a patient is receiving heparin intravenously. what signs and symptoms would alert you to the patient having adverse effects of heparin?

Answers

Answer 1

When a patient is receiving heparin intravenously, call  your doctor right away if any of these symptoms occur to you:

1.) Uncommon bleeding or bruising.

2.) Vomit that is stained with blood or resembles coffee grounds.

3.) Extreme fatigue.

What is most serious complication with heparin?

The most common and feared side effect of heparin therapy, (Hemorrhage) does not always occur on its own in patients receiving high doses of heparin.

Why is heparin a high alert medication?

Heparin blocks or deactivates the clotting cascade processes that result in coagulation and the formation/stabilization of fibrin clots. When the heparin dose is excessively high, these effects can result in serious bleeding.

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what medication is effectively used to treat eating disorders? group of answer choices stimulants mood stabilizers medications are generally not effective for these disorders. anti-psychotics

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Taking a stimulant might be particularly useful in the event that you have bulimia. Antidepressants can likewise assist with diminishing side effects of sadness or tension, which regularly happen alongside dietary problems.

There are a few unique kinds of medications accessible to treat psychological sicknesses. Probably the most usually utilized are antidepressants, against uneasiness, antipsychotics, temperament balancing out, and energizer meds. The main upper explicitly supported by the Food and Medication Organization to treat bulimia is fluoxetine (Prozac), a kind of specific serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which might help regardless of whether you're not discouraged. Medications, for example, Zyprexa and Eli Lilly have been utilized to assist animate hunger and weight gain in people with anorexia. These medications might be valuable for a patient whose unfortunate craving is keeping them from eating during treatment.

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why is it important for healthcare workers to wear personal protective equipment? standard precautions require it standard precautions require it for protection from pathogens for protection from pathogens for protection from blood and bodily fluid for protection from blood and bodily fluid all of the above

Answers

Answer:

all of the above

Explanation:

All of the answer choices are reasons as to why it is important for healthcare workers to wear personal protective equipment.

the nurse assesses a client who is bleeding profusely from the nose. the nurse documents this finding as which condition?

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The nurses document this finding as Epistaxis when assessing a client who is bleeding profusely from the nose.

When a blood vessel inside the nose bursts, a condition results. Types include nose front and nose rear. Nasal sprays and squeezing or applying pressure to the bleeding artery are treatments. Epistaxis is a frequent emergency that can be fatal, yet first-aid personnel is frequently undertrained in how to treat it.

Dry air is the most typical cause of nosebleeds. Warm indoor air or hot, low-humidity regions can also produce dry air. Both conditions lead to the fragile tissue inside your nose, the nasal membrane, drying up, becoming crusty or cracked, and being more likely to bleed when touched, plucked, or when you blow your nose.

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An athlete swims 1,400 meters in a pool. toward the end of the swim, there is a low amount of oxygen in the athlete’s muscles. why can the athlete still swim when the oxygen level in the muscle cells is low?

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Athletes require more oxygen levels to swim efficiently as the muscles require more energy however they can still swim if oxygen levels are low as during this period anaerobic respiration starts taking place.

What is Swimming?

Swimming is an important sports activity. It is an individual or team racing sport which requires the use of one's entire body to move through the water by applying force against the water waves to move forward. The sport takes place in pools or open water.

Oxygen gas makes us more concentrated and helps in doing any physical and mental work efficiently. It allows us to be accurate in our performances for longer periods of time. It also allows us to be sharper in life and also to swim faster.

Athletes can swim efficiently if there is enough oxygen in the water. However, the athlete can still swim when the oxygen level in the muscle cells is low because in this condition anaerobic respiration starts taking place which results into formation of lactic acid which causes fatigue.

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a group recommends that a time-limited trial of a new intake procedure be initiated within the welfare office to evaluate if this is worthwhile. this is a

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A group suggests starting a temporary study of a new procedure inside the benefits office to see if it's worthwhile. A project modification has occurred.

How is a medical procedure defined?

A procedure is a method of action used to offer healthcare and is meant to produce a result. A medical test is a procedure performed with the goal of identifying, quantifying, or diagnosing a patient's experience or parameter.

What is the most accurate way to define procedure?

A procedure is a way of carrying out a work that evaluation and monitoring and instructions for every part of the job. Once developed, procedures are frequently followed consistently to ensure a common understanding of what personnel should do in various situations.

