Pseudo-dyspnea is the sign which indicates that the activity is appropriate for the client.
What do you mean by Myocardial infarction?Myocardial infarction may be defined as a deadly condition that involves the blockage of the blood flow to the coronary artery of the heart. It may also be referred to as a heart attack.
Pseudo-dyspnea is a condition where a client overcomes all the concerns and symptoms of myocardial infarction.
Now, a client is not suffering from shortness of breath, no pain during breathing, etc.
Therefore, pseudo-dyspnea is the sign which indicates that the activity is appropriate for the client.
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Not yet answered Points out of 1.00
1 tbsp =
mL
Select one:
O a. 5
O b. 15
O c. 30
O d. 60
Flag question
Answer:
B. 15mL
Explanation:
The unit of measurement varies by region: a United States tablespoon is approximately 14.8 ml (0.50 US fl oz), a United Kingdom and Canadian tablespoon is exactly 15 ml (0.51 US fl oz).
Answer:
The answer is B. 15
Explanation:
1 tbsp = 15ml
Based on the breast milk consumption of an infant during the first 6 months of life, approximately _____calories are required from the mother each day.
Answer:
500
Explanation:
Based on the breast milk consumption of an infant during the first 6 months of life, approximately 500 calories are required from the mother each day.
what do u call the smartest insect?
Answer:
A spelling Bee
I have one for you----
What word looks the same upside down and backward?
The graduate nurse is caring for a client with decreased renal perfusion. The registered nurse determines that the graduate nurse demonstrates understanding of why this is occurring if which statement is made
The statement "It may lead to decreased dopaminergic receptor stimulation" is associated with decreased renal perfusion.
What is dopaminergic receptor stimulation?A dopamine agonist is a medical substance or drug capable of activating dopamine receptors.
Dopaminergic receptor stimulation is a medical approach that use dopaminergic drugs to activate dopamine receptors.
A decreased dopaminergic receptor stimulation is associated with decreased renal perfusion because this process reduces renal blood flow by depressing cardiac output.
In conclusion, the statement "It may lead to decreased dopaminergic receptor stimulation" is associated with decreased renal perfusion.
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Component(s) of a comprehensive fitness program include intensity, progression, consistency, variety as well as ____.
Answer:
The components of a comprehensive fitness program are:
Cardiovascular Endurance.
Muscular Strength.
Muscular endurance.
Flexibility.
Body Composition.
Which of the following best describes psychodynamic perspective?
The term "psychodynamics" is usually understood as movement, unfolding, growth and decay, interaction and struggle of forces within the human psyche. Then the psychodynamic approach is an approach according to which the processes that are visible to a person, occurring in his psyche, are determined not by external circumstances, not by the mind or will of a person, but by the independent dynamics (interaction and struggle) of forces inside the psyche.
The psychodynamic approach proceeds from the assumption that the human psyche has its own movements and interactions of energies that cannot be reduced to physiological or social influences.
K. Jung, A. Adler, O. Rank, G. Sullivan, K. Horney, E. Fromm and many others worked in the psychodynamic approach. Today, in practical psychology, within the framework of these approaches, there are (among the most famous schools and directions) transactional analysis, psychodrama (as its variety - systemic constellations) and body-oriented psychotherapy. The desire for superiority, an inferiority complex are also concepts of the psychodynamic approach. Domestic personality-oriented reconstructive psychotherapy based on the psychology of relations V.N. Myasishchev - a kind of psychodynamic psychotherapy. Existential-humanistic psychotherapy - similarly. If you list all schools and directions, then the list is as follows →
The psychodynamic approach does not always give clear answers about the causes of what is happening and the patterns of flow, we are often satisfied with general indications of the directions for the search for such mechanisms. If over and over again, sometimes in a dream, sometimes in reality, strange images and memories pop up, as if we are standing on the edge of a cliff and cannot decide to take a step forward, although we feel that we may have wings - we can assume that such pictures may be associated with such and such repressed desires. Understanding when and why you suppressed these desires and what these suppressed desires are doing to you now, you find yourself inside the psychodynamic approach.
