Sumatriptan is not advised for use in patients who have angina, the nurse replies. Due to this, the medical professional chooses not to recommend one of the newer migraine treatments like sumatriptan.
What is Migraine?
A migraine typically causes a moderate to severe headache that is experienced as throbbing pain on one side of the brain. In addition, a lot of people have symptoms including nausea and increased sensitivity to light and sound.
Because of this, the medical professional decides against recommending sumatriptan, one of the more recent migraine medications.
Therefore, Patients with angina are advised against using sumatriptan.
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telehealth is the use of technology to remotely deliver health care, health information, or health education at a distance.
Telehealth is the use of digital information and communication technologies to access health care services remotely and manage your health care. Technologies can include computers and mobile devices, such as tablets and smartphones. This may be technology you use from home.
What is Telehealth?
Telemedicine or telehealth is the dissemination of health-related services and information through electronic information and telecommunications technology. It enables long-distance patient-physician communication, care, counseling, reminders, education, interventions, monitoring and remote recording.
Therefore, Telehealth is the use of digital information and communication technologies to access health care services remotely and manage your health care. Technologies can include computers and mobile devices, such as tablets and smartphones. This may be technology you use from home.
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A 70-year-old female presented to the hospital with fever, myalgia, arthralgia, tachycardia, and dehydration and was believed to be septic. This patient has a history of hypertension, CHF, and migraines. Routine medications include Lasix 40 milligrams by mouth each morning, if needed, for significant pedal edema and Isordil 20 milligrams by mouth four times a day.
A variety of studies were obtained to further delineate the source of her problem. Urine cultures were negative. Blood cultures grew Escherichia coli. The blood urea nitrogen level was 22, and a random glucose was 149. An anterior-posterior film of the chest taken at the same time showed acute pulmonary edema.
The patient received intravenous fluids. The patient's routine medications were continued, and she received intravenous antibiotics. On the fourth day of her hospital stay, it was believed that the patient had reached maximal hospital benefit and was therefore switched to oral antibiotics and was discharged. The patient left the hospital in good condition.
DISCHARGE DIAGNOSES:
Sepsis due to Escherichia coli:
Dehydration:
Hypertensive heart disease:
Left ventricular failure:
Escherichia coli-related septicaemia equals A.41.51, E86.0 Dehydration heart failure and hypertension together equal to 11.0 is the discharge diagnosis.
What does septic mean?
The body's severe response to an infection is sepsis. It's a medical emergency that could endanger life. When an infection you already have sets off a series of events throughout your body, it results in sepsis. Sepsis-causing infections typically begin in the gastrointestinal tract, urinary tract, skin, or lungs.
What triggers septicaemia in a person?
The most frequent cause of sepsis is bacterial infections. Infections with viruses, parasites, or fungi can also result in sepsis. Any variety of locations throughout the body can serve as the infection's source.
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the nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of metaproterenol for a client with asthma. which assessment finding is the best indication that the medication has been effective?
A patient who has been prescribed epinephrine arrives at the emergency department (ED) with a severe asthma attack i.e. cigarette smoking.
Smaller attacks may resolve on their own or may also require medication, typically an inhaler that appears briefly. With the right care, more severe asthma attacks can be reduced. Even mild episodes can only last a few minutes, whereas more severe ones can linger for hours or even days. Common cough, especially at night, is one of the early warning signs and symptoms of a bronchial asthma attack. Shortness of breath or difficulty breathing. experiencing extreme fatigue or susceptibility while exercisingExercise, some medications, unfavorable weather, such as thunderstorms or excessive humidity, breathing cold, dry air, and various substances, food additives, and scents can all trigger an allergic reaction.
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which client is at highest risk for developing a hospital-acquired infection? a client with an i1619 a client with crohn's disease a client with a laceration to the left hand a client who's taking prednisone (deltasone)
A client with Crohn's disease is at highest risk for developing a hospital-acquired infection or nosocomial infection.
