a nurse, working in a rural county public health department, has been alerted that there is an outbreak of tuberculosis (tb) in the area. which client is at highest risk for developing tb?

Answers

Answer 1

Groups at High Risk for Developing TB Disease, People living with HIV. Children younger than 5 years of age., People with a history of untreated or inadequately treated TB disease.

What is tuberculosis?

A potentially serious infectious bacterial disease that mainly affects the lungs. The bacteria that cause TB are spread when an infected person coughs or sneezes. Most people infected with the bacteria that cause tuberculosis don't have symptoms.

The general symptoms of TB disease include feelings of sickness or weakness, weight loss, fever, and night sweats.

Tuberculosis (TB) is caused by a type of bacterium called Mycobacterium tuberculosis.


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true or false: a negative result to either a tst or igra test shows that a patient is indeed negative for tb.

Answers

False
A negative reaction to any of the tests does not exclude the diagnosis of LTBI or TB disease. Decisions should include patient history and clinical information when using IGRA or TST results. Decisions should not be based on TST or IGRA results alone.

the nurse is caring for a client who informs the nurse that it is difficult to void when experiencing stress, and asks why this happens. which response by the nurse is appropriate?

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The nurse is caring for a client who informs the nurse that it is difficult to void when experiencing stress. Stress causes the muscles to become tense response by the nurse is appropriate.

Why do we tense up when worried?

The body becomes tense as a result of anxiety. According to Conover, the brain can respond to fears by telling the muscles to tense up in preparation for an impending event. Similar to if you were defending your body from being punched or about to be in an accident.

What fuels the stress?

Having little or no control over how something will turn out. Have obligations that you consider to be too much. You don't have enough employment, hobbies, or life changes. experience abuse, hatred, or discrimination.

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a pregnant client is positive for the human immunodeficiency virus (hiv). the nurse educates the client and determines that there is a need for further teaching if the client makes which statement?

Answers

Breast-feeding my newborn will be the best option for baby.

What is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a chronic disease that attacks the immune system, increasing your risk of serious infections or cancer. If HIV is not treated, it can progress to acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), a severe form of HIV infection. There is no cure for HIV, but there are HIV prevention and treatment options.

Who is HIV affecting?

An estimated 1.1 million people in the United States have HIV. Two out of every three new diagnoses are given to African Americans and Hispanics/Latinos. Both men and women are susceptible to infection. Men who have s-ex with other men, transgender women who have s-ex with men, and people who inject drugs are more likely to get HIV. HIV prevalence is higher in some communities.

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What anterior pituitary hormone stimulates mammary gland colostrum production in late pregnancy?.

Answers

Answer:

Prolactin increases milk protein synthesis by boosting mammary gland ductal development and epithelial cell proliferation.

Explanation:

the nurse plans care for a 3-year-old who was admitted with suspected pertussis infection. which instructions will the nurse include in the plan of care? select all that apply.

Answers

The things that a nurse must include in the care plan for a 3-year-old client with suspected pertussis infection are:

Institute droplet precautions.Monitor for signs of airway obstruction.Offer small amounts of fluids frequently.

Pertussis infection, or often called whooping cough, is a respiratory tract infection. It's highly contagious but is preventable by vaccine.

The symptoms of whooping cough are usually started by mild symptoms resembling a common cold, such as a runny nose and fever. After a week or two, thick mucus accumulates inside the airways, causing uncontrollable coughing and worsening the symptoms. If let untreated, it may cause abdominal hernias, bruised ribs, and broken blood vessels.

The question above is not complete, but the completed version is as follows:

The nurse plans care for a 3-year-old who was admitted with suspected pertussis infection. Which instructions will the nurse include in the plan of care? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

1. Institute droplet precautions
2. Monitor for signs of airway obstruction
3. Offer small amounts of fluids frequently
4. Place the child in a negative-pressure isolation room.
5. Request an order for a cough suppressant.

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a client is admitted with a stage four pressure ulcer that has a black, hardened surface and a light-pink wound bed with a malodorous green drainage. which dressing is best for the nurse to use first

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Wet to moist dressing is best for nurse to use first.

What is moist dressing?