The psychodynamic approach admits that some aspects of our behavior, in principle, cannot receive simple explanations.
The dynamics of internal energies is not necessarily deep, it can lie on the surface, be elementary for understanding. "Action is equal to reaction", "The more you push, the more resistance..."
It is important to understand that simple speakers are not synonymous with "unimportant". The dynamics of distraction, or patterns of fatigue, are of the utmost importance, although it is difficult to classify them as deep dynamics.
On the other hand, deep dynamics is not a synonym for something necessarily important and significant. During auto-training of the highest level, color discharges begin to occur in the human mind. There is some regularity in them, we can assume that this is due to the dynamics of some internal, apparently deep energies, but it is difficult to say whether this reflects something important or is only "internal noise".
Not all dynamics dictate a person's behavior. While classical psychoanalysis describes cases where a person’s behavior was rigidly controlled by internal dynamics, was a necessary consequence of internal impulses and states, in Jungianism and the humanistic approach it often turns out that despite the influence of deep dynamics, a person’s external behavior can fully meet the circumstances, be socially adequate and within reasonable limits.
Some internal dynamics leave room for the person or his environment to carry out some activity (soft dynamics), others essentially dictate how the person will behave (hard dynamics).
Classical psychoanalysis describes cases when a person's behavior was controlled by rigid dynamics, was the result of internal impulses and states.
In other approaches, the external, social behavior of a person fully corresponded to external circumstances, was adequate and within the framework, but internal dynamics were of interest as an expression of what is happening in the inner world, the world of feelings and relationships. This is Jungianism and the humanistic approach.
Why do psychologists and clients of psychologists have an interest in the dynamics of the internal energies of a person? - Oddly enough, this is not an easy question. Knowledge of laws in science makes it possible (at least theoretically) to predict the course of the processes under study, but in psychological work this is practically not in demand. Sigmund Freud and his followers believed that the client's understanding of his internal situation, his awareness of the internal conflict removes him, but this assumption was not confirmed: awareness may or may not affect what is happening inside us.
The nurse is providing instructions to a pregnant client with a history of cardiac disease regarding appropriate dietary measures. Which statement, if made by the client, indicates an understanding of the information provided by the nurse
Answer: A cesarean section will be necessary if vaginal lesions are present at the time of labor.
Explanation: A cesarean section will be necessary if vaginal lesions are present at the time of labor. This is because the cesarean section will be needed in order to assist with labor. If the cesarean section was not implied then labor for the patient would be extremely painful and could result in complications of the newborn.
what is the difference between a threshold dose-response curve and a non-threshold dose-response curve
The health educator uses ________________ to monitor student progress toward objectives and to modify instruction.
Answer:
formative assessment
Explanation:
which method of communication between two or more members of a health care team is a formal means of communication
The method of communication between two or more members of a health care team that us a formal means of communication is Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation.
What is communication?Communication is the process in which information is sent from the sender to the receiver and each understanding the purpose of the information.
Therefore, The method of communication between two or more members of a health care team that us a formal means of communication is Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation.
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What must a dentist in the United States who has graduated from a dental university approved by the Commission on Dental Accreditation (CODA) of the American Dental Association (ADA) do in order to obtain a license to practice dentistry in a particular state
A dentist who graduated from a dental university approved by the CODA must pass a national evaluation and also a state-based clinical assessment.
What is the Commission on Dental Accreditation?The Commission on Dental Accreditation (CODA) is an organization that accredits dental education training programs.
This organism (Commission on Dental Accreditation) can be aimed at accrediting both schools and dental programs.
In conclusion, a dentist who graduated from a dental university approved by the CODA must pass a national evaluation and also a state-based clinical assessment.
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A two-month-old is showing signs and symptoms of heart failure. An echocardiogram is ordered. The test shows the infant has a ventricular septal defect (VSD). Which statement below best describes the blood flow in the heart due to this congenital heart defect
Answer:
A VSD allows oxygen-rich (red) blood to pass abnormally from the left ventricle through the opening in the septum.
Explanation:
The septal wall prevents the mixing of blood between the two ventricles of the heart. A VSD allows oxygen-rich (red) blood to pass abnormally from the left ventricle through the opening in the septum. Then it mixes with oxygen-poor (blue) blood in the right ventricle.