What are nosocomial infections?
Nosocomial infections, also referred to as healthcare-associated infections (HAIs), are infections acquired during the healthcare delivery process that were not present at the time of admission. They can occur in a variety of health care delivery settings, such as hospitals, long-term care facilities, and outpatient facilities, and can also occur after discharge. HAIs also include occupational infections that can affect personnel.Infection occurs when the pathogen(s) spreads to a susceptible patient host. In modern healthcare, these infections are associated with invasive procedures and surgery, embedded medical devices and prosthetic devices.The etiology of HAI is based on the source or type of infection and the pathogen responsible, which may be bacterial, viral, or fungal.HAI is the most common adverse event in healthcare that affects patient safety. They contribute to significant morbidity, mortality and financial burden on patients, families and healthcare systems.To know more about nosocomial infections, click the link given below:
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when collecting data from a pregnant client at risk for disseminated intravascular coagulation (dic), which factors would the nurse consider significant?
A client who is gravida II who has just been diagnosed with dead fetus syndrome; fetal demise occurred 2 months ago.
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a rare and serious condition that causes blood flow to be disrupted. It's a clotting disorder that can cause uncontrollable bleeding. People suffering from cancer or sepsis may be affected by DIC.
In most cases, DIC is caused by inflammation caused by an infection, injury, or illness. Among the most common causes are: Sepsis: This is a systemic inflammatory response to infection. The most common risk factor for DIC is sepsis.
Disseminated intravascular coagulation is a condition that causes small blood clots to form throughout the bloodstream, obstructing small blood vessels. Excessive bleeding occurs as a result of increased clotting, which depletes platelets and clotting factors needed to control bleeding.
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based on the information presented which of the following best explains why the resaeachre measured ocugen consumption as an indicator of the effectivenesas of drug x
Oxygen accepts electrons in oxidative phosphorylation, a process necessary for melanoma cell survival.
In medicine, efficacy is defined as a given intervention's ability to produce beneficial change (for example a drug, medical device, surgical procedure, or a public health intervention). The efficacy of an intervention is frequently determined in relation to other available interventions with which it will be compared. Specifically, efficacy is defined as "whether a drug shows a health benefit over a placebo or other intervention when tested in an ideal situation, such as a tightly controlled clinical trial."
These studies concentrate on a single primary parameter that must be statistically different between the placebo and intervention groups. These types of comparisons are known as 'explanatory' randomized controlled trials, whereas 'pragmatic' trials are used to determine the effectiveness of an intervention in terms of non-specific parameters.
Effectiveness refers to "how the drug works in a real-world situation," and it is "often lower than efficacy due to interactions with other medications or the patient's health conditions, insufficient dose or duration of use not prescribed by the physician or followed by the patient, or use for an off-label condition that had not been tested."
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a client has a prescription for an oil retention enema and a cleansing enema. the client asks the nurse to explain the purpose of the enemas. what is the most accurate response by the nurse?
Enemas are injections of fluids used to cleanse or stimulate the emptying of your bowel. This procedure has been used for years to treat constipation and similar issues. Constipation is a severe condition that slows down the movement of your stool.
What is oil retention enema?
This enema type is for people whose stool has hardened. The oil-retention enema softens the stool. The enemas used in this process usually contain 90-120 ml solution. The doctor may ask you to retain the solution for at least an hour to get effective results
One of the main reasons for enema treatment is to relieve constipation. Generally, doctors recommend other treatments, such as stool softeners or suppositories.
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true or false: a person taking herbal supplements should keep a diary of symptoms, consult a physician, and never combine supplements. these steps will help prevent the risk of negative effects as a result of taking herbal supplements.
The answer is true. A person who is taking herbal supplements should keep a diary of symptoms, consult a physician, etc.
What are herbal supplements?
