Alleviate and manage symptoms and Validate individual self-worth and Validate family functioning.
What does the word "chronic" mean?A ailment that lasts for a year or longer, requires continuous medical care, restricts daily activities, or both is often referred to as a chronic disease. The main causes of death and disability everywhere are chronic diseases like diabetes, cancer, and heart disease.
What is an example of a chronic illness?A disease or ailment that typically lasts three months or longer and has the tendency to deteriorate over time. The incidence of chronic diseases, which are typically treatable but irreversible, is higher in the elderly. The most prevalent chronic conditions are arthritis, cancer, heart disease, and diabetic.
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an emergency department nurse has utilized the confusion assessment method (cam) in the assessment of a 79-year-old client with a new onset of urinary incontinence. this assessment tool will allow the nurse to confirm the presence of what health problem?
The confusion assessment tool is used to confirm psychiatry and neurology related health problems.
What is Urinary Incontinence?Any uncontrolled pee leak is referred to as urinary incontinence, often known as involuntary urinating. It is a frequent and upsetting issue that could significantly affect quality of life. It has been noted as a significant problem in geriatric medical treatment.
Enuresis, or nocturnal enuresis, is one kind of urine incontinence that is frequently associated with children. UI is a case of a medical illness that is stigmatized, which raises obstacles to effective therapy and exacerbates the issue. People could try to self-manage the ailment in private from others because they feel too ashamed to seek medical attention.
Major risk factors include pelvic surgery, pregnancy, delivery, and menopause. Although it is underreported to medical professionals, urinary incontinence frequently results from an underlying medical issue.
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the patient was experiencing apnea during sleep caused by repetitive pharyngeal collapse. the physician, in order to diagnose her condition as osa, ordered a(n)
The patient was experiencing apnea during sleep caused by the repetitive pharyngeal collapse. The physician, in order to diagnose her condition as obstructive sleep apnea (OSA), ordered a(n) polysomnography for short PSG.
What is polysomnography (PSG)?Polysomnography is a form of sleep study that is used as a diagnostic tool in sleep medicine. A polysomnogram, commonly abbreviated PSG, is the test result.
The most often used test in the diagnosis of obstructive sleep apnea syndrome is nocturnal, laboratory-based polysomnography (PSG), generally known as a sleep study (OSAS).
Sleep studies aid in the diagnosis of sleep disorders such as apnea, narcolepsy, parasomnias, and insomnia. Another reason to do a sleep study is to see if a certain treatment, such as positive airway pressure (PAP) therapy for patients who have breathing issues while sleeping, is effective.
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what does microbiology deals with
Microbiologists study the microscopic organisms that cause infections, including viruses, bacteria, fungi and algae. basically
microbiology deals with microscopic organisms.
a nurse is interviewing a client about their past medical history. which preexisting condition may lead the nurse to suspect that a client has colorectal cancer?
Answer:
She feels uncomfortable
Explanation:
anywhere, anything she touch feel un safe for her and begin to have changes
after the physical examination of a client, a nurse disposes of the used gloves. the nurse has not come in contact with any body fluids or excretion, mucous membranes, nonintact skin, or wound dressings. the nurse's hands do not appear to be visibly soiled. what hand hygiene should the nurse perform?
Application of an antiseptic handrub.
What is antiseptic?
An antiseptic is a chemical or product that has antimicrobial properties and is applied to live tissue or skin to lower the risk of infection, death, or putrefaction.
Therefore,
After the physical examination of a client, a nurse disposes of the used gloves. the nurse has not come in contact with any body fluids or excretion, mucous membranes, nonintact skin, or wound dressings. the nurse's hands do not appear to be visibly soiled. what hand hygiene should the nurse perform?
Application of an antiseptic handrub.
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the intensive care nurse is responsible for the care of a client with shock. what cardiac signs or symptoms would suggest to the nurse that the client may be experiencing acute organ dysfunction?
Signs of acute organ dysfunction in the cardiovascular system include systolic blood pressure <90 mm Hg or mean arterial pressure (MAP) <65 mm Hg, drop in systolic blood pressure >40 mm Hg from baselines or serum lactate >4 mmol/L. An exaggerated response to vasoactive medications and adequate response to fluid resuscitation would not be noted.