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a client diagnosed with chronic renal failure is currently taking lithium for severe depression. how will this affect the plan of care?

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a client diagnosed with chronic renal failure is currently taking lithium for severe depression Lithium has a relatively limited therapeutic range and is only removed by the kidneys. If administered to a patient who has unstable renal function or renal impairment, the dose must be significantly decreased, and plasma lithium levels must be carefully monitored.

Initial research suggests that lithium may have an impact on lifespan and the likelihood of contracting various diseases, however the majority of investigations were done on people who were already using lithium. The relationship between physiologically acceptable blood lithium levels and dietary variables and cardiometabolic risk factors is poorly understood. In a community-based sample from Northern Germany, we examined plasma lithium. All participants, who ranged in age from 25 to 82, took standardised tests and filled out a semi-quantitative eating frequency questionnaire. Most commonly in people with mildly impaired renal function (eGFR 75 mL/min/1.73 m2), the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) was statistically substantially (inversely) linked with lithium levels.

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as a result of covid-19 group of answer choices online sales were not taken as a serious avenue for stand-alone purchases. online sales platforms note an attitude shift in internet sales and believe new attention to this sales model is permanent and transformative. nothing mentioned the top international galleries closed their brick-and-mortar spaces and moved all their business into the online space. online sales dipped significantly and did not increase as many thought they would.

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As a result of COVID-19 online sales platforms note an attitude shift in internet sales and believe new attention to this sales model is permanent and transformative.

Coronavirus disease (COVID-19) is a communicable disease caused by the SARS-CoV-2 virus. the general public infected with the virus can expertise delicate to moderate respiratory disease and recover while not requiring special treatment. the simplest due to stop and prevent transmission is to be up on concerning the unwellness and the way the virus spreads.

As lockdowns became the new traditional, businesses and shoppers progressively “went digital”, providing and buying a lot of product and services on-line, raising online sales platform's share of worldwide retail trade from 14 July in 2019 to concerning Revolutionary Organization 17 November in 2020.

As a result of COVID-19 online sales platforms note an attitude shift in internet sales and believe new attention to this sales model is permanent and transformative.

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All of the following are advantages of purchasing a single-dose unit of a topical anesthetic except one. which one is the exception?a. Dose manageable
b. Cost-effective
c. Less cross-contamination
d. Less messy

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The correct option is B ; Cost-effective. (Typically, individual packing of topical anesthetic is more costly. Individual packaging of topical anesthetics is not only less untidy,

but it also helps to avoid cross-contamination and permits monitoring of dose usage.)

While "cost effective" can still be used as an adjective, it is not hyphenated if it is not immediately followed by a noun. Harry went with the most cost-effective option. Sally's answer to the problem was quite inexpensive.

A transaction is cost-effective when the maximum benefit is obtained for the lowest possible price. The notion is widely used while selecting from a number of investment alternatives in order to create the highest potential return for the amount spent.

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what is the name for the comparative, biocultural study of disease, health problems, and health care systems?

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The name for the comparative, biocultural study of disease, health problems, and healthcare systems is medical anthropology.

Human health and disease, healthcare systems, and biocultural adaptability are all studied in medical anthropology. It takes a multifaceted and ecological approach to understanding humanity.

It is one of the most advanced fields in anthropology and applied anthropology, and it is a branch of social and cultural anthropology that looks at how culture and society are shaped by, or organized around, health, health care, and associated issues. Since 1963, anthropologists have referred to their empirical studies and theoretical creations as "medical anthropology."

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a client has been prescribed tinidazole for the treatment of a protozoal infection. what statement by the client indicates to the nurse that further teaching is warranted?

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Answer:

If a client has been prescribed tinidazole for the treatment of a protozoal infection and they say "I'm going to take this medication for five days, just like I did with my last antibiotic," this would indicate to the nurse that further teaching is warranted. This is because tinidazole is not an antibiotic, and the duration of treatment with tinidazole is typically longer than five days. It is important for the client to understand the correct duration of treatment with tinidazole in order to ensure that their infection is effectively treated. The nurse should provide the client with additional information and education about the medication, including how long they should take it and any potential side effects they may experience.

the nurse is caring for a client who has a peripherally inserted central catheter (picc) in place to receive antibiotics. as the nurse prepares to change the dressing of the picc, how should the nurse position the client?

Answers

The nurse should ensure the client is in a comfortable position, such as sitting up in bed with the arm extended and the elbow bent slightly. The nurse should also ensure that the client's arm is supported to prevent strain on the catheter insertion site.