Herbal supplements believed to have healing properties, are products that are derived from plants and/or their oils, seeds, berries, roots, or flowers. These supplements have been used for many centuries.
In most cases, people tend to use herbal supplements with prescribed medicines. This may result in serious health problems because of drug interactions.
Which is why, therefore, a person who is taking herbal supplements should keep a diary of symptoms, should consult a physician, and never combine these supplements. These steps will help in preventing the risk of negative effects of taking herbal supplements.
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the nurse is providing education to a client with early-stage alzheimer disease (ad) and the family members. the client has been prescribed donepezil hydrochloride. what should the nurse explain to the client and family about this drug?
Every procedure should be described in clear, understandable words for the client. Although they should be taken as directed, medications that is donepezil hydrochloride help symptoms.
What does donepezil do for Alzheimer's?Some forms of dementia can be treated with the drug donepezil. Dementia cannot be cured by it. However, it manages some of the signs of dementia caused by Lewy bodies, Parkinson's disease, or Alzheimer's disease. It may also be beneficial for mixed dementia.For the symptomatic management of mild to moderate Alzheimer's disease, donepezil is recommended. Donepezil is a selective and reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor that may be able to make up for the death of working cholinergic brain cells by raising amounts of acetylcholine that is readily available.The only medications advised for the treatment of cognitive deterioration in patients with mild to moderate Alzheimer's disease are AChE inhibitors. When it comes to treating the main symptoms of this condition, donepezil is more beneficial than a placebo and is well tolerated.To learn more about Alzheimer's refer :
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Donepezil hydrochloride slows the progression of AD.
AD cannot be cured, however various drugs have been developed to decrease the disease's progression, notably donepezil hydrochloride (Aricept). These drugs don't take away the patient's insight or treat the physical signs of AD.
How does donepezil treat Alzheimer's disease?
The medication donepezil can be used to treat some types of dementia. It cannot treat dementia. It does, however, control some dementia symptoms brought on by Lewy bodies, Parkinson's disease, or Alzheimer's disease. Additionally, it might help people with mixed dementia.
Donepezil is advised for the symptomatic treatment of mild to moderate Alzheimer's disease. By increasing the amount of readily available acetylcholine, the acetylcholinesterase inhibitor donepezil may be able to compensate for the demise of functioning cholinergic brain cells.
AChE inhibitors are the only drugs recommended for the treatment of cognitive decline in patients with mild to moderate Alzheimer's disease. Donepezil is more effective than a placebo at treating the primary symptoms of this illness, and it is well tolerated.
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the nurse caring for a client at home arrives to find the client in the bedroom, unconscious and with a pill bottle of the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor, sertraline on the bed. which assessment has priority?
Rationale is prior assessment should be adopted in case of client is in the bedroom, unconscious and with a pill bottle of the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor, sertraline, on the bed.
When you are asked to explain or justify a decision you make or an action you take, you are asked to provide a rationale. The nurse should assess the patient's pulse and respiratory state in cases of suspected poisoning. These parameters would be established before checking blood pressure. While important, urinary production is not now the top priority.
Hence, rationale is adopted in case of client is in the bedroom with unconscious and pill bottle of the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor.
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a primigravida 28-year-old client is noted to have rh negative blood and her husband is noted to be rh positive. the nurse should prepare to administer rhogam after which diagnostic procedure?
The nurse should prepare to administer rhogam after amniocentesis.
what is amniocentesis?
A procedure where amniotic fluid is sampled with a hollow needle placed inside the uterus to check for anomalies in the developing fetus
Amniotic fluid and cells from the uterus are removed during amniocentesis for testing or treatment. During pregnancy, an embryo is encased in and shielded by amniotic fluid.
Red blood cells have the hereditary protein known as the Rh factor on their surface. A foetus has a minimum 50% chance of becoming Rh positive if both the mother and father are Rh positive. When a mother has Rh-negative blood and her child has Rh-positive blood, there is Rh incompatibility. A woman is at risk of developing maternal antibodies against red blood cell Rh antigens known as Rh sensitization if the red blood cells of a Rh positive foetus enter their Rh negative mother's blood flow during pregnancy.