What is acute organ dysfunction?acute organ dysfunction is defined as abnormal organ function that prevents homeostasis from being maintained in a critically unwell patient without intervention.Within the first 24 hours, low-grade fever, tachycardia, and tachypnoea are signs of organ failure. Lung failure may develop during the next 24-72 hours. Bacteremia, and renal, intestinal, and liver failure may come after this. the causes of acute organ dysfunction are Infection, damage (from an accident or surgery), hypoperfusion, and hypermetabolism are the causes of the condition. The root reason starts an unchecked inflammatory process. Multiple organ dysfunction syndromes are most frequently brought on by sepsis, which can also lead to septic shock.To learn more about acute organ dysfunction, refer;
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The nurse is interviewing an older adult client who is complaining of joint pain. the client verbalize that the pain has been present for a few years.
Answer:
he may have joint cancer
Explanation:
cause at an old age it's normal but since years back mhh
when assessing liliana's condition relative to her tibia fracture after the open reduction, the nurse will be especially alert for signs of which of these problems?
When assessing liliana's condition relative to her tibia fracture after the open reduction, the nurse will be especially alert for signs of option A: Infection.
What occurs if an infection spreads to a fracture?An infection following a fracture typically results in greater than usual amounts of pain, warmth, redness, and edema in the vicinity of the affected area.
Additionally, if a pus pocket develops and breaks, pus will leak from the wound. You might also experience chills, a fever, and nocturnal sweats. After open reduction and internal fixation, the most frequent side effect of tibial fracture was surgical site infection (SSI) (ORIF).
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See full question below
When assessing Liliana's condition relative to her tibia fracture after the open reduction, the nurse will be especially alert for signs of which of these problems?
Infection.
Inadequate calcium for healing.
Bleeding.
Failure of the red bone marrow to create enough erythrocytes.
a 29 year old male with a head injury opens his eyes when you speak to him is confused as to the time and date and is able to move all of his extremities on command
When you speak to a 29-year-old male with a head injury, he opens his eyes, is confused about the time and date, and can move all of his extremities on command. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is 13 points.
What is the Glasgow Coma Scale?The Glasgow Coma Scale was developed and should be used to assess the depth and duration of coma and impaired consciousness based on motor responsiveness, verbal performance, and eye opening to appropriate stimuli. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is used to describe the level of consciousness in all types of acute medical and trauma patients objectively. The scale rates patients on three dimensions of responsiveness: eye-opening, motor, and verbal responses. The GCS evaluates a person's ability to perform eye movements, speak, and move their body. These three behaviors comprise the scale's three elements: visual, verbal, and motor. The GCS score of an individual can range from 3 (completely unresponsive) to 15. (responsive).The complete question is:
A 29-year-old male with a head injury opens his eyes when you speak to him, is confused as to the time and date, and is able to move all of his extremities on command. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is:
A. 10.
B. 12.
C. 13.
D. 14.
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the majority of college students meets the american college of sports medicine and american heart association recommended guidelines for physical activity in any given week.
False, the majority of college students meets the American College of Sports Medicine and American Heart Association recommended guidelines for physical activity in any given week.
According to the WHO, physical activity is any skeletal muscle-driven movement that involves the use of energy. All movement, whether done for recreation, transportation to go to and from locations, or even as part of the a person's job, is considered physical exercise. Everyday physical activity can be divided into occupational, sporting, conditioning, domestic, and other activities. Exercise is a category of physical activity with the enhancement or maintenance of physical fitness as its ultimate or intermediate goal. It is planned, systematic, and repetitive.
Exercise includes things like gardening, dancing, swimming, walking, and jogging.
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imagine you’re a member of a newly formed improvement team that has taken up the challenge to reduce health care–associated infections at your hospital. you have an idea for a change to the room cleaning process that you want to test, but you’re slightly nervous because improper cleaning and disinfection can carry a high risk for patients with compromised immune systems.
Show the new cleaning procedure to a few housekeeping staff members, a supervisor, and confirm its "facial validity."
Plan-Do-Study-Act, or PDSA, is an iterative, four-stage problem-solving methodology used to enhance a process or implement change. Internal and external customers should be involved while adopting the PDSA cycle since they may offer input on what works and what doesn't.