Positioning the Client When Changing a PICC Dressing

The nurse should ensure the client is in a comfortable position when preparing to change the dressing of the peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). The client should be sitting up in bed with the arm extended, and the elbow bent slightly. It is also important that the client's arm is supported to prevent strain on the catheter insertion site and to ensure the comfort of the client. The nurse should also use proper technique to minimize the risk of infection and ensure the dressing is properly secured.

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a medical assistant is preparing the autoclave to sterilize instruments. which of the following items is required to properly process instruments?

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The autoclave is being set up by a medical assistant to sterilize the tools. signs of sterilization

Explain about the Sterilization?

Medical equipment is sterilized using a variety of methods, such as steam, dry heat, radiation, ethylene oxide gas, hydrogen peroxide vapor, and others (for example, chlorine dioxide gas, vaporized peracetic acid, and nitrogen dioxide).

The process of sterilization involves employing either physical or chemical agents to get rid of all germs, including bacteria, viruses, and fungi. A disinfectant is a substance that has the chemical ability to eliminate microorganisms from inanimate surfaces such as operating tables and medical instruments.

The term "sterilization" refers to the full eradication of all living organisms, including spores. It is common practise to sterilise objects using wet heat, dry heat, chemical usage, radiation, and other techniques. Depending on the item being sterilized, the container it will be in, and the quantity of items, a certain procedure may be ideal.

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a client is prescribed donepezil. the nurse would expect to administer this drug at which frequency?

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Answer:

A client who is prescribed donepezil would typically be instructed to take the drug once daily. Donepezil is a medication used to treat symptoms of Alzheimer's disease and other forms of dementia. It works by increasing the levels of certain chemicals in the brain that are involved in memory, thinking, and behavior. The recommended dose and frequency of donepezil will vary depending on the individual's age, weight, and medical history, as well as the severity of their symptoms. However, in most cases, the drug is taken once daily, usually at bedtime, to help improve cognitive function and reduce the symptoms of dementia. The nurse would expect to administer donepezil at this frequency as part of the client's plan of care.

complete the following paragraph to describe the two processes by which the influenza virus evolves.

Answers

Recall that antigens are substances, like viruses and their parts, that cause our immune system to start an immune response.

Viruses are antigenic , meaning that they develop methods to avoid detection by the immune system.

How to describe the two processes by which the influenza virus evolves?

When small changes to the surface spikes of the virus allow it to evade detection by the immune system, it is referred to as antigenic drift.

This process can occur quickly in the influenza virus and other RNA viruses because the enzyme required to convert ANA into DNA has low fidelity, meaning it makes many mistakes during replication.

When two different forms of a virus infect the same host cell and viral particles are reassembled into a new form, it is referred to as antigenic shift.

This causes a rapid change in the virus, so the immune system takes longer to respond, meaning it's more likely to cause an outbreak.

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the primary health care provider (phcp) has prescribed an antibiotic for a child. the average adult dose is 500 mg. the child has a body surface area (bsa) of 0.63 m2. what is the dose for the child? fill in the blank.

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The primary health care provider (phcp) has prescribed an antibiotic for a child. the average adult dose is 500 mg. the child has a body surface area (bsa) of 0.63 m2. what is the dose for the child 182 mg.

A particular class of antimicrobial agent that works against bacteria is an antibiotic. Antibiotic drugs are often employed in the treatment and prevention of bacterial infections because they are the most effective form of antibacterial agent for doing so.

Bacteria may be killed or have their growth suppressed. Only a few antibiotics also have antiprotozoal properties. Antibiotics are ineffective against viruses like the flu or the common cold; instead, antiviral medicines or antivirals are used to describe medications that prevent the development of viruses.

Additionally, they are ineffective against fungi; antifungal medications are those that prevent the growth of fungus.

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the nurse is planning the client assignments for the day. the assignment that the nurse communicates to the unlicensed assistive personnel (uap) includes which clients? select all that apply.

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The nurse is planning the client assignments for the day. the assignment that the nurse communicates to the unlicensed assistive personnel (uap) includes a client who requires frequent ambulation.

RNs or other clinically competent experts delegate the range of care that UAPs are in charge of. UAPs provide care for everyone who needs it, including hospital patients, nursing home patients, private home clients, and anybody else who need it due to their age or handicap.