With this type of dressing, a wet (or moist) gauze dressing is put on your wound and allowed to dry. Wound drainage and dead tissue can be removed when you take off the old dressing. A moist wound environment has several benefits that result in faster and better quality of healing. It facilitates autolytic debridement, reduces pain, reduces scarring, activates collagen synthesis, facilitates and promotes keratinocyte migration over the wound surface, and supports the presence and function of nutrients, growth factors, and other soluble mediators in the wound microenvironment.

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the nurse is appraising the medical record of a pregnant client who is resting in a darkened room and receiving betamethasone and magnesium sulfate. the nurse recognizes the client is being treated for which condition?

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This woman has to be watched for the development of eclampsia since she has severe pre eclampsia.

define eclampsia ?

When a woman has pre-eclampsia, it is called eclampsia. Pre-eclampsia is one of the hypertensive diseases of pregnancy and manifests as edoema, significant levels of protein in the urine, and other organ dysfunction in addition to its three primary symptoms: new-onset high blood pressure. Pre-eclampsia can be diagnosed if high blood pressure appears after 20 weeks of pregnancy or in the second half of pregnancy. It can happen before, during, or after delivery and often happens during the third trimester of pregnancy. The tonic-clonic seizures generally last one minute and are of the tonic-clonic variety. There is either a period of bewilderment or unconsciousness after the seizure. Aspiration pneumonia, cerebral haemorrhage, renal failure, pulmonary edoema, HELLP syndrome, coagulopathy, and placental abruption are some of the other problems.

This woman has to be watched for the development of eclampsia since she has severe preeclampsia. Magnesium sulphate is given to patients to relax their skeletal muscles and lower their risk of having a seizure.

They can breathe more easily with the help of betamethasone, which also lowers their risk of experiencing head haemorrhage and increases their likelihood of surviving. Although this medication is often used during pregnancy, the ideal interval between doses is not yet known.

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a client who had a prostatectomy has learned perineal exercises to gain control of the urinary sphincter. the nurse determines that the client needs further teaching if the client states that he will perform which action as part of these exercises?

Answers

Perform the Valsalva maneuver

What is Valsalva maneuver?

The Valsalva maneuver is performed by a forceful attempt of exhalation against a closed airway, usually done by closing one's mouth and pinching one's nose shut while expelling air out as if blowing up a balloon. Variations of the maneuver can be used either in medical examination as a test of cardiac function and autonomic nervous control of the heart, or to clear the ears and sinuses (that is, to equalize pressure between them) when ambient pressure changes, as in scuba diving, hyperbaric oxygen therapy, or air travel.

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what intervention should the nurse implement to help keep a 6-month-old infant calm during a physical assessment?

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Encourage the parent to hold the infant. intervention should the nurse implement to help keep a 6-month-old infant calm during a physical assessment

Each stage of infant (0 to 12 month) and toddler (12 to 36 month) development is marked by a different milestone. Each milestone is typically attained by healthy newborns and toddlers within a certain timeframe, but the size of that window might vary widely. The newborn or kid should have symmetrical facial features. You should also look at the child's body posture and motions, nutritional condition, hygiene, mental alertness, and hair texture, thickness, and distribution. Finally, you should check the skin for lesions, bruises, scars, and birthmarks. noting psychological condition and actions.

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a school-age child is admitted to the hospital with acute rheumatic fever with chorea-like movements. which eating utensil should the nurse remove from the meal tray?

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The eating utensils that the nurse should remove is the fork. That is option A.

What is rheumatic fever?

Rheumatic fever is the type of fever that arises as a complication of an untreated streptococcus infection which has the ability to affect the heart and lungs.

The clinical manifestations of rheumatic fever include the following:

fast heart rate, murmur, or palpitationsAerythema marginatum, polyarthritis, or sore throatcholera-like movement

When cholera-like movement in is observed, the nurse should remove the fork to prevent further injury to the child.

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Complete question:

A school-age child is admitted to the hospital with acute rheumatic fever with chorea-like movements. Which eating utensil should the nurse remove from the meal tray?

fork

spoon

plastic cup

drinking straw

which infants should the nurse recognize as being at higher likelihood for requiring phototherapy? select all that apply.

Answers

The infants that the nurse should recognize as being at a higher likelihood of requiring phototherapy are:

babies born before 38 weeks of gestationjaundice in breastfeeding infants

The correct options are A and C.

What is phototherapy?

