To stop motion sickness-related nausea and vomiting: Adults: For a minimum of three days, apply single patch while behind ear as least 4 hours well before effect is required.
What is a transdermal scopolamine?Following anesthesia, opioid painkillers, and surgery, scopolamine transdermal patches are used to reduce nausea and vomiting. Additionally, it's utilized to stop motion sickness-related nausea and vomiting. Scopolamine is a member of the class of drugs known as anticholinergics.
How should a transdermal scopolamine patch be applied?Behind your ear, on a healthy, dry, and unbroken piece of skin, apply the patch. Select a spot devoid of scars, cuts, soreness, tenderness, or inflammation. The region should also have minimal to no hair. With your fingertips, pull the patch firmly into position to ensure that the edges adhere effectively.
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which reason will the nurse explain is the purpose for neomycin being prescribed to a client with cirrohsis
The nurse will explain the purpose of neomycin being prescribed to a client with cirrhosis is to reduce the blood ammonia level.
The impact of bacterial activity on blood and wastes in the gastrointestinal tract is lessened by lowering the blood ammonia level. Neomycin is an antibacterial aminoglycoside, although it is not given to treat infections. Intestinal edema is either little or not affected by neomycin. Abdominal distention is not diminished by neomycin.
Neomycin is a drug used for perioperative prophylaxis as well as treating and managing hepatic coma. Neomycin is a member of the class of antibiotics known as aminoglycosides; it kills gram-negative bacteria by preventing the production of bacterial proteins.
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the nurse is conducting an admission assessment of a 41-year-old client. each time that the nurse asks the client a question, the client defers to the client's spouse to answer the question. such behavior is consistent with which personality disorder?
The Dichotomous is behavior is consistent with which personality disorder.
What is Dichotomous ?
A dichotomous key is a crucial piece of scientific equipment used to distinguish between various species based on their observable characteristics. Dichotomous keys are a set of assertions with two options for each that guide users to the right identification.
What is personality disorder ?
A personality disorder is a sort of mental illness where you have an unnaturally inflexible way of thinking, acting, and behaving.
Those with BPD usually exhibit dichotomous thinking, or a tendency to view things as absolute: either black or white, good or bad, with no perception of compromise. This type of thought pattern would not be documented as abstract, irrational, or disorganized.
Therefore, Dichotomous is behavior is consistent with which personality disorder.
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engaging in which of the following increases fitness and vitality and stimulates endorphins and can even rival the effectiveness of antidepressant drugs? question 13 options:
Neurological adverse effects are more likely while using first generation antipsychotics. These include extrapyramidal symptoms of dystonia and tardive dyskinesia, among others.
What stimulates endorphins and rival the effectiveness?Clients may learn from humanistic therapists to: assume more accountability for their own thoughts and deeds. Active listening is a key component of client-centered treatment.
Antipsychotic medications are often only used to treat serious mental diseases like schizophrenia or bipolar disorder due to these negative effects.
Therefore, They can result in hyperglycaemia, sedation, weight gain, and movement abnormalities such twitching and restlessness.
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TRUE/FALSE. the rise of preventive medicine contributed to an increasing interest in the measurement of the quality and efficiency, or cost-effectiveness, of medical care.
"The rise of preventive medicine contributed to an increasing interest in the measurement of the quality and efficiency, or cost-effectiveness, of medical care". This statement is false.
Encouraging preventive healthcare is the practice of preventive medicine, which aims to enhance patient wellness. The ultimate objective is to avoid death, illness, and disability. Washing hands, breastfeeding, and vaccinations are a few basic examples of preventive medicine.
What impact does preventative medicine have?New medicinal options are provided by preventive medicine. Primary prevention, or preventing sickness; secondary prevention, or slowing the spread of illnesses; and tertiary prevention, meaning functional recovery via rehabilitation, are the three basic categories of preventive medicine. The fundamental goal of primary prevention is to enhance lifestyle choices, including good nutrition, rest, exercise, and perhaps even mental wellbeing. Cancer screening is a good example of secondary prevention because it strives for early diagnosis and treatment.
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which clinical manifestation will the nurse anticipate when providing care to a toddler who is diagnosed with acute lead poisoning emesis nausea diarrhea
The nurse should anticipate nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, fatigue, decreased appetite, headaches, and irritability as clinical manifestations of acute lead poisoning in a toddler.