The PDSA cycle's steps include The Plan-Do-Study-Act (PDSA) cycle is an acronym for testing a change by
organizing it, putting it into practice, evaluating the outcomes, and taking action based on what is discovered.Internal and external customers should both be involved in the PDSA cycle since they can offer input on what works and what doesn't.
As the project advances, PDSA cycles offer a method for refining improvement suggestions. PDSA cycles are simpler to put into practice than other approaches.
Therefore, PDSA cycles are recommended over a more conventional approach to the scientific process.
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in recording a postpartum mother’s urinary output, the nurse notes that she is voiding between 150 and 200 ml with each hourly void. how would the nurse interpret this finding?
The nurse interpret this finding by interpreting the urinary output is normal.
The woman's urine production reaches a peak of 3000 mL per day on the second to fifth day following delivery. In order to prevent bladder injury from overdistention during the postpartum period, the woman's abdomen must be regularly examined.What occurs to the urinary system after delivery?A frequent postpartum symptom known as postpartum urine retention (PUR) is characterized by dysuria or a complete inability to urinate following delivery. PUR may cause overdistension of the bladder, which could subsequently harm the bladder's neuromuscular tissue and cause voiding problems.What is the typical duration of postpartum incontinence?Urinary incontinence following delivery is often only temporary for most women. The majority of cases are resolved within a year, but 10% to 20% of women continue to experience problems five years after giving baby.To learn more about postpartum urinary output visit:
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a nurse is caring for a psychiatric client who is prescribed an antipsychotic agent. the client is also receiving an antacid that contains aluminum salts. which action by the nurse would be most appropriate?
The most appropriate action by the nurse would be to administer antacid 1 hour prior giving antipsychotic.
What is Antacid?Heartburn, indigestion, and upset stomach can be treated with antacids, which neutralize stomach acid. Some antacid tablets have been used to treat diarrhea and constipation.
Marketed antacids include sodium, calcium, magnesium, or aluminum salts. Some medications have two salts in combination, like magnesium carbonate and aluminum hydroxide.
The primary symptom of gastroesophageal reflux and indigestion, periodic heartburn, can be immediately relieved with antacids, which are readily available over the counter and taken orally. Antacids should only be used as symptomatic treatment for minimal complaints.
Antacids can also be used to treat diarrhea, hyperphosphatemia, constipation, and urinary alkalization. In addition to replacing pancreatic enzymes, several antacids are also used to treat pancreatic insufficiency.
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a client has received treatment for oral cancer. the combination of medications and radiotherapy has resulted in leukopenia. what is the nurse's best response to this change in health status?
If a client has received treatment for oral cancer and the combination of medications and radiotherapy has resulted in leukopenia, then the best nurse response to this change in health status should be to ensure that none of the client's visitors have an infection.
What is an immunodepressive patient?An immunodepressive individual is at risk of infection because his or her immune system cannot face infections and therefore the person should be maintained isolated. In this case, we know that the patient is immunodepressive due the radiotherapy might have affected his/her immune response.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that immunodepressive patients strictly should avoid infections.
Complete question:
A client has received treatment for oral cancer. The combination of medications and radiotherapy has resulted in leukopenia. What is the nurse's best response to this change in health status?
Ensure that none of the client's visitors have an infection.
Arrange for a diet that is high in protein and low in fat.
Administer colony stimulating factors (CSFs) as prescribed.
Prepare to administer chemotherapeutics as prescribed.
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the nurse is helping an adult male client who was recently admitted to the unit with nephrotic syndrome to plan a menu. the client is 6 ft 3 in tall, weighs 90 kg, and has a blood pressure of 140/90 mm hg. the client’s labs revealed proteinuria and hyperlipidemia. upon assessment 2 pitting edema is noted bilaterally. the nurse determines the client’s daily protein intake should be in what range? (round to the nearest whole numbers.)
The client’s daily protein intake should be range in dosage of 0.07 mg/ kg/day.
Nephrotic syndrome is a kidney ailment that causes your body to excrete an excessive amount of protein in your urine.