Fetal Rh positive red blood cells may enter the Rh-negative mother's circulation during labour and delivery, as well as in cases of fetomaternal haemorrhage brought on by miscarriage, abdominal injury during pregnancy, ectopic pregnancy, induced abortion, invasive pregnancy procedures, and miscarriage. Rh sensitization usually does not cause issues during a Rh-negative woman's first pregnancy. Rh isoimmunization, a process that can lead to a condition known as Rhesus disease or hemolytic disease of the foetus and newborn, can occur in a subsequent pregnancy with an Rh positive foetus because the formed antibodies can cross the placenta and attack the fetus' red blood cells.
RhD immune globulin (RhoGam) is given to Rh negative patients who are not sensitive to Rh antigens in order to prevent maternal Rh sensitization.
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a client is on several medications to control hypertension. as the nurse reviews the mechanism of action for each medication, what statement does the nurse use to describe how furosemide treats hypertension?
A client is on several medications to control hypertension and the nurse reviews the mechanism of action for each medication therefore the statement which the nurse should use to describe how furosemide treats hypertension is that it acts on the kidneys to increase the flow of urine.
Who is a Nurse?This is referred to as a healthcare professional who specializes in the taking care of the sick and ensuring that adequate recovery is achieved in other to prevent various forms of complications.
Furosemide is referred to as a type of drug which works by inhibiting electrolyte reabsorption from the kidneys and enhancing the excretion of water from the body. This thereby leads to as reduction in the volume if blood in the body and decreases the pressure generated with each beat, thereby decreasing the blood pressure.
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a client diagnosed with anemia is prescribed vitamin b12 injections. in addition, which food(s) would the nurse encourage? select all that apply.
Good sources of vitamin B12 are meat, eggs and dairy products.
What is anaemia?
A condition in which the blood doesn't have enough healthy red blood cells.
Anaemia results from a lack of red blood cells or dysfunctional red blood cells in the body. This leads to reduced oxygen flow to the body's organs.
Symptoms may include fatigue, skin pallor, shortness of breath, lightheadedness, dizziness, or a fast heartbeat.
The most common cause of anaemia is not having enough iron. Your body needs iron to make hemoglobin.
Vitamin B12–deficiency anaemia, also known as cobalamin deficiency, is a condition that develops when your body can't make enough healthy red blood cells because it doesn't have enough vitamin B12. Your body needs vitamin B12 to make healthy red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets.
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a client has been diagnosed with diabetes and requests information about complementary therapies that could do along with the prescribed treatment plan. what would be the nurse's best response to this client? responses
Healing is slow in complementary therapy would be the nurse's best response to this client.
Which complementary therapies are there?
Yoga, acupuncture, massage therapy, spinal manipulation, art therapy, music therapy, dancing, mindfulness-based stress reduction, and many other practises are examples of complementary physical and/or psychological treatments.
What advantages do complementary therapies offer?
Numerous complementary therapies put a strong emphasis on lowering stress and increasing relaxation. They might aid in reducing anxiety, calming your emotions, and improving your overall health and well-being. The notion that joyful feelings might enhance your health is one that many medical professionals, nurses, and researchers are interested in.
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which intervention listed in the care plan for a client with an ectopic pregnancy requires revision?
The fact that v is just the average of the starting and final velocities when acceleration is equal is reflected in the equation v=v0+v2.
Explain what an acceleration is.acceleration is the rate of change in both speed and the direction of velocity over time. When anything moves faster or slower in a straight line, it is said to have been accelerated. Because the orientation is always shifting, motion on a circle accelerates even while the speed is constant.
Describe the acceleration formula.According to the formula a = v/t, kinetic energy (a) is the product of the shift in velocity (v) and the time shift (t).