Providing care to a toddler with diarrhea includes the following:
1. Monitor the toddler’s symptoms and contact the doctor immediately if any changes occur.
2. Provide fluids to prevent dehydration and electrolyte disturbances.
3. Give the toddler a bland diet to help settle the stomach and reduce nausea and vomiting.
4. Monitor the toddler’s blood lead levels and keep an eye on any changes.
5. Administer any medications prescribed by the doctor to reduce the symptoms.
6. Provide emotional support to the toddler and the family.
7. Educate the family about the dangers of lead poisoning and how to prevent it.
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a child drank most of a bottle of furniture polish. which does the nurse expect will be done for this child?
The nurse would expect to call the poison control center for a child who has consumed most of a bottle of furniture polish.
If a suspected poisoning occurs, the poison control center should be informed promptly. The nurse can assist the mother in contacting the poison control center. Without consulting the poison control center, vomiting should not be forced. If the client is unconscious or the material they swallowed is a potent corrosive or petroleum product, inducing vomiting is not recommended.
Treatment would be delayed if the child were sent to the emergency room or if an ambulance were called. In the event that the poison control center advises the mother to take the child to the emergency room, the mother needs to contact an ambulance.
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when assessing a client who has been referred to the outpatient mental health clinic with symptoms of depression, the psychiatric nurse should closely observe the client's affect and which assessment component?
Answer:
Physical appearance
Explanation:
when educating a client prescribed testosterone transdermal patch therapy, the nurse will provide what information regarding patch placement?
Place the patches on the back, abdomen, upper arms, or thighs information regarding patch placement.
What is the role of a nurse?Nurses treat wounds, give medicine, do regular physicals, take thorough medical histories, monitor blood pressure and heart rate, run diagnostic tests, handle medical equipment, take blood samples, and admit and release patients in accordance with doctor's orders.
Can anybody work as a nurse?The California Board of Registered Nursing must grant you a license before you may work as an RN in California (BRN). Whatever the job's perceived difficulty or ease, you must satisfy educational criteria, pass a criminal history check, and complete the national license exam. Nursing is regarded as a high-stress and challenging profession owing to a variety of factors, including exams.
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the following is the final paragraph in an orthopedic consult note from dr. phyllis sanchez, md, faaos: i discussed the next steps with mr. samuels and his family, including staging the tumor and scheduling a biopsy to confirm the diagnosis. i discussed the surgery with mr. samuels and his family in the office. his tumor will likely require tumor resection with partial ostectomy of the femur with osteoplasty. i discussed the benefits of a metal endoprosthesis versus an allograft for the osteoplasty. mr. samuels is scheduled to return to my office 1 week following his biopsy to discuss the results. given this information, which of the following statements is not true?
The False statement are ;Mr. Samuels has a bone disease that requires surgery.
Osteoplasty is the branch of surgery concerned with bone repair or bone grafting. It is the surgical alteration or reshaping of bone. It may be used to relieve pain associated with metastatic bone disease. unreliable medical source? Percutaneous osteoplasty involves the use of bone cement to reduce pain and improve mobility. Resection osteoplasty is used in joint preserving surgery on the hip and thigh bones.
What exactly is an osteoplasty procedure?
Osteoplasty is a surgical procedure that restores the original shape of a bone. The operation is performed to cure bone distortion in the body's joints. Femoral osteoplasty is the surgical contouring or altering of your femur (thigh bone).
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a client has been prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (ssri) to treat depression. the regular use of which herbal supplement requires intervention by the nurse?
serotonin reuptake inhibitor the regular use of which herbal supplement requires intervention by the nurse St. John's wort
A molecule called serotonin delivers information between nerve cells in the brain and other parts of the body. Body processes like mood, sleep, digestion, nausea, wound healing, bone health, blood clotting, and sexual desire are all significantly influenced by serotonin. Too little or too much serotonin can have negative effects on one's physical and mental health.Is serotonin the hormone of happiness?
The "feel-good hormone," serotonin, is essential in fending off depression and anxiety. Serotonin levels in the brain are actually raised by the major class of medications used to treat these problems, known as SSRIs (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors).
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A nurse id planning care for a client who has acute respiratory distress syndrome (ADRS). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
a. Administer low-flow oxygen continuously via nasal cannula
b. Encourage oral intake of at least 3000 mL of fluids per day
c. Offer high-protein and high-carbohydrate foods frequently
d. Place in a prone position
d. Place in a prone position
The intervention that nurse should include in the plan of care for ARDS is (d) Place in a prone position.