Phototherapy is the therapeutic process of using light to treat jaundice in babies.

Jaundice is the condition in which the skin, the mucous membranes, and the white part of the eye turn yellow due to an accumulation of the yellow-orange bile pigment known as bilirubin.

Jaundice occurs as a result of the inability of the body to break down bilirubin.

In infants who are born preterm or before 38 weeks as well as some infants that are breastfed during the first few weeks, there is a high risk of jaundice. In preterm infants, the babies do not have a well-developed liver.

During phototherapy, light exposure helps the body to break down bilirubin.

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Complete question:

Which infants should the nurse recognize as being at a higher likelihood of requiring phototherapy? select all that apply.

a. babies born before 38 weeks of gestation

b. babies born after 38 weeks of gestation

c. jaundice in breastfeeding infants

d. babies with congenital heart defect

a nurse has provided postpartum discharge instructions to a client who had a cesarean section. what statement by the client would indicate to the nurse that further teaching is necessary?

Answers

The discharge instructions given by the nurse was that being careful.

define cesarean section ?

A procedure when the mother's abdominal wall is sliced through in order to deliver the baby.

Shower as necessary. Dry off your wound by patting it.

Keep an eye out for indications of infection, such as increased redness or drainage, in your incision.

When you laugh, cough, or stand from a sleeping or sitting posture, hold a cushion against the incision.

Keep in mind that healing from an incision might take up to 6 weeks.

Your recovery will occur more quickly the more often you get out of bed. As soon as you're ready, you can gradually resume your regular activities. Start with light exercise like walking. Exercise has several advantages, such as better muscular tone, faster recovery, and a happier outlook. Both you and your kid will feel refreshed by the sunshine and fresh air.

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the nurse in the emergency department is listening to the breath sounds of a client with respiratory distress and hears this sound. (refer to audio.) the nurse determines that this finding is characteristic of which disorder?

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The nurse concludes that this observation is characteristic of bronchitis.

What is bronchitis?

Bronchitis is an inflammatory condition that affects the lining of the bronchial tubes, which transport air to and from your lungs. Bronchitis patients frequently cough up thicker, brownish mucus. Bronchitis can be acute or persistent. Acute bronchitis is a typical complication of a cold or another respiratory infection. Chronic bronchitis, a more dangerous illness, that is characterized by a persistent irritation or inflammation of the bronchial tube lining, which is frequently caused by smoking.

Acute bronchitis, often known as a chest cold, normally clears itself within a week to ten days with no long-term consequences, though the cough can remain for weeks.

If you have recurring bouts of bronchitis, you may develop chronic bronchitis, which necessitates medical attention. Chronic bronchitis is one of the disorders that fall under the umbrella of chronic obstructive lung disease (COPD).

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a patient with a history of bipolar disorder is called by the postpartum support nurse for follow-up. which symptoms would reassure the nurse that the patient is not experiencing a manic episode?

Answers

Appetite increases and a lack of interest in activities.

what is bipolar disorder?

Extreme mood swings, including emotional highs (mania or hypomania) and lows, are a symptom of bipolar illness, formerly known as manic depression .

The nurse would be reassured that the client is not going through a manic episode if their hunger grew, and they showed little interest in anything. Grandiosity, diminished need for sleep, pressurized speech, flight of ideas, distractibility, psychomotor agitation, and excessive engagement in enjoyable activities are at least three of the clinical signs of a manic episode.

The lady displaying signs of a manic episode will probably have a lower level of interest in eating and an increased level of interest in enjoyable activities without consideration for unfavorable outcomes. Clinical signs of a manic episode include strained speech and grandiosity, hyperactivity and distractibility, psychomotor agitation, loss of sleep, and hyperactivity.

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what aspects of the topic readings do you find the most interesting? what is your view of the analysis of disease and healing in the readings? explain.

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The sickness could be considered to as a physical disorder, per the readings.

Even while a disease's typical response is a biological one, there are also social and psychological aspects to it.In order to comprehend moral discourse in comparison to other types of speech and writing, the metaethicist is concerned.My personal interpretation of illness and recovery from the readings is that it is the duty of a professional nurse to provide patients with the specialized spiritual care they require throughout the healing process.Scientism The reading's discussion on scientism's worldview was the one I found most fascinating. I was unfamiliar with and had never heard of this subject. Scientism adherents concur that the only trustworthy means for obtaining any correct knowledge are scientific procedures.