After an accident or surgery, many people could find it difficult to stand or walk by themselves. For them to ambulate or walk about, a certified nursing assistant may be needed (CNA). A transfer is what is happening here. A badly done transfer may be quite dangerous for both the patient and the CNA. Making beds, observing patients as they move, assisting with cleaning, and serving meals are examples of easy, everyday duties that may be assigned.

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Assume you are a planner within a large healthcare system in a state that is participating in an expansion of Medicaid coverage. You want to project the demand for healthcare services over the next ten years in the counties in which your healthcare system operates. What data will you need to model demand for healthcare services? Assume that the model you produce projects a significant increase in demand for ambulatory care visits over the next ten years. How should the healthcare system respond to these projections?

Answers

Explanation:

To model the demand for healthcare services, a planner would need to collect data on a variety of factors that can affect the demand for healthcare services. These factors could include population demographics (such as age, gender, and income), the prevalence of chronic diseases, the availability and accessibility of healthcare providers and facilities, and trends in healthcare utilization and cost. The planner would also need to collect data on the specific services provided by the healthcare system, such as inpatient and outpatient care, primary care and specialty care, and preventive and acute care.

If the model projects a significant increase in demand for ambulatory care visits over the next ten years, the healthcare system should respond by making plans to increase the availability and accessibility of ambulatory care services. This could involve expanding existing ambulatory care facilities, opening new ambulatory care facilities, or increasing the number of providers who offer ambulatory care services. The healthcare system should also consider implementing strategies to improve the efficiency and effectiveness of ambulatory care services, such as using advanced technologies, implementing team-based care models, and coordinating care across different settings. By taking these steps, the healthcare system can ensure that it is able to meet the projected increase in demand for ambulatory care services.

an adult client is scheduled to receive the inactivated hepatitis a vaccine. the nurse should provide what education to the client?

Answers

"You'll need another dose of the vaccine in six to 12 months from now."

What is hepatitis A?

Hepatitis A is a highly contagious liver infection caused by the hepatitis A virus (HAV). It is usually spread through contact with an infected person’s feces (stool). Symptoms of hepatitis A include fever, fatigue, loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, dark urine, clay-colored stools, and jaundice (yellowing of the skin and eyes). In most cases, the virus goes away on its own. Treatment is supportive and includes rest, fluids, and medications to manage symptoms. Vaccination is available to prevent hepatitis A.

A second dose of the hepatitis A vaccine is required after six to twelve months. After receiving the vaccine, drinking alcohol is not prohibited. The time it takes for B cells to produce the immune-boosting immunoglobulins is longer than 48 hours. There is no need for a yearly booster shot for the hepatitis A vaccine.

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when assessing a client with varicose veins, which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect to find? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.

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The clinical manifestations should the nurse expect are reports of leg fatigue, tortuous veins in the legs, and pain in the lower extremities when standing in the client with varicose veins.

Clinical symptoms that the nurse should look out for include reports of tired legs, twisted veins in the legs, and lower extremity pain upon standing. Leg tiredness is also a common clinical symptom brought on by venous stasis and inadequate tissue oxygenation. Veins that are distended, bulging, and appear tortuous and black are caused by deteriorated and dilated vein walls. Leg pain results from vein stasis and insufficient oxygenation as vein walls weaken and widen, which increases venous pressure and renders the valves unusable. The telltale signs of thrombophlebitis are discolored toenails caused by a fungus under the nail or chronic hypoxia, not varicose veins, localized to a small area of heat in the calf, and inflamed zones on the leg.

The complete question is:

A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of varicose veins. Which clinical findings can the nurse expect to identify when assessing this client? Select all that apply.

1. Discolored toenails

2. Reports of leg fatigue

3. Localized heat in a calf

4. Reddened areas on a leg

5. Tortuous veins in the legs

6. Pain in lower extremities when standing

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he nurse is preparing to administer 0.25 mg of bumetanide (bumex) iv. the medication is available in a vial labeled 1 mg/4 ml. how many ml of medication should the nurse administer?

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1 is the answer , bumetanide medication should the nurse administer, Using the formula Desired/Have x Volume: Have = 1 mg Desired = 0.25 mg = 4 ml in volume 1.25 milligrams/1 mg x 4 milliliters.