The tiny, elastic air sacs (alveoli) in your lungs experience fluid buildup, which results in acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Less oxygen enters your circulation because of the fluid's ability to prevent your lungs from filling with enough air. Your organs are deprived of the oxygen they require to function as a result.
People who are already critically ill or have severe injuries are more likely to develop ARDS. The primary symptom of ARDS, severe shortness of breath, typically appears a few hours to a few days after the injury or illness that caused it.
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which is the only completely reliable way to avoid exposure to sexually transmitted diseases?
The only completely reliable way to avoid exposure to sexually transmitted diseases is to prevent unprotected sex.
STDs are illnesses that can be passed from an infected person to an uninfected person through sexual interaction. Only three of the four diseases are currently curable: trichomoniasis, syphilis, and gonorrhea. The other four viral diseases that cannot be treated are hepatitis B, herpes simplex virus (HSV), HIV, and human papillomavirus (HPV). With the correct application of latex protections, the danger of acquiring or spreading STDs is greatly reduced, albeit not totally eliminated. The only guaranteed way to avoid contracting an STI is to avoid any sexual activity.
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the nurse is caring for an older client with dementia. for which reasons will the nurse question giving the client a prescribed antipsychotic medication? select all that apply.
In elderly people with dementia, there are numerous behavioural and psychological changes in the patient. Antipsychotics are therefore recommended.
Describe dementia.
A medical disorder known as dementia causes amnesia in the sufferer. As a result, it is difficult to concentrate, which has an impact on daily tasks.
Most cases of dementia are found in older adults. Ageing is the main factor contributing to dementia.
The signs of dementia can be seen as mental disorientation, forgetfulness, mood swings, difficulty concentrating or making decisions, and memory loss.
Dementia is probably inherited. Some brain traumas can cause dementia as well.
Several biochemical tests can be used to diagnose dementia. Brain scans like CT-Scans and MRIs are among the other delicate examinations.
There are numerous variations of dementia. One such prevalent kind of dementia in which the brain's neurons gradually diminish and die is Alzheimer's.
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when planning care for a client with burns on the upper torso, which nursing diagnosis should take the highest priority?
The highest priority for the diagnosis of burns in the upper torso is Ineffective airway clearance associated with airway edema.
When caring for patients with upper body torso burns, the primary goal of caregivers is to maintain respiratory integrity. Second-degree burns covered more than 10% of her body surface. Burns to the face, arms, legs, or large joints. Third-degree burns. Electrical burns, including electric burns.
The emergency department's first priority remains the airway, breathing, and circulation. respiratory tract. 100% humidified oxygen is administered and the patient is encouraged to cough, which clears secretions.
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a client being treated for diabetes type 2 with insulin presents to a clinic for routine visit. blood work reveals a hba1c of 11.0% (high). which response by the client may account for this abnormal laboratory result?
The "My meter broke so I have not been checking my blood glucose levels for a while." is the response by the client may account for this abnormal laboratory result.
What is blood glucose?
The primary source of energy for the body's cells, glucose is the most prevalent kind of sugar in the blood. Our bodies can generate glucose from other substances or it can be obtained from the meals we eat. Through the bloodstream, glucose is delivered to the cells. The amount of glucose in the blood is regulated by a number of hormones, including insulin.
What is insulin?
Insulin, a hormone, lowers the blood level of glucose, a type of sugar. The pancreatic beta cells generate and release glucose into the blood when the blood glucose levels raises, such as after eating.
Therefore, "My meter broke so I have not been checking my blood glucose levels for a while." is the response by the client may account for this abnormal laboratory result.
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brain-tingly feeling that may come from hearing whispering or crinkling, in brief
In a word, the answer to the crossword clue "Brain-tingly feeling that may result from hearing whispering or crinkling" is: ASMR
The term "Autonomous Sensory Meridian Response" (ASMR) refers. In most cases, it alludes to the 'tingly feeling' that some people get in response to particular noises, emotions, or descriptions. These might be a light touch, a whisper, or the sound of paper creasing.
The intense relaxation and enjoyable scalp tingling are known as an autonomous sensory meridian response (ASMR). Some people experience certain emotions in reaction to whispering or quiet sounds paired with slow movements and one-on-one attention.