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a school-age child has just spilled hot liquid on his arm, and a 4-in (10-cm) area on his forearm is severely burned. his mother calls the emergency department. what should the nurse advise the mother to do?

Answers

Apply cool water to the burned area would be most likely, hospital seems extreme, a cream would normally be put on after a day or two, and he child's warmth is pointless.

What is  emergency department ?

According to the National Hospital Ambulatory Medical Care Survey, an emergency department is a hospital location that is staffed twenty-four hours a day, seven days a week, and provides unplanned outpatient treatments to patients whose health requires immediate attention (NHAMCS).

What is burned ?

Devour; oxidise, just like when someone breathes, they burn a certain amount of carbon; burn iron in oxygen; cause to join with oxygen or another active agent with the evolution of heat.

Therefore, Apply cool water to the burned area would be most likely, hospital seems extreme, a cream would normally be put on after a day or two, and he child's warmth is pointless.

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the nurse is administering an intravenous solution 250 ml to be infused over 2 hours. how many ml/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump

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125 ml/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump when she is administering an intravenous solution 250 ml to be infused over 2 hours.

An external infusion pump is a medical tool used to carefully administer fluids to patients. Infusion pumps come in a wide range of varieties and are used in a number of settings and for a variety of purposes. Infusion pumps can supply fluids in big or little amounts, and they can be used to deliver nutrition or pharmaceuticals, such as antibiotics, painkillers, insulin or other hormones, or hormones, antibiotics, or chemotherapeutic drugs. Some infusion pumps are primarily intended for stationary use next to a patient's bed. Others, referred to as ambulatory infusion pumps, are made to be worn or portable. A medical gadget called an infusion pump helps patients receive fluids like nutrition and drugs in precisely measured volumes.

250 ml : 2 hours = X ml : 1 hour

250 = 2X

X = 250 / 2

   = 125 ml/hr

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the nurse working in a prenatal clinic reviews a client's chart and notes that the primary health care provider documents that the client has a gynecoid pelvis. the nurse plans care understanding that which findings are characteristic of this type of pelvis? select all that apply.

Answers

Prenatal care aims to not only give the pregnant woman as well as the developing fetus the best possible care but also to get the expectant mother ready for the delivering of a healthy baby.

1. Round shape

4. Diagonal conjugate measures 12.5 cm to 13 cm

5. Blunt, somewhat widely separated ischial spines

Classical criteria and measured parameters, both alone and also in combination, were used to determine the presence of gynecoid pelvis in the pelvic inlet, midpelvis, and pelvic outlet.

The gynecoid and anthropoid pelvises are generally acceptable; however, the android as well as platypelloid pelvises are known to be suboptimal.  The gynecoid pelvis is characterized by its bone structure and, as a result, shape as being typical of a woman. Gynecoid means "womanly" or "female." The female pelvis is much more delicate, wider, and lower in height than the male pelvis. The female pubic arch has a wide and round angle.

Gender identification using a single pelvic bone (the pubic bone) has an accuracy of up to 95%.

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the mucous membrane that lines the eyelids and is reflected over the anterior surface of the eyeball is the conjunctiva. t or f

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The mucous membrane that lines the eyelids and is reflected over the anterior surface of the eyeball is the conjunctiva, is True

What is Mucous membrane?

Mucous membrane, the layer lining the gastrointestinal, urogenital, and respiratory systems as well as various body cavities and canals leading to the outside. Only a few body parts, such as the mouth, nose, eyelids, trachea (windpipe), lungs, stomach, intestines, ureters, and urine bladder, have mucous membrane linings.

Mucous membranes have a variety of structures, but they all comprise connective tissue and an outer layer of epithelial cells. Simple columnar epithelium or stratified squamous epithelium, which is made up of many layers of epithelial cells with the top layer being flattened, frequently make up the epithelial layer of the membrane (a layer of column-shaped epithelial cells, the cells being significantly greater in height than width).

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an older client has been prescribed metformin for the treatment of type 2 diabetes for several years. which change in the clients laboratory values may demonstrate a need to discountine

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The change in the clients laboratory values resulting in a decrease in glomerular filtration rate may demonstrate a need to discountine the drug metformin.

What is metformin?