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a mother calls a neighborhood nurse and tells the nurse that her 3-year-old child has just ingested liquid furniture polish. which action would the nurse instruct the mother to take first?
Activated charcoal – sometimes used to treat someone who's been poisoned; the charcoal binds to the poison and stops it being further absorbed into the blood.
Is furniture polish toxic?
Furniture polish poisoning can cause symptoms in many parts of the body. Symptoms depend on how the poisoning occurred, and how much of the poison was involved. Swallowing such poison may cause: Agitation.
Activated charcoal is used in the emergency treatment of certain kinds of poisoning. It helps prevent the poison from being absorbed from the stomach into the body. Sometimes, several doses of activated charcoal are needed to treat severe poisoning
Taking it one or two hours apart from everything else ensures that the charcoal binds to toxins instead of food or medication.
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the nurse is reviewing the chart of a postoperative appendectomy client with a history of opioid use disorder. the above documentation is noted in the history section. which adjustment in the plan of care on the surgical floor is a nursing priority to best ensure client safety?
Every 2 hours, assess the client's pain level.
All of these are options for an individualized plan of care; however, careful consideration of pain management is especially important for the postoperative client with an opioid use disorder. Anxiety is common, and the client may be concerned that pain relief options will be ineffective. Because pain is expected in the postoperative period, it is critical to evaluate the client's pain more frequently. As soon as possible, pain management is shifted to nonopioid options and interventions such as client positioning, distraction, and other nonpharmacological options.
The laparoscopic appendectomy (LA) is a common surgical procedure. Patients frequently experience significant postoperative pain as well as indigestion, which lengthens their hospital stay. Postoperative complications affect nearly 10% of patients. The enhanced recovery within a week of surgery program has been shown to be effective in elective surgery and may theoretically improve LA outcomes.
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which information in the client's history indicates an increased risk for coronary artery disease (cad) and requires the nurse to provide disease management education? (select all that apply. one, some, or all options may be correct.)
Family history of hyperlipidemia, frequent consumption of high fat diet, smoking two packs of cigarettes per day all indicate an increased risk for coronary artery disease (cad).
What are the reasons for this?
Coronary artery disease (CAD) occurs when the coronary arteries are narrowed or blocked, usually due to plaque buildup.
The patient has an increased risk for CAD due to the following reasons:
Family history of hyperlipidemia indicates an increased risk for coronary artery disease (cad) because in the development of CAD, genetic predisposition is a significant factor.
Frequent consumption of high fat diet indicates an increased risk for coronary artery disease (cad) because unhealthy habits like consuming fatty foods are one of contributing risk factors to CAD.
Smoking two packs of cigarettes per day also indicates an increased risk for coronary artery disease (cad). Some other risk factors that were identified by the nurse include reported job stress and obesity.
Therefore, family history of hyperlipidemia, frequent consumption of high fat diet, smoking two packs of cigarettes per day all indicate towards an increased risk for coronary artery disease (cad).
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most poisonings occur in: group of answer choices hospitals. jails. the home. nursing homes. flag question: question 2 question 21 pts an example of injury prevention through regulation is: group of answer choices setting speed limits. school fire drills. child proof safety caps. litigation.
most poisonings occur in home and an example of injury prevention through regulation is setting speed limits.
Injury prevention should be emphasised during every physical activity because it not only helps you achieve your training goals but also keeps you safe and healthy. The same way that running a marathon can be bad for your body, doing difficult math without proper preparation can be bad for your brain.
Injury or death brought on by ingesting, breathing, touching, or injecting various medications, chemicals, venoms, or gases is referred to as poisoning.Many compounds are only deadly at larger dosages or concentrations, including pharmaceuticals and carbon monoxide.
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the nurse is caring for a victim of a chemical disaster. medications given in the treatment of this client include amyl nitrite, sodium nitrite, and sodium thiosulphate. what chemical agent does the nurse know this client has been exposed to?