Bumetanide is a loop diuretic that may result administer in an electrolyte and fluid imbalance. Low blood potassium values may occur in patients using this medication. Peaked T waves are one of the ECG abnormalities linked to higher blood potassium content. The administer intended outcome of bumetanide administration is diuresis. A rise in serum glucose levels necessitates action, however bumetanide treatment was not the cause of this rise.

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For most people, as exercise intensity increases from moderate intensity to high intensity, which of the following would contribute to an increase in cardiac output?
Group of answer choices
Increase in SNS activity
Increase stroke volume
Increase in heart rate
Increase in VO2

Answers

For most people, as exercise intensity increases from moderate intensity to high intensity, Increase in heart rate would contribute to an increase in cardiac output. The correct option to this question is C.

Exercise causes many changes in the body, including an increase in blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate. There is also an increase in the oxygen demand on body tissues.

Two significant changes in blood flow are made to fulfill the need for oxygen: an increase in the heart's cardiac output, or the amount of blood it pumps out every minute, and a redistribution of blood flow from passive organs to active skeletal muscle.

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a school nurse provides care in a large elementary school. many of the students have diagnoses of adhd. for which child with adhd would the use of methylphenidate most likely be safe and effective?

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Methylphenidate is a stimulant medication used to treat Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD).

The safety and effectiveness of this medication depend on the individual child and the severity of their symptoms. Generally, methylphenidate is considered safe and effective for children aged six and over who have been diagnosed with moderate to severe ADHD.

When considering whether to prescribe methylphenidate for a specific child, the school nurse would need to assess the child's medical history and current symptoms. The school nurse would need to take into account any other medications the child is taking, as well as any underlying medical conditions they may have. The school nurse should also consider the child's age and physical maturity, as methylphenidate may not be suitable for younger children or those with low body weight.

It is important to note that methylphenidate should not be given to children who have certain medical conditions, including glaucoma, tics, or a history of substance abuse. The school nurse should also be aware of the potential side effects of methylphenidate, including loss of appetite, trouble sleeping, and mood swings.

Overall, methylphenidate can be a safe and effective treatment option for children with moderate to severe ADHD. For the use of methylphenidate to be safe and effective, the school nurse should assess the individual child and take into account their medical history and current symptoms.

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the nurse and nursing assistant are moving a client who slid down in the chair. what does the nurse encourage the assistant to avoid shearing when moving the client to a higher position in the chair?

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The medical caretaker urges the right hand to shift the seat back while moving the client to abstain from shearing while moving the client to a higher situation in the seat.

Leave the grinding decreasing sheet set up for the bring move back. While moving a client from bed to a cot, the medical caretakers cooperate to turn the client to situate an exchange board somewhat under the client. One of the main preventive measures is diminishing mechanical burden. On the off chance that patients can't enough turn or reposition themselves, this might prompt tension ulcer improvement. It is basic for attendants to assist with decreasing the mechanical burden for patients. This incorporates regular turning and repositioning of patients. Continuously get as near the patient as you can while lifting. Keep your arms and persistence as near your body as you can to assist with making influence and keep up with the balance. Twist at the knees while keeping your back as straight as could really be expected. Perceive your limits and call for reinforcement when expected to lift the patient.

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the patient is admitted with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis related to chronic alcohol use. the nurse obtains the patient's vital signs, performs a physical assessment, and reviews the patient's health history. what is the priority intervention by the nurse?

Answers

The priority intervention by the nurse for a  acute pancreatitis is to stop comsuming alcohol and take a proper diet, fresh fruits, vegetanles, whole grains and lean proteins.

The pancreas is inflamed by pancreatitis. The pancreas is a long, flat gland that is hidden in the upper belly beyond the stomach. In addition to hormones that influence how your body consumes sugar, the pancreas also generates enzymes that aid in digestion (glucose).

The redness and swelling (inflammation) of the pancreas are symptoms of pancreatitis. It could be persistent or sudden (acute) (chronic). Alcohol consumption and lumps of solid matter (gallstones) in the gallbladder are the two most frequent causes. Resting the pancreas and allowing it to recuperate are the main goals of treatment.

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all the following statements related to medical emergencies in oral healthcare settings are correct except which one?

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Diagnostic activities should be effective to establish a database that identifies those patients at-risk who may experience a medical emergency. At a minimum, in the event of a life-threatening medical emergency, OHCP must feel comfortable to perform BLS techniques to stabilize the patient until EMS arrives.