Damage to the clusters of tiny blood vessels in your kidneys that filter waste and excess water from your blood is frequently the cause of nephrotic syndrome. The disorder causes swelling, particularly in your feet and ankles, and raises your chance of developing other health issues.
Nephrotic syndrome treatment entails both treating the underlying illness and using drugs. Nephrotic syndrome increases your chances of getting infections and getting blood clots. To avoid issues, your doctor may advise you to take medicines or make dietary modifications.
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a client tells the nurse that he has recently begun to take over-the-counter (otc) calcium supplements to ensure that his blood will clot. the best response by the nurse would be:
The best response by the nurse would be that unless your healthcare practitioner has recommended it, this is not essential.
Calcium is a crucial mineral for life. It allows our blood to clot, our muscles to contract, and our heart to beat, in addition to building and maintaining bone health. Our bones and teeth typically contain 99% of the calcium in our bodies. If you consume more of a supplement than that, your body will have to dispose of the extra. It's possible that increased blood calcium levels could cause blood clots or that calcium could accumulate on artery walls and cause blood arteries to become narrower.
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the nurse is performing an initial assessment of a patient in labor. what is the appropriate terminology for the relationship of the fetal body parts to one another?
C. Attitude.
The relationship between the various fetal bodily parts is known as attitude. The relationship between the mother's and the fetus' long axes (or spines) is called a lie. The term "presentation" describes the area of a fetus that travels first into the birth canal and into the pelvic inlet during term labor. The position of the fetus refers to how it sits in relation to all four quadrants of a mother's pelvis.
Birth Canal- The route through which bodily fluid leaves when a woman is menstruating. Another name for it is "the birth canal." The upper portion of the uterus is connected by a small, tubular structure called the fallopian tube. The birth canal is made up of the cervix and vagina.
The given question is incomplete, find below the complete question,
Q. The nurse is performing an initial assessment of a client in labor. What is the appropriate terminology for the relationship of the fetal body parts to one another?
A. Lie
B. Presentation
C. Attitude
D. Position
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a nurse is caring for a veteran, who exhibits signs and symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder (ptsd). signs and symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder include:
A nurse is caring for a veteran, who exhibits signs and symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder (ptsd) signs and symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder include the following factors.
What are the symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder?The following are the primary signs and behaviors of PTSD and complicated PTSD:
Reliving the event in dreams, intrusive memories, or flashbacksoverwhelming feelings accompanied by dreams, flashbacks, or memoriesfeeling "numb" or incapable of feeling emotionsDissociation, which may involve disengaging from oneself or othersAvoidance. This can imply that you make an effort to avoid thinking about the trauma. Alternately, you avoid those who or things who trigger your traumatic memory.Negative mood and thinking are additional PTSD and complicated PTSD symptoms and behaviors.having trouble managing your emotions.Feelings of panic, agitation, rage, and on-going anxiety.finding it difficult to experience joy.a profound sensation of shame or guilt.negative self-perception, such as the sensation of being inferior, unimportant, or beaten.issues involving other people.relational issues and a sense of disconnection from others.difficulties falling asleep and paying attention as a result of hyperarousal.easily startled or frightened.self-destructive behavior, such as speeding or binge drinking while driving.a persistent sense of present danger. We refer to this as hypervigilance. It is the sensation of being on high alert all the time or of being highly sensitive to sounds and smells.To know more about posttraumatic stress disorder visit: https://brainly.com/question/4143496
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the nurse is planning the care of a patient with a major thermal burn. what outcome will the nurse understand will be optimal during fluid replacement?
The outcome will the nurse understand will be optimal during fluid replacement urinary output of 30 mL/hr. The correct option is b.
What is thermal burn?External heat sources raise the temperature of the skin and tissues, causing tissue cell death or charring.
When hot metals, scalding liquids, steam, or flames come into contact with the skin, they can cause thermal burns.
In thermal and chemical injuries, a urine output of 30 to 50 mL per hour is used to indicate appropriate resuscitation, whereas in electrical injuries, a urine output of 75 to 100 mL per hour is the goal (ABA, 2011a).
Thus, the correct option is b.