They administer sodium nitrate, amyl nitrate, or sodium thiosulfate as one or all of the available antidotes. Methaemoglobin is produced more readily by amyl nitrate, and when it mixes with cyanide, it produces the benign cyanmethemoglobin.
What is Chemical disaster?
Unintentional disposal of one or more dangerous compounds that could endanger the environment or human health constitutes a chemical disaster. Chemical dangers are situations where accidents involving chemicals may happen.
What consequences do chemical catastrophes have?
Reduction in immune system strength, development of asthma or allergies, issues with reproduction and birth abnormalities. effects on children's physical, mental, or intellectual growth.
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a pregnant woman is diagnosed with placental abruption (abruptio placentae). when reviewing the woman's physical assessment in her medical record, which finding would the nurse expect?a pregnant woman is diagnosed with placental abruption (abruptio placentae). when reviewing the woman's physical assessment in her medical record, which finding would the nurse expect?
When reviewing the woman's physical assessment in her medical record, the nurse would expect firm, rigid uterus on palpation.
What is Placental abruption?Placental abruption (abruptio placentae) is an unusual and dangerous complication of pregnancy. The placenta develops in uterus during the pregnancy. It adheres to uterine wall and feeds and oxygenates developing fetus.
Before delivery, placental abruption happens when placenta partially or totally separates from the uterus' inner wall. This may reduce or obstruct the baby's intake of the nutrients and the oxygen, as well as lead to severe bleeding in the mother.
Placental abruption often happens suddenly. If it is left untreated, it endangers both the mother and the baby.
Symptoms:Placental abruption is most likely to happen in the last trimester of pregnancy, especially in the last few weeks before birth. Common symptoms of placental abruption include:
Vaginal bleeding.Continent pain.Back pain.Tenderness or rigidity in the uterus.Uterine contractions, often coming one right after another.To learn more about placental abruption visit:
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A variety of factors can increase or decrease osteoporosis risk. Indicate which person is at the highest risk for osteoporosis.
Female, smokes, slender frame, and sedentary lifestyle.
Females, sedentary lifestyles, and smokers are at the highest risk for osteoporosis. Diet, exercise, alcohol use, and smoking history are all aspects of your lifestyle. Medication interactions and existing or former medical problems may increase the risk of fracture and lower bone mass.
What are the two main causes of osteoporosis?
Low levels of estrogen from premenopausal women's unusual lack of menstruation brought on by hormone abnormalities or excessive physical activity. Low testosterone levels in males. Osteoporosis is a risk for men who have diseases that lower their testosterone.
A diet deficient in calcium and vitamin D, smoking, drinking alcohol and/or caffeine, and not engaging in weight-bearing exercise are all lifestyle risk factors for osteoporosis. Men and women of all races can develop osteoporosis. However, older, postmenopausal white and Asian women are most at risk.
Therefore, Medication, a balanced diet, and weight-bearing exercise can all help stop bone loss or strengthen already brittle bones.
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a physician on your staff asked you to help her collect information about the effects of smoking during pregnancy on the birth weight of babies. you were asked to collect the following information: whether or not the mothers smoke during pregnancy; birth weight of the babies; apgar scores at one minute; and apgar scores at five minutes. the scales of these variables would be:
Nominal, ratio, ordinal, and ordinal are the scales of these variables.
What are Apgar scores?
When used correctly, the Apgar score is a tool for standard assessment that describes the newborn infant's status soon after birth 18. Additionally, it offers a way to document the passage from the fetus to the newborn. Apgar scores do not indicate a person's likelihood of dying or having a bad neurological outcome.
Newborns are tested shortly after birth to get their Apgar score. This examination measures a child's heart rate, muscular tone, and other indicators to determine whether further treatment or emergency care is required. Babies often undergo the test twice: once immediately following birth, and once more five minutes later.