A "medical emergencies" is a sudden illness or injury that threatens someone's life or long-term health. Some of these circumstances necessitate the knowledge of a qualified professional, such as those involving the digestive, respiratory, and circulatory systems (heart). Depending on the severity of the issue and the efficacy of any treatment given, it may be essential to involve different levels of care, from first responders through emergency medical technicians, paramedics, emergency physicians, and anesthesiologists.

The situation, the patient, and the available resources will all have a substantial impact on any reaction to an emergency medical crisis.

The complete question is:

All the following statements related to medical emergencies in oral healthcare settings are correct except which one?

A. Diagnostic activities should be effective to establish a database that identifies those patients at-risk who may experience a medical emergency.

B. Available data on the types and incidence of medical emergencies in oral healthcare settings indicate that the rate of medical emergencies per dentist per year is quite high.

C. At a minimum, in the event of a life-threatening medical emergency, OHCP must feel comfortable to perform BLS techniques to stabilize the patient until EMS arrives.

D. It must be emphatically stated that advanced life support (ALS) activities should not be attempted without sufficient training and maintenance of skills.

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with , the therapist administers a 1- to 2-milliamp electric current to the scalp; with , repeated pulses surge through a magnetic coil held close to the skull

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With electroconvulsive therapy, the therapist administers a 1- to 2-milliamp electric current to the scalp; with repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation , repeated pulses surge through a magnetic coil held close to the skull and is denoted as option B.

What is Psychosurgery?

This is referred to as a rare form of  surgery which is used to treat severe mental health problems such as depression and involves  electroconvulsive therapy etc.

It is usually the last option of treatment and it involves the trained professional administering electric current to the scalp. There is also repeated pulses surge through a magnetic coil held close to the skull thereby making it the correct choice in this scenario.

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The options are:

A)electroconvulsive therapy; deep brain stimulation

B)electroconvulsive therapy; repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation

C)transcranial direct current stimulation; repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation

D)transcranial electrical stimulation; deep brain stimulation

when assessing a newborn for coagulation factors the perinatal nurse recalls that coagulation factors to enable the newborn to effectively clot blood after childbirth are activated by what vitamin?

Answers

Vitamin K activates the process of blood clotting after childbirth to help the newborn.

The newborn is in danger of developing a blood clotting deficiency during the first few days of life since vitamin K isn't present at delivery. During the initial treatment and assessment, the infant receives an intramuscular injection of vitamin K, phytonadione (AquaMEPHYTON), to prevent hemorrhagic illness.

Within six hours of birth, your infant receives the injection in the thigh. Your baby only needs one dose to avoid bleeding due to a vitamin K deficiency. Because of this, physicians have advocated since 1961 for all newborns to receive a vitamin K injection at delivery.

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the most common cause of thyrotoxicosis is graves disease. when assessing this client, the nurse should put priority on which sign/symptom?

Answers

Overt thyrotoxicosis manifests as heat intolerance, palpitations, anxiety, exhaustion, weight loss, muscle weakness, and, in women, irregular menstruation. Tremor, tachycardia, lid lag, and warm, wet skin are examples of clinical symptoms that may be present.

What contributes to thyrotoxicosis the most frequently?

Graves' disease, toxic multinodular goiter (TMNG), and toxic adenoma are the three most common causes of thyrotoxicosis, respectively [7]. In addition, there are other reasons, such as pregnant hyperthyroidism, subacute thyroiditis, and thyroiditis without symptoms.

Which sign of Graves disease is clinically significant?

Only Graves' disease, also known as Graves' ophthalmopathy or orbitopathy, can cause inflammation of the eyes, swelling of the tissues around the eyes, and bulging of the eyes.

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under the csa, doctors who administer, dispense, or prescribe any controlled substance must register with the dea

Answers

The Controlled Substances Act (CSA) provides that every person who dispenses, or who proposes to dispense, any controlled substance shall obtain from the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) a registration issued in accordance with DEA rules and regulations.

The Controlled Drugs Act (CSA), a federal law that establishes U.S. drug policy, regulates the production, importation, possession, use, and distribution of certain substances.

The 91st United States Congress approved it as Title II of the Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970, and President Richard Nixon signed it into law. Additionally, the Act acted as the country's official implementation of the Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs.

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we can reasonably conclude that legalization of drugs will lead to a reduction in what type of drug crime?

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We can reasonably conclude that legalizing drugs will reduce drug-defined crime.