We can therefore conclude that the following is the answer to the crossword puzzle that asks, in essence, "The solution to the Brain-tingly feeling that may result from hearing whispering or crinkling": ASMR
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FILL IN THE BLANK. High blood levels of the amino acid ________ have been linked to increased risks of cardiovascular disease.
High blood levels of the amino acid homocysteine have been linked to increased risks of cardiovascular disease.
An amino acid is homocysteine.The vitamins B12, B6, and folate break down homocysteine to create other molecules your body needs.Your homocysteine levels may indicate a vitamin insufficiency. Elevated homocysteine raises your chance for dementia, heart disease, and stroke if you don't get therapy.
Homocysteine levels that are too high can harm the lining of your arteries and raise your chance of developing blood clots. This could make you more vulnerable to heart attacks, strokes, and other heart and blood vessel conditions.
The biggest cause of death worldwide, cardiovascular diseases (CVDs), account for 17.9 million fatalities per year. Coronary heart disease, cerebrovascular disease, rheumatic heart disease, and other ailments are among the afflictions that fall under the umbrella term of "CVDs," or cardiovascular and vascular diseases.
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quick changes in weight during a diet, in particular fad diets or low carb diets, are most likely the result of:
Quick changes in weight during a diet, in particular fad diets or low-carb diets, are most likely the result of: Water weight loss.
When you go on a diet, especially a low-carb diet, your body is deprived of its main source of energy, which is carbohydrates. The Effects of Low-Carb Diets on Weight LossThis process causes your body to break down stored fat and protein, which causes your body to lose water weight. This is why you may see a sudden drop in weight during a low-carb diet.
However, it is important to note that this weight loss is usually temporary, and the weight can quickly return once you return to your normal eating habits. Therefore, it is important to make sure that you are still eating healthy and nutritious food when trying to lose weight.
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a pregnant woman at 32 weeks of gestation comes to the emergency room because she has begun to experience bright red vaginal bleeding. she reports that she is experiencing no pain. what does the nurse suspect?
When a pregnant lady at 32 weeks gestation goes to the emergency department because she has started to suffer bright red vaginal bleeding without discomfort, the nurse suspects placenta previa.
A previous birth, being older than 35, and a history of prior procedures, such as a cesarean section (C-section) and uterine fibroid excision, are all risk factors for placenta praevia.
During the second part of pregnancy, bright crimson vaginal bleeding without discomfort is the major symptom. Significant bleeding during or before delivery might also be brought on by the disease.
The following are some potential causes & risk factors for placenta previa. the low success rate of a fertilized egg implanting. Uterine lining abnormalities, such as fibroids. The uterine lining is scarring.
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The first period of rapid bone growth is
A) during fetal development.
B) from birth to age 2.
C) from age 2 through age 5.
D) during adolescence.
Answer: B) from birth to age 2.
The first period of rapid bone growth occurs during the first two years of life. Hence option b is correct. During this time, bones increase in both length and width, and the body's skeleton is constructed.
This period of rapid bone growth is essential for proper development and growth throughout life . At birth, babies are born with 300 bones, which will eventually fuse together and form 206 bones in the adult body. Most of the bones in the human body form during the first few years of life. During this time, bones are actively forming and growing and are particularly susceptible to environmental influences, such as nutrients and physical activity.
During the first two years of life, bones will grow at a rate of about 1 inch (2.5 cm) per month. This rapid growth gives babies the ability to reach their full height potential by the time they reach school age. During this time, calcium and phosphorus are the two most important minerals for bone growth. These minerals are found in breast milk, formula, and solid foods, and can help ensure that babies get the nutrition they need for healthy bones .Physical activity is also important for bone growth during this period. Infants and toddlers should be encouraged to explore and move around, which helps strengthen the muscles and bones. Activities such as crawling, rolling, and walking are important for proper bone development.
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while aaron was at a party, he drank too much alcohol. the following morning, he had a headache and his mouth felt very dry. based on this information, aaron was
While Aaron was at a party, he drank too much alcohol. The following morning, he had a headache and his mouth felt very dry. Based on this information, Aaron was being affected by the dehydration that resulted from drinking alcohol.
Alcohol is a diuretic, meaning it causes the body to produce more urine and expel more water, leading to dehydration. Dehydration can cause headaches, dry mouth, and other unpleasant side effects.