Metformin is used to lower blood sugar levels along with a healthy diet, regular exercise, and maybe other drugs. It is applied to people with type 2 diabetes. Keeping blood sugar levels under control lowers the risk of kidney disease, blindness, nerve damage, amputation, and issues with sexual function.

Metformin must be stopped if renal impairment develops. The other lab value changes that are indicated above do not necessarily mean that metformin should be stopped.

Therefore the change in the clients laboratory values resulting in a decrease in glomerular filtration rate may demonstrate a need to discontinue the drug.

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if a split-brain patient sees the word dog in his left visual field and the word house in his right visual field, which picture will he draw with the left hand (note that he is not allowed to speak while drawing)?

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A split-brain patient who sees something in his left visual field can point to it with his/her left hand but will be unable of naming it.

The term "split-brain" refers to patients who have their corpus callosum cut to alleviate medically untreatable disease.

Due to the inability of passing information directly between the two brain hemispheres, split-brain patients exhibit abnormal behavior and particularly with respect to language and object recognition.

Split brain is also known as corpus callosum syndrome which is a type of separation syndrome when the corpus callosum that connects her two hemispheres of the brain is cut to some extent. This is a symptom associated by disruption or disruption of connections between hemispheres of the brain.

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the nurse is caring for a child who is scheduled for an appendectomy. when the nurse reviews the primary health care provider's preoperative prescriptions, which would be questioned?

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The nurse is caring for a child who is scheduled for an appendectomy. when the nurse reviews the primary health care provider's preoperative prescriptions, Administer a Fleet enema.

The big intestine and a small pouch are joined by the appendix. Your stomach's lower right corner is where it is. Immediately removing your appendix is required if you have appendicitis. You risk having a ruptured appendix if you don't take care of it. A medical emergency has occurred. The appendix can be removed surgically using one of two methods. Open appendectomy surgery is the standard procedure. Laparoscopic appendectomy is a more contemporary, less intrusive surgery. surgical appendectomy You create an incision in the bottom right corner of your belly or stomach that is 2 to 4 inches long. The incision is used to remove the appendix. An appendectomy done laparoscopically. Little disturbance is necessary with this approach. That implies that a small incision was unnecessary. In its place, one to three microscopic cuts are formed. One of the cuts is used to insert a laparoscope, a long, thin tube.

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a patietn who is prescrived a choleterol aborption inhibitor, ezetimibe (zetia), has developed swelling aroudn the eyes, nose and lips. what is the nurses priority action at this time

Answers

Zetia is a brand-name prescription drug. It’s FDA-approved to treat certain forms of high cholesterol in adults and in children ages 10 years and older.

Zetia can cause mild or serious side effects.Serious side effects from Zetia aren’t common, but they can occur.Don’t take an extra dose to make up for your missed dose. Doing this can raise your risk of side effects. Zetia inhibits the intestinal absorption of cholesterol and phytosterols, resulting in a decrease in the transport of intestinal cholesterol to the liver.A decrease in the transport of intestinal cholesterol to the liver reduces stores of hepatic cholesterol. This in turn increases clearance of cholesterol from the blood.Zetia’s mechanism of action is considered complementary to that of statins and fenofibrate.

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assuming your protocol allows the administration of nitroglycerin when certain conditions exist, what is the maximum number of tablets to be administered in the prehospital setting?

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Assuming your protocol allows the administration of nitroglycerin when certain conditions exist, Three (3) is the maximum number of tablets to be administered in the prehospital setting.

Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets are used to treat bouts of angina (chest discomfort) in patients who have coronary artery disease (narrowing of the blood arteries that feed blood to the heart) (narrowing of the blood capillaries that give blood to the heart) (narrowing of the blood vessels that supply blood to the heart). It is also provided soon before activities that may cause episodes of angina in order to avoid the angina from forming. The medication nitroglycerin belongs to the vasodilators class of medicines. It works by relaxing the blood arteries so the heart does not need to work as hard and hence does not need as much oxygen. Nitroglycerin comes as a sublingual tablet to take beneath the tongue. The pill is generally given as needed, either 5 to 10 minutes before activities that may induce attacks of angina or at the first symptom of an attack. Ask your doctor or pharmacist to explain any instructions on your prescription label that you are unsure about.

