed hen crossed with a homozygous pea combed rooster would be a combination of both rose and pea combs. The phenotypic ratio of the F2 progeny would be 3 rose combs: 1 pea comb.
To explain this ratio, we can look at the Punnett square for this cross. The Punnett square for this cross would look like this:
Hen (RR) | Rooster (PP)
-------------------
R | R
R | P
In this Punnett square, the hen is homozygous for the rose comb gene (RR) and the rooster is homozygous for the pea comb gene (PP). The offspring, therefore, would all be heterozygous (Rp) for the rose and pea comb genes.
The F2 progeny would then be a 3:1 ratio of rose combs to pea combs. This is because the heterozygous (Rp) offspring would all have a dominant rose comb allele and a recessive pea comb allele. The offspring would have a 3:1 chance of inheriting the dominant rose comb gene,
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an individual who is the offspring of two closely related parents will likely have homozygous alleles identical by . please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button. answer choices descent domains state sequence
An individual who is the offspring of two closely related parents will likely have homozygous alleles identical by descent.
An allele is certainly one of two or greater variations of DNA sequence (a single base or a segment of bases) at a given genomic vicinity. An person inherits alleles, one from each discern, for any given genomic place wherein such variant exists. If the two alleles are the equal, the person is homozygous for that allele. If the alleles are exclusive, the man or woman is heterozygous.
"Allele" is the phrase that we use to describe the alternative form or variations of a gene. humans inherit one allele for each autosomal gene from every discern, and we generally tend to lump the alleles into classes. usually, we call them either regular or wild-type alleles, or ordinary, or mutant alleles.
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Part 1: Crossing Beak Color and Tail-Feather Length
Cross a YyLl (heterozygous parent with dominant traits) with yyll (homozygous parent with recessive traits). Look at the number of genotypes of the F1 generation:
YyLl: 400
Yyll: 100
yyLl: 100
yyll: 400
1. Which offspring are the recombinant offspring in this cross?
Answer:
2. How far apart are Y and L? Give your answer in map units. (Hint: Add the numbers of the two recombinant types, divide by the total number of offspring, and multiply by 100.)
Answer:
Part 2: Crossing Beak Color and Feather Color
1. Cross one parent that is heterozygous for both beak color and feather color with a parent that is homozygous for both recessive traits. What are the genotypes of the parents? (Hint: Recall that the P generation includes a heterozygous parent with dominant traits and a homozygous parent with recessive traits.)
Assume the following F1 generation:
YyBb: 420
Yybb: 80
yyBb: 80
yybb: 420
Answer:
2. Which offspring are the recombinant offspring in this cross?
3. How far apart are Y and B?
Part 3: Crossing Tail-Feather Length and Feather Color
Cross a P generation, LlBb with llbb. Assume the following F1 generation:
LlBb: 480
Llbb: 20
llBb: 20
llbb: 480
1. Which offspring are not the recombinant offspring in this cross?
2. How far apart are L and B?
Part 4: Mapping Beak Color, Tail-Feather Length, and Feather Color
1. List the distances between each pair of genes:
beak color and tail-feather length:
beak color and feather color:
tail-feather length and feather color:
2. Which two alleles are the farthest apart?
3. Which two alleles are the closest together?
4. True or False: The diagram shows the correct genetic map for these three alleles on one chromosome.
Linked genes are too close to each other, so most of them can not distribute independently and there are few recombination events between them. Part 1: 1) Yyll and yyLl. 2) 20 mu. Part 2: 1) YyBb and yybb. 2) Yybb and yyBb. 3) 16 mu. Part 3: 1) LlBb and llbb. 2) 4mu. Part 4: 1) Y-L: 20MU, Y-B: 16 MU, L-B: 4MU. 2) Y-L. 3) L-B. 4) True.
What are linked genes?Genes located too close to each other on the same chromosome can not segregate independently. They do not exhibit an independent distribution and inherit together more frequently. These are linked genes.
We must observe the progeny distribution to know if two genes are linked.
If heterozygous individuals, whose genes assort independently, are test crossed, they produce a progeny with equal phenotypic frequencies 1:1:1:1.If we observe a different distribution, and phenotypes appear in different proportions, we can assume that genes are linked in the double heterozygote parent.
Crossing over between linked genes is not that common. In this way, we can recognize the recombinant genotypes by looking at the phenotypes with the lowest frequencies among the progeny.
Recombination frequency between these genes can be calculated by using the formula
P = Recombinant number / Total of individuals.
The genetic distance will result from multiplying that frequency by 100 and expressing it in map units (MU).
The map unit is the distance between the pair of genes for which every 100 meiotic products, one of them results in a recombinant product.
In the present example:
Part 1: Crossing Beak Color and Tail-Feather LengthParentals) YyLl x yyll
F1)
400 YyLl
100 Yyll
100 yyLl
400 yyll
1. Which offspring are the recombinant offspring in this cross?
Yyll and yyLl are the genotypes with the lowest frequency, so we can assume these are the recombinant individuals.