What are the Negative Effects caused by Alcohol Consumption?Increased risk of certain cancers: Regular and heavy alcohol consumption can increase the risk of developing certain types of cancer, including mouth, throat, liver, and breast cancer. Harm to unborn babies: Drinking during pregnancy can cause a range of physical and mental birth defects in babies, including fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS). Damage to the brain: Alcohol can cause both short-term and long-term damage to the brain. It can impair functions such as coordination, movement, vision, and reaction time. Liver damage: Drinking too much alcohol can lead to fatty liver, alcoholic hepatitis, and cirrhosis, which can all lead to liver failure. Heart problems: Excessive drinking can increase the risk of developing high blood pressure, stroke, and other heart-related problems. Weakened immune system: Drinking too much alcohol can weaken the immune system, making it harder for the body to fight off infections. Increased risk of accidents and injuries: Alcohol consumption increases the risk of being involved in car accidents, falls, burns, and drowning.Learn more about the Effects of Alcohol Consumption:
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comprehensive investigations revealed consistent pathophysiological alterations after vaccination with covid-19 vaccines
'Comprehensive investigations revealed consistent pathophysiological alterations after vaccination with COVID-19 vaccines'. This statement is true. In fact, this is the title of one of the study papers from 2021 that has generated a significant amount of controversy.
As a result of the COVID-19 pandemic, widespread COVID-19 vaccination campaigns are presently being carried out in numerous nations. Here, scientists show similar changes in hemoglobin A1c, serum salt and potassium levels, clotting profiles, and kidney functions in healthy volunteers following immunization with an inactivated SARS-CoV-2 vaccine, in addition to the development of neutralizing antibodies. Similar alterations had also been identified in COVID-19 patients, indicating that immunization mirrored an illness.
According to the study, more care should be used when administering vaccinations to those who already have certain clinical diseases (or comorbidities), such as coagulation disorders, diabetes, electrolyte imbalances, kidney dysfunction, etc.
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If an individual agrees to participate in a research study because he or she believes that harm or
punishment will result for refusing to participate in the study, the individual's decision to participate
was:
A. Obtained voluntarily.
B. Influenced improperly (coerced).
C. Neither.
Answer: The correct answer is B. Influenced improperly (coerced).
If an individual agrees to participate in a research study because they believe that harm or punishment will result for refusing to participate in the study, their decision to participate was not made voluntarily. It was influenced improperly by the prospect of harm or punishment. Therefore, the individual's decision to participate was coerced.
Explanation:
what advice should the nurse give a client with dermatitis until the etiology of the dermatitis is identified?
The nurse should give advice as to Put on rubber gloves before handling soaps.
Never swap towels, clothes, bathwater, razors, or washcloths. The spread of these items might infect more people. After treating the boil, wash your hands thoroughly. Any skin condition or underlying illness should be treated.
Although topical corticosteroids are the mainstay of treatment, acute, severe allergic contact dermatitis, such as that brought on by poison ivy, frequently necessitates a 2-week course of systemic corticosteroids.
Benzoyl peroxide may cause severe skin rashes or a rare but serious allergic reaction. Stop using this drug and get immediate medical help if you experience any of the following negative effects: Hives, itching, breathing issues, vertigo, or swelling of the face, lips, tongue, or neck may occur.
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a client with rheumatoid arthritis is planning to take black cohosh root. for which prescribed medication would the nurse caution the client to avoid using the supplement?
Ursodiol (Actigall, Urso) is the prescribed medication would the nurse caution the client to avoid using black cohosh root.
Rheumatoid arthritis is a response condition, which suggests it's caused by the system assaultive healthy body tissue. However, it isn't nevertheless proverbial what triggers this. Your system ordinarily makes antibodies that attack bacterium and viruses, serving to to fight infection.
Ursodeoxycholic acid, conjointly referred to as ursodiol, is a secondary steroid, created in humans and most alternative species from metabolism by enteric bacterium. it's synthesized within the liver in some species, and was 1st known in gall of bears of genus Ursus, from that its name derived.
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a client arrives at the ambulatory care clinic with low abdominal pain. a routine urine specimen reveals hematuria. the client does not have a fever. the nurse should next ask the client about a history of which condition?
The patient should next be questioned by the nurse about any abdominal or bladder injuries or blows.