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a nurse working in the ed at a level 1 trauma center is notified that casualties from a multivehicle car accident are currently in transit. the nurse's heart is pounding and mouth is dry. what gland is responsible for this nurse's physiologic response? thyroid gland adrenal cortex pineal gland adrenal medulla

Answers

The adrenal medulla.

The internal part of the adrenal gland. The adrenal medulla makes chemical compounds consisting of epinephrine and norepinephrine which are concerned with sending nerve indicators.

They produce many essential hormones, together with cortisol, aldosterone, and adrenaline. The adrenal hormones assist adjust numerous bodily features along with metabolism, blood stress, and your body's reaction to pressure.

Blood supply A extensive blood supply is essential to alter adrenal medulla hormones. Adrenal arteries department of blood vessels which includes the inferior phrenic artery, renal artery, and abdominal aorta. Nerve supply The greater splanchnic nerve enables your medulla to communicate with the relaxation of your body.

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The code OXY in the bottom white quadrant of a label conforming to NFPA 704 indicates that: A. The material will explode on contact with air B. The material is radioactive C. The material can easily release oxygen to create or worsen a fire or explosion hazard D. The material reacts with water

Answers

The code OXY in the white bottom quadrant of a label conforming to NFPA 704 indicates that the material can quickly release oxygen to create or worsen a fire or explosion hazard.

What do you understand by term NFPA?

Since its founding in 1896, the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) has worked to eliminate the death, injury, destruction of property, and economic loss caused by fire, electrical, and related hazards. Through more than 300 consensus codes and standards, research, training, education, outreach, and advocacy, as well as by collaborating with other parties with similar interests in advancing our goal, NFPA disseminates information and expertise. Our goal is to use knowledge, information, and passion to save lives and lessen suffering.

Thus from above conclusion we can say that the code OXY in the white bottom quadrant of a label conforming to NFPA 704 indicates that the material can quickly release oxygen to create or worsen a fire or explosion hazard.

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which one of the following is not a potential health consequence associated with the over-use of antibiotics? group of answer choices irritable bowel syndrome can develop. beneficial bacteria may not recover in our bodies. increased risk of excessive weight loss. allergies and asthma may be more likely to develop. increased risk of infection by pathogenic bacteria.

Answers

Increased risk of excessive weight loss  is not a potential health consequence associated with the over-use of antibiotics.

What Is Overuse of Antibiotics?

When antibiotics are used unnecessarily, it is known as antibiotic overuse. The invention of antibiotics is among the biggest medical achievements. However, overusing them has led to the development of resistant microorganisms (bacteria that are harder to treat).

The effectiveness of antibiotics against some germs has been declining over time. This may lead to more serious diseases such pneumococcal infections, skin infections, and tuberculosis (which can cause pneumonia, ear infections, sinus infections, and meningitis).

What Takes Place When Antibiotics Are Used Too Much?

Colds and other viral illnesses cannot be treated with antibiotics, and they may even breed bacteria that are more difficult to get rid of.

When taken too frequently or for the wrong reasons, antibiotics can alter bacteria to the point where they no longer work to destroy them. This is known as bacterial resistance or antibiotic resistance. Some microorganisms are now resistant to even the strongest medications currently available.

Antibiotic resistance is a growing problem. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention refer to it as "one of the most important public health challenges in the globe".

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after receiving streptomycin sulfate for 2 weeks as part of the medical regimen for tuberculosis, the client reports feeling dizzy and having some hearing loss. which part of the body is the medication affecting?

Answers

The nurse should check eighth cranial nerve's vestibular branch in case of client reports feeling dizzy and having some hearing loss after taking streptomycin sulfate for 2 weeks as part of the medical regimen for tuberculosis.

Because streptomycin sulphate is ototoxic, it may harm the eighth cranial nerve's auditory and vestibular systems. Streptomycin has no effect on cerebellar tissue, peripheral motor end-plates, or pyramidal tracts.

Test-Taking A helpful tip is to approach your test preparation with a positive outlook on yourself, your nursing knowledge, and your test-taking skills. Via self-confidence acquired through successful study, one can develop a good mindset. This include (a) responding to questions (assessment), (b) setting aside time for study (planning), (c) reading and conducting additional research (implementation), and (d) responding to questions (evaluation). **

Hence, eighth cranial nerve's vestibular branch in case of client reports feeling dizzy and having some hearing loss after taking streptomycin sulfate.