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Your question seems incomplete, the missing options are:
a. A urinary output of 10 mL/hr
b. A urinary output of 30 mL/hr
c. A urinary output of 80 mL/hr
d. A urinary output of 100 mL/hr
the nurse is teaching a patient about the effects of hypertension on the heart. which patient statement indicates that the teaching has been effective?
If the nurse is teaching a patient about the effects of hypertension on the heart, then the statement "Family history is something I cannot change." indicates that the teaching has been effective.
What is hypertension?Hypertension is a medical term used when the cell walls in the blood vessel of the heart undergo excessive force that may cause damage in these vessels. This condition (hypertension) is associated with environmental factors and inherited factors (i.e. the family of the individual).
Therefore, we can conclude that hypertension may be associated with inherited genetic factors that an individual cannot modify.
Complete question:
The nurse is teaching a patient with coronary artery disease about nonmodifiable risk factors.
Which statement by the patient shows that teaching has been effective?
"Elevated lipid levels are genetic and I cannot change the levels."
"Family history is something I cannot change."
"Depression is a disease that I cannot change."
"Obesity is a disease and cannot be changed."
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Q. Which neurotransmitter is released in response to stress and trauma? answer choices Acetylcholine Serotonin Endorphins GABA
Answer:
Explanation:
Epinephrine. Epinephrine (also known as adrenaline) plays a role in the body's “fight-or-flight” response. It is both a hormone and a neurotransmitter. When a person experiences stress or fear, their body releases epinephrine .
a nurse is making a home visit for a client with several home safety concerns. on which safety concept(s) would the nurse advise the client? select all that apply.
A well trained nurse should encourage the client on the safety concerns below:
Remove extension cords from open spaces.Check the batteries in all smoke detectors.Ensure appropriate lighting in hallways and entrances to the home.Remove throw rugs from high traffic areas.Options c, d and e are correct
What is meant by safety concerns?When a nurse educate a client about safety concerns or measures, it simply refers to the process of teaching them ways to identify risk which may be harmful to them directly or indirectly.
It is very important for a healthcare provider who is on a home visit to help the patients recognize life threatening things in their environment and how to be safe from then.
In conclusion, we can deduce from the above that taking enough safety measures is very important to put well being.
Complete question:
A nurse is making a home visit for a client with several home safety concerns. On which safety concept(s) would the nurse advise the client? Select all that apply.
a. Ensure appropriate lighting in hallways and entrances to the home.
b. Store prescription medications on the counter.
c. Check the batteries in all smoke detectors.
d. Remove extension cords from open spaces.
e. Remove throw rugs from high traffic areas.
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an informatics nurse specialist is working on a team that is considering a new technological system for the facility. which aspect would be most important for the team to do as the first step?
The most important aspect for the team to do as the first step would be to "determine the need or problem to be solved".
Who is an informatics nurse specialist?
Nursing informatics is a nursing specialization where a trained nurse in this field combines their clinical skills with a must-have knowledge of technology and computers, and also skilled in using health data to analyze and figure out the best solutions for enhanced delivery of the patient.
So, an informatics nurse specialists working on a team would first need to know and find out the problem to be solved by the team.
In summary, an informatics nurse specialist would need to communicate and would need to collaborate with the team. The first step for the team doesn't start with assessing the information and the technology needs for patient care but rather to determine the problem they need to solve.
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hanauer s, schwartz j, robinson m, et al. mesalamine capsules for treatment of active ulcerative colitis: results of a controlled trial. pentasa study group. am j gastroenterol. 1993;88: 1188–1197
374 patients with mild to moderately active ulcerative colitis were studied to determine the effectiveness of a mesalamine capsule formulation. Patients were given either placebo or mesalamine at 1, 2, or 4 g per day for 8 weeks after being classified into those with pancolitis or left-sided illness.
Clinical improvement, physician global assessment, sigmoidoscopic index, biopsy score, bathroom visits, and clinical symptoms (abdominal pain, urgency, stool consistency, and rectal bleeding) were used to evaluate the effectiveness of a mesalamine capsule formulation.
When ulcerative colitis is mild to moderately active, mesalamine is used to treat and prevent flare-ups (an inflammatory bowel disease). It works within the bowels to lessen inflammation and other disease-related symptoms. Pentasa can occasionally make ulcerative colitis worse. If your symptoms get worse after starting Pentasa, let your doctor know.