Infection is one of the most dangerous side effects of peritoneal dialysis. Either the skin around the catheter exit site will get infected, or you will suffer peritonitis, an infection of the fluid inside your abdomen. Age, diabetes, underlying renal insufficiency, and heart failure are all risk factors for acute renal failure, according to research findings. The subset of diabetics with the highest risk is those who have baseline renal insufficiency. Become guided by a core group of ambulatory care preceptors who are committed to the student's personal and professional development as an ambulatory care pharmacy trainee.
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TRUE/FALSE. protein, vitamins a, d, and e, folate, iron, and zinc all help improve and maximize system function, thereby working to prevent sickness and poor wound healing.
Protein, vitamins A, D, and E, folate, iron, and zinc all help improve and maximize immune system function, thereby working to prevent sickness and poor wound healing.
Numerous nutrients that help optimize immune function are provided by a healthy diet. In order to eat healthfully, one should prioritize a variety of fruits and vegetables, lean proteins, healthy grains, and fat-free or low-fat milk and dairy products. Reducing sugar, saturated fatty acids, cholesterol, as well as salts is another aspect of eating healthily.
Healthy eating cannot boost the immune system, but it is essential to prevent immunodeficiency caused on by malnutrition or micronutrient deficiencies in order to maintain a functioning immune system. It's important to remember that no single food or vitamin can ensure good health.
This question should be written as follows:
Protein, vitamins A, D, and E, folate, iron, and zinc all help improve and maximize _______ system function, thereby working to prevent sickness and poor wound healing.The correct word to fill the blank is immune.
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read the following excerpt from a health record: colonoscopy confirmed the diagnosis of ulcerative colitis. one year ago, she developed toxic megacolon, which eventually led to surgical intervention. she had been doing well until 3 months ago, when she started reporting fatigue, general pruritis, and pain in her ruq. her primary provider referred her again for evaluation. she reports some history of steatorrhea but denies bright red blood. which of the following statements is not true, given this health record information?
The patient has experienced some hematemesis.
What causes hematemesis?
It's frequently caused by a bacterial infection or by using NSAIDs or aspirin on a regular basis. Acute inflammatory response. Inflammation of the lining of your esophagus or stomach might result in bleeding from the arteries underneath. Common reasons include excessive alcohol use, aspirin and NSAID usage, and severe acid reflux.
How is hematemesis managed?True hematemesis is a medical emergency that must be treated in a hospital. Your doctor will need to determine the source of your bleeding and address any underlying issues. If you have just minor blood loss, they may administer medicines and water.
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which std is characterized by active and dormant stages? when a person chooses to treat this std, a future outbreak (active stage) may be more serious and harder to get rid of.
when a person chooses to treat this std, a future outbreak (active stage) may be more serious and harder to get rid of An STD called syphilis is brought on by the bacterium Treponema pallidum.
Up until the development of the antibiotic penicillin in the late 1940s, syphilis posed a serious threat to the population.
Bacterial infection is what it is.
It starts as a sore on the mouth, genitalia, or rectum that doesn't initially hurt.
The infection might become active at any time after lying dormant for years.
It can result in serious health issues if untreated.
It harms the brain, nerves, muscles, eyes, heart, bones, and the heart.
It is quite lethal.
It can be treated with antibiotics, but the injured organs cannot be restored.
Even after treatment, it could flare up once more and get worse.
Muscle aches, sore throats, hair loss, and swollen lymph nodes are common symptoms.
Depending on the patient, these symptoms may arrive and disappear often at first before gradually fading over time.
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a transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (tens) is prescribed for a client with pain, and the nurse provides information to the client about the tens unit. which client statements indicate the need for further teaching? select all that apply.
The needles are inserted in the subcutaneous tissue to stimulate the nerve is that statement indicate the need for further teaching.
What is subcutaneous tissue ?
One of the three layers of skin is the subcutaneous layer, which lies below the dermis. The layer of skin that extends the deepest is made up of fat cells, collagen, blood vessels, and nerves.
What is nerve ?
Your brain sends electrical impulses to the rest of your body through your nerves, which act as cables. Additionally, they continue to carry out some autonomic processes like breathing, sweating, and food digestion. Neurons are another name for nerve cells.
Therefore, needles are inserted in the subcutaneous tissue to stimulate the nerve is that statement indicate the need for further teaching.
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