The several ways that crime and drugs are connected are summarized as follows:

Drug-defined offenses. This type of crime involves violations of the laws that forbid or regulate the use, possession, manufacturing, or distribution of illicit substances.Drug-related offenses. crimes that are influenced by a drug's pharmacological effects; those that are brought on by a user's desire for money to maintain using; and offenses related to drug distribution altogether.Drug-using lifestyle. Crime and drug use are frequent features of an aberrant lifestyle. Drug users may well not engage in the legal economy and may be exposed to circumstances that foster crime, which increases the chance and frequency of participating in illicit behavior.

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3. Describe how management theory has progressed from the Industrial Revolution to the 21st century. Give one example of classical management theory being used today. Give one example of modern management theory being used today. FILL IN THE BLANK. In order to address past discrimination and ensure a diverse environment in school, a university may institute ______ admission policies. 1. Debate the benefits and potential for harm that websites such as those that explain how to build bombs and other types of weapons present. If a website instructs visitors on how to perform an illegal act, justify why you feel the site's creator(s) should or should not be held criminally liable if a visitor carries out those instructions.2. Identify who, if anyone, is responsible for preventing potentially harmful information from being shared via the Web.3. Explain if there is any Internet content that you believe a government has the right or obligation to censor. Justify your position. Describe where you believe the line should be drawn between freedom of speech and national or personal safety List the following events in the correct order.1. France recognizes America as an independent nation.2. Americans obtain military supplies by taking Fort Ticonderoga.3. The Declaration of Independence is adopted. a car is moving at a constant tangential speed of 50.0 m/s and takes one lap around a circular track in a time of 74.4 s. what is the magnitude of the acceleration of the car? Recent research suggests that ______ in childhood is associated with increased risk later in life for nearly all classes of psychological disorders. 13-4 who owns the file? what is the group owner? what category do the apache daemons use when they run as the user apache and group apache? g explain very briefly how irving fisher (quantity theory) believed inflation is determined by the growth rate of the money supply over economic growth (2 pts for the equation too). pratt incorporated reported $198,300 book depreciation on its financial statements and deducted $256,000 macrs depreciation on its tax return. as a result, pratt has a $57,700:A) Favorable permanent book/tax differenceB) Unfavorable permanent book/tax differenceC) Unfavorable temporary book/tax differenceD) Favorable temporary book/tax differenc Solve for x. Round to the nearest tenth if necessary.20X25X type your answer. f the beginning inventory is $15,000, purchases are $24,000, and the ending inventory is $23,000, the goods available for sale: you work in a lab and you have discovered a brilliant method for targeted control of chromatin structure and remodeling on a gene-by-gene basis. you are specifically interested in modifying the transcription of oncogenes, which are genes whose overexpression can lead to cancer. select which modifications you would make in cancer cells that are over expressing oncogenes. check all that apply.A.Increase acetylation of histonesB.Decrease ocetylation of histories.C.Decrease phosphorylation of histonesD.Increase phosphorylation of histonesE.Increase methylation of hetonesF.Decrease methylation of histiche Please answer at least 1 or 2 questions or morekitten in the coldHow do they find the cat?What does the kitten love to do?What's part of the book do you like the most? If you invest $50,000 to earn 8% interest, which of the following compounding approaches would return the lowest amount after one year?a. dailyb. monthlyc. quarterlyd. annually an fda representative randomly selects 8 packages of ground chuck from a grocery store and measures the fat content (as a percent) of each package. assume that the fat contents have an approximately normal distribution. the resulting measurements are given below.fat contents (%)12 15 16 1315 13 15 13step 1 of 2 : calculate the sample mean and the sample standard deviation of the fat contents. round your answers to two decimal places, if necessary. Write an equation for the relationship between x and y. Simplify any fractions. (IXL K.5 Seventh Grade Math) directors are under what type of duty to conduct themselves on behalf of the corporation as a reasonably prudent person in the conduct of personal business affairs? neisseria meningitidis, which causes meningococcal meningitis, is capable of triggering sporadic disease outbreaks by which of the following methods? in the united states, what are programs such as the interstate highway system and services to the unemployed most accurately considered? Mr. Hamilton is scheduled for a digital rectal exam, serum prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level, urinalysis, serum creatinine, and blood urea nitrogen (BUN). He states he has had the rectal exam and PSA levels done before the prostate screening. He asks why the other lab test (creatinine and BUN levels) are necessary. What explanation should the nurse provide?