Hence, the answer is nominal, ratio, ordinal, and ordinal are the scales of these variables.
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at a well child visit, the nurse notes a 9-year-old child to be in the 97th percentile kg weight. which screening measure is most important for the provider to include in this visit?
At a well child visit, the nurse notes a 9-year-old child to be in the 97th percentile kg weight. Cholesterol panel screening measure is most important for the provider to include in this visit.
Over 2 year old children who fit certain criteria should have their hypercholesterolemia and hyperlipidemia assessed. The child's weight must be at or above the 85% percentile, which is one of the prerequisites. BMI can be calculated using height and weight, however this method does not screen for additional illnesses. Congenital heart disease has nothing to do with a heavy weight. A comprehensive cholesterol test, sometimes referred to as a lipid panel or lipid profile, may measure the amount of cholesterol and triglycerides in your blood. A cholesterol test can help determine your risk of accumulating fat deposits (plaques) in your arteries, which can limit or clog arteries throughout your body (atherosclerosis). A cholesterol test is a crucial instrument. High cholesterol is a major risk factor for coronary heart disease. High cholesterol typically has no noticeable side effects. A comprehensive cholesterol test is carried out to determine whether your cholesterol is high and to evaluate your risk of heart attacks, different types of heart disease, and blood vessel issues.
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an intubated patient with chest injuries sustained when his chest hit the steering wheel in a vehicle accident suddenly becomes hypotensive and hypoxemic. auscultation reveals an absence of breath sounds on the right side and decreased breath sounds on the left. the nurse observes tracheal deviation to the left. which action is the most appropriate intervention?
The intervention is to Obtain an order for a chest radiograph and prepare for the insertion of a chest tube.
An intervention is a cautiously deliberate procedure that may be performed with the aid of family and buddies, in session with a health practitioner or professional including an authorized alcohol and drug counselor, or directed by using an intervention professional (interventionist).
An intervention is an act of inserting one aspect among others, like someone seeking to assist. you can be the challenge of a faculty intervention in case your instructors name your dad and mom approximately the bad grades you've got been hiding.
6 steps for intervention development: 1 apprehend trouble; 2 pick out modifiable causal elements; three decide mechanisms of change; four clarify shipping; five tests and adapt; 6 get proof of effectiveness.
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the parent of several young children calls the nurse when a school-age child comes down with chickenpox. the nurse provides instruction on communicability and home management of this disease. which response by the parent indicates effective teaching?
Some response by the parent indicates effective teaching:
Until the fever is gone, parents should keep their children at home Parent should give my child oatmeal baths twice daily. Parent should administer ASA every four hours till the fever has subsided. In about 4 weeks, parents should begin examining my other children for lesions.What is chickenpox?The virus that causes chickenpox is known as varicella-zoster. It results in a modest number of fluid-filled blisters and an itchy rash. People who have never had chickenpox or who haven't received the vaccine are very contagious. There is a vaccine for chickenpox that is readily available nowadays. The U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention advise routine vaccination (CDC).
A secure, reliable method of avoiding chickenpox and its potential sequelae is vaccination.
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a nurse who is working the 11 p.m. to 7 a.m. shift enters a client's room when the pulse oximeter alarms and reads 82%. the client appears to be sleeping. which action should the nurse take first
when the pulse oximeter records with 82% and the client appers to be sleeping that indicates that the oxygen levels should be maintained.
what is the pulse oximeter ?
A non-invasive technique for checking someone's oxygen saturation is pulse oximetry. Values of peripheral oxygen saturation (SpO2) are normally within 2% accuracy (within 4% accuracy in 95% of instances) of readings of arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) from arterial blod gas analysis, which are more accurate (and intrusive). However, the correlation between the two is strong enough that the safe, practical, non-invasive, and affordable pulse oximetry approach is useful for determining oxygen saturation in clinical settings.