2. How far apart are Y and L?
P = Recombinant number / Total of individuals
P = 100 + 100 / 1000 = 0.2
MU = P x 100 = 0.2 x 100 = 20 mu
Part 2: Crossing Beak Color and Feather ColorCross: one parent that is heterozygous for both beak color and feather color with a parent that is homozygous for both recessive traits.
Parentals) YyBb x yybb
F1)
420 YyBb
80 Yybb
80 yyBb
420 yybb
1. What are the genotypes of the parents?
YyBb and yybb
2. Which offspring are the recombinant offspring in this cross?
Yybb and yyBb are the genotypes with the lowest frequency, so we can assume these are the recombinant individuals.
3. How far apart are Y and B?
P = Recombinant number / Total of individuals
P = 80 + 80 / 1000 = 0.16
MU = P x 100 = 0.16 x 100 = 16 mu
Part 3: Crossing Tail-Feather Length and Feather ColorParentals) LlBb x llbb
F1)
480 LlBb
20 Llbb
20 llBb
480 llbb
1. Which offspring are not the recombinant offspring in this cross?
LlBb and llbb are the genotypes with the highest frequency, so we can assume these are not the recombinant individuals.
2. How far apart are L and B?
P = Recombinant number / Total of individuals
P = 20 + 20 / 1000 = 0.04
MU = P x 100 = 0.04 x 100 = 4 mu
Part 4: Mapping Beak Color, Tail-Feather Length, and Feather Color1. List the distances between each pair of genes:
beak color and tail-feather length: 20 mubeak color and feather color: 16 mutail-feather length and feather color: 4mu2. Which two alleles are the farthest apart?
Genes Y and B are the frathest apart
3. Which two alleles are the closest together?
Genes L and B are the closest together
4. True or False: The diagram shows the correct genetic map for these three alleles on one chromosome.
True, The diagram shows the correct genetic map for these three alleles on one chromosome.
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A chemist is trying to get two substances to react, but he is unsuccessful. He knows that the two substances should react with one another. Which of the following could he do to possibly get the substances to react? (Select all that apply)
a
increase the concentration of one of the substances
b
crush up one of the substances
c
decrease the concentration of one of the substances
d
cool the substances
e
heat the substances
Answer:
heat the substances
If we heat the substances because heating will make any substances react
By heating the substance, it is possible that the substances react to form the product. Heating a substance will increase the kinetic energy of the substance. Thus, the correct option is E.
What is a Chemical reaction?A chemical reaction is a process during which one or more substances, known as reactants, are converted to different substances, known as products. The substances are either chemical elements or compounds depending upon the reactants.
Heating the solution will result into formation of product as an increase in temperature will typically increases the rate of reaction by increasing the average kinetic energy of the reactant molecules in a solution. This will increase the collision frequency between substances in a solution which will lead to formation of products.
Therefore, the correct option is E.
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Help please, info in the pic
Integral membrane proteins have different characteristics and functions than peripheral membrane proteins. Identify the statements that are properties of integral membrane proteins and those that are properties of peripheral membrane proteins. Integral membrane proteins Peripheral membrane proteins Answer Bank can move laterally (sideways) in the hydrophobic part of the membrane | found at the surface of the cell membrane reach through all or part of the membrane pump substances across the cell membrane
Integral membrane proteins can move laterally (sideways) in the hydrophobic part of the membrane | found at the surface of the cell membrane reach through all or part of the membrane pump substances across the cell membrane.
Integral proteins; essential proteins are embedded in membrane because maximum of necessary proteins generally include hydrophobic facet chain. those proteins are strongly connected to plasma membrane and that they may be only removed with the aid of the usage of organic detergents, non-polar solvent and denaturing agents, SMIM23
2) Peripheral proteins; these proteins do no longer engage with hydrophobic core of membrane. They normally have interaction with plasma membrane via lipid polar head or vital proteins, Actin.
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adeneine occurs in about the same percentage as in a sample of dna cytosine occurs in about the same percantage as in a sample of dna so that a always pairs with ____ and c always pairs with ___
Adenine and cytosine always occur in about the same percentage in a sample of DNA, so that A always pairs with T (Thymine) and C always pairs with G (Guanine).
This complementary base pairing is essential for the process of DNA replication and is essential for the functioning of living organisms.
Adenine and Cytosine are two of the four nucleobases that make up the molecules of DNA. They are commonly referred to as A and C and are important components of genetic information. Adenine and Cytosine always occur in about the same percentage in a sample of DNA, which means that A always pairs with T and C always pairs with G.
A and T are referred to as complementary base pairs because they bond together and form a hydrogen bond. The hydrogen bond is created by the partial positive charge of the A and the partial negative charge of the T. A and T can only pair together because they fit perfectly and form a stable bond. In the same way, C and G form a complementary base pair and also form a stable bond. The G has a partial negative charge and the C has a partial positive charge that allows them to bond together.
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