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the nurse is teaching a pregnant woman about how to prevent contracting cytomegalovirus (cmv) during pregnancy. what tips would the nurse share with this client?
Answer:
To keep strong
Explanation:
i mean she has to keep body fit to be healthy
the nurse is managing a gastric (salem) sump tube for a patient who has an intestinal obstruction and will be going to surgery. what interventions should the nurse perform to make sure the tube is functioning properly?
B. Keep the vent lumen above the patients waist to prevent gastric content reflux.
Gastric Reflux- Although they are closely related, acid reflux & gastroesophageal reflux disorder (GERD) aren't the same thing. The backwards flow of stomach acid into to the tube that connects the throat to your stomach is referred to as acid reflux, also referred as the gastroesophageal reflux (GER) (esophagus).
GERD- A more severe form of acid reflux is gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). The continuous reflux of stomach acid that characterizes GERD gradually harms the body. GERD will not go away on its own as an adult, however there are treatments that can help manage it, such as: drugs available over-the-counter, such as antacids. Proton pump inhibitors are examples of prescription drugs. surgery, such as the LINX treatment, a laparoscopic operation.
The given question is incomplete, find below the complete question,
Q. The nurse is managing a gastric (Salem) sump tube for a patient who has intestinal obstruction and will be going to surgery. What interventions should the nurse perform to make sure the tube is functioning properly?
A. Maintain intermittent or continuous suction at a rate greater than 120 mm Hg.
B. Keep the vent lumen above the patients waist to prevent gastric content reflux
C. Irrigate only through the vent lumen
D. Tape the tube to the head of the bed to avoid dislodgement
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the nurse analyzes the laboratory results of a child with hemophilia. the nurse recognizes that which result would most likely be abnormal in this child?
a patient's thyroid gland is enlarged, and the nurse is preparing to auscultate the thyroid gland for the presence of a bruit. what technique should the nurse use to assess for a bruit.
Auscultation is the technique nurse assesses the carotids for the presence of any abnormal bruits.
The bell of the stethoscope is best for picking up bruits. The diaphragm is more attuned to relatively high-pitched sounds the bell is more sensitive to low-pitched sounds like bruits. Bruits are blowing vascular sounds resembling heart murmurs that are perceived over partially occluded blood vessels.
A thyroid bruit is described as a continuous sound that is heard over the thyroid mass. A thyroid bruit is seen in Grave's disease from a proliferation of the blood supply when the thyroid enlarges. So it is needed to Auscultate each lobe of the thyroid gland for a bruit using the bell of the stethoscope.
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a nurse participating in a health fair sponsored by a local seniors’ center discusses healthy skin and aging. which teaching point should the nurse include?
The nurse should include a teaching point that you should limit your sun exposure to a small amount each day and protect your skin from direct sunlight for the rest of the time.
Current guidelines emphasize the importance of a balanced approach that encourages small amounts of sun exposure each day for adequate vitamin D synthesis, but not so much that it increases the risk of skin cancer. Many medications have an effect on the skin, but it would be inappropriate for the nurse to advise older adults to avoid all over-the-counter medications. Although genetic factors have an impact on integumentary health, this does not mean that other risk factors are irrelevant or unmodifiable. Most elderly people do not need to bathe every day.
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mcnutt l, wu c, xue x, hafner jp. estimating the relative risk in cohort studies and clinical trials of common outcomes. am j epidemiol. 2003; 167:940‐3.
When illness incidence is low (10%), logistic regression produces an adjusted odds ratio that, after correcting for potential confounders, roughly represents the adjusted relative risk.
What is the Conclusion of the article?When illness incidence is low (10%), logistic regression produces an adjusted odds ratio that, after correcting for potential confounders, roughly represents the adjusted relative risk. The odds ratio consistently and sometimes noticeably overestimates the relative risk for more frequent occurrences.
This work aims to analyze the inappropriate use of a proposed approach to estimate an adjustable relative risk from an updated odds ratio, which has rapidly acquired popularity in public health and medical research, and to offer alternative statistics methods for estimating an adjustable relative risk when the outcome is common. To demonstrate statistical techniques using easily accessible computer tools, fictitious data are used.
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