Transmissive pulse oximetry is the most popular method. In this method, a sensor device is applied to a narrow area of the patient's body, often an infant's foot or an earlobe or fingertip. Heat transmission is facilitated by the greater blod flow rates in fingertip and earlobe tissues than in other tissues. Two wavelengths of light are sent from the device through the bodily part to a photodetector. It determines the absorbances caused by the pumping arterial blod alone, eliminating venous blod, skin, bone, muscle, fat, and, in most cases, nail polish, by measuring the changing absorbance at each of the wavelengths.
when the pulse oximeter records with 82% and the client appers to be sleeping that indicates that the oxygen levels should be maintained.
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a client is admitted with a myocardial infarction and atrial fibrillation. while auscultating the heart, the nurse notes an irregular heart rate and hears an extra heart sound at the apex after the s2 that remains constant throughout the respiratory cycle. how should the nurse document these findings?
An S3 heart sound occurs early in diastole as mitral and tricuspid valves open and blood rushes into ventricles.
A heart attack, also called a myocardial infarction, takes place while part of the coronary heart muscle would not get enough blood.
The more time that passes with out remedy to restore blood waft, the greater the damage to the coronary heart muscle. Coronary artery disorder (CAD) is the principle motive of heart assault.
Hospitals usually use strategies to restore blood flow to part of the heart muscle damaged all through a coronary heart attack: you may receive clot-dissolving tablets (thrombolysis), balloon angioplasty (PCI), surgery or a combination of treatments.
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A client is admitted with a myocardial infarction and atrial fibrillation. An S3 heart sound occurs early in diastole as the mitral and tricuspid valves open and blood rushes into the ventricles.
One of the most important aspects of care of the patient with myocardial infarction is the assessment. Assess for chest pain not relieved by rest or medications. Monitor vital signs, especially the blood pressure and pulse rate. Assess for presence of shortness of breath, dyspnea, tachypnea, and crackles.
For patients with myocardial infarction is assigned diet in which reduced energy value of food, with a gradual increase of it, limited salt, animal fats, cholesterol, nitrogenous substances. This diet should be enriched with ascorbic acid, lipotropic substances, potassium salts.
The best approach currently is to administer thrombolytic therapy as soon as possible to all patients without contraindications who present within 12 hours of symptom onset and have ST-segment elevation on the ECG or new-onset left bundle-branch block, unless an alternative reperfusion strategy is planned.
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a client has been receiving an iv antibiotic for an infection. when the iv infiltrates, the client receives a prescription for the same antibiotic in oral form. the nurse notes that the oral form provides 100% bioavailability. what instruction is important to provide the client?
The oral form of the medication will be just as effective as the IV form, and the client should be instructed accordingly.
By receiving intravenous (IV) antimicrobial therapies inside a clinic or at home, patients can avoid hospitalization for severe infections. IV antibiotics are antibiotics that are injected directly into a vein to enter the blood stream and bypass the digestive tract. Because intravenous antibiotics reach tissues faster as well as at higher concentrations than oral antibiotics, they are used for severe infections such as sepsis.
IV antibiotics may also be used to treat infections in areas of the body where oral antibiotics are less effective, such as spinal fluid and bone. Finally, IV antibiotics are used to treat infections that have become resistant to oral antibiotics.
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The selection of codes has an impact on determining the medical necessity
The determination of the medical necessity of cases and the reimbursement of healthcare services are both impacted by the accurate code selection.
Why is medical need necessary?
The importance of medical needs in healthcare may be seen in the fact that they help determine which services an insurer will pay for. Beneficiaries and their families can use this information to make educated healthcare decisions, such as picking the most inexpensive treatment option.
What is a medical emergency?
The most prevalent example is a cosmetic surgery like a stomach tuck or the injection of a drug like Botox to reduce face wrinkles. Additionally, many health insurance providers refuse to pay for treatments they deem to be unproven or experimental.
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