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a patient, who recently received a transfusion of three units of red cells, is dat-positive with an igg specificity. what would be the best method to identify the patient's phenotype?

Answers

The best method to identify the patient's phenotype is by polymerase chain reaction-based assay.

What is transfusion?

A process whereby whole blood or isolated blood components are injected into a patient's vein and thereafter into their bloodstream. The blood might have been taken from the patient and kept in storage until it was needed, or it might have been donated by someone else  likewise known as transfusion.

A tiny needle will be inserted into a vein during a blood transfusion, typically in the arm or hand. After that, a rubber tube transports the blood from a bag to the needle, which is inserted into the patient's vein. Vital indicators will be closely watched throughout the treatment.

Therefore, The best method to identify the patient's phenotype is by polymerase chain reaction-based assay.

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medicare is available to those: group of answer choices 60 years and older. with permanent liver failure. with certain disabilities. none of these is correct. flag question: question 2 question 21 pts the part of medicare that is the hospital insurance portion is:

Answers

Medicare is available to those with certain disabilities.

Medicare is available to people 65 and older, people with disabilities under the age of 65, and people with End Stage Renal Disease (permanent kidney failure requiring dialysis or transplant).

Medicare is a health-care program. Medical bills are paid from trust funds that those who are covered have contributed to. It primarily serves people over the age of 65, regardless of income, as well as younger disabled people and dialysis patients. Patients pay a portion of hospital and other costs through deductibles.

Medicaid covers millions of Americans, including low-income adults, children, pregnant women, elderly people, and people with disabilities. Medicaid is administered by states in accordance with federal regulations. The program is jointly funded by the states and the federal government.

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Help me with ixl please marcos gets arrested. he must participate in therapy sessions as part of his prison sentence to combat alcoholism. his sentence will be lengthened if he misses these sessions, even though he doesn't want to go. this describes what kind of treatment? group of answer choices What is x -3/4x=-3+3x Determine the slope of m of the line in the graph below Please help me light passes through the entire thickness of the neural layer of the retina to excite the photoreceptors. 23. For the data in the table, does y vary directly with x? If it does, write an equation for the direct (1 point) variation.yes; y=2 xyes; y=5 xyes; y=7 xno; y does not vary directly with x. Select the graph for the solution of the open sentence. Click until the correct graph appears. |x| + 3 > 3 Is knowing about the physical and chemical changes of food important for a molecular gastronomy chef? explain why or why not, using evidence from the passage. Please select the word from the list that best fits the definition. Also known as the novice phase.your options are early adulthood, middle adulthood, young old, middle old, oldold, or late adult hood insuring a field is populated with usable data is called what? data validation substantiated data verified schema data data authentication cr31 has pka 5 3.80. find the ph of 0.010 m cr(clo4)3. what fraction of chromium is in the form cr(h2o)w21(oh)21? What is y=-2x+5 in standard form x-y=0 x- 0 z=-1 3x-y -z =-2 what will the genotypic ratio be of a monohybrid cross of two individuals who are heterozygous for a trait? Ramon, a software engineer at Frensen Inc., needs to develop high-quality graphic illustrations for presentation at his next team meeting. In the context of application software, he must use ____ software to accomplish thi:sA desktop publishing B spreadsheet C database D word processing 3Which sentence best describes the interaction between the characters whenSue realizes that Rosie is concerned about the English assignment?A Rosie and Sue work together on the poetry assignment.B Rosie talks about poetry while Sue thinks about her plans for the future.Rosie works on the assignment while Sue talks about after-school activities.CD Rosie and Sue discuss how much they dislike poetry and talk about their class.ww-Hill Education Which of the following are 4 major mechanisms of vasodilators?A. Blockade of calcium channelsB. Release of nitric oxideC. Opening of potassium channels leading to hyperpolarizationD. Activation of D1 dopamine receptorsE. All the above During a fireworks display, a shell is shot into the air with a velocity of 58 m/s, its height in meters after t seconds is given by y=58t-20t^2Find velocity when t=0.5 What is the name of the note on the staff?OEOD Find the coordinates of the circumcenter of the triangle with the given vertices.A(2, 2). B(2, 4), C(8, 4)The circumcenter is