Methylergonovine is prescribed for a woman to treat postpartum hemorrhage. Before administration of methylergonovine, what is the priority assessment
Answer:
Blood pressure
Explanation:
Methylergonovine, an ergot alkaloid, is used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage by contracting the uterus. Methylergonovine causes continuous uterine contractions and may elevate the blood pressure. A priority assessment before the administration of the medication is to check the blood pressure. The obstetrician needs to be notified if hypertension is present. blood pressure is related specifically to the administration of this medication.
A sudden onset of difficult breathing, sharp chest pain and cyanosis that persists despite supplemental oxygen is most consistent with
Answer:
A pulmonary embolism.
Explanation:
A sudden onset of difficult breathing, sharp chest pain and cyanosis that persists despite supplemental oxygen is most consistent with pulmonary embolism.
which type of radiation source would pose the greatest health risk when used internally for a medical procedure
Answer:
Alpha particles
Explanation:
What type of radiation is most harmful? It depends on whether your exposure to radiation is internal or external. Alpha particles are the most harmful internal hazard as compared with gamma rays and beta particles.
In a study of drug efficacy for depression management, Group 1 received a placebo, Group 2 received 2mg of the drug, and Group 3 received 5 mg of the drug. Which group(s) were the experimental group(s)
The experimental groups are the groups that received the drug and they were groups 2 and 3.
What is an experimental group?The term experimental group refers to the group that receives the treatment which in this case is a certain drug meant or depression management.
The experimental groups are the groups that received the drug and they were groups 2 and 3.
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How many compressions per cycle should be provided to an adult, child or infant when doing cpr?.
Answer:
15 compressions to 2 breaths.
Explanation:
Two minutes usually allow for five cycles of 30 chest compressions and two breaths. A two-minute CPR cycle is usually tiring.
You are mentoring a student in the intensive care unit (ICU) while caring for a client with meningococcal meningitis. Which action by the student requires you to intervene most rapidly
The action by the student that requires you to intervene most rapidly is entering the room without putting on a mask & gown.
What is intensive care unit (ICU) ?The Intensive Care Unit (ICU) is a unit in the hospital that specialises in the care of patients that are in critical conditions such as
patients that are from surgery who needs close monitoring.Patients on life support andterminal illness patients.Meningococcal meningitis is a type of infection that affects the meningitis leading to life threatening situations.
This infection is communicable therefore that student should be on personal protection wares to avoid being infected.
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Who can report an adverse event (AE)?
A. Participant
B. Participant's spouse
C. Caregiver
D. Participant's family member
E. Research Nurse
F. All of the above can report an AE
Hi !
Who can report an adverse event (AE)?
F. All of the above can report an AE
which components of bile can become solids when thy interact with calcium
Abstract
Background: Previous studies have shown that human bile contains one or more factors that inhibit the precipitation of calcium carbonate from supersaturated solutions of calcium chloride and sodium bicarbonate. Lower concentrations of this factor have been observed in the gallbladder bile of patients with calcified gallstones. We hypothesized that gallbladder bile contains factors that inhibit calcium carbonate and these factors are present in varying concentrations in normal persons and in patients with cholesterol gallstones with and without calcium carbonate.
Methods: Gallbladder bile of patients without gallstones (n = 8) and of patients with cholesterol gallstones containing either calcium carbonate (n = 8) or other calcium salts (n = 8) was assayed for calcium carbonate inhibition. Individual components of bile (bilirubin, phospholipid, bile salts, and albumin) were tested in different concentrations in the same assay system. In addition, samples of model bile were tested.
Results: An inhibitory factor for calcium carbonate precipitation was present within all human gallbladder bile, irrespective of the absence, presence, or type of gallstones. The addition of a bilirubin-albumin solution to a supersaturated solution of calcium chloride and sodium bicarbonate entirely blocked precipitation of calcium carbonate from solution. In addition, serial dilutions of bilirubin exhibited a linear response between bilirubin concentration and inhibitory effect. Model bile and phospholipid dissolved in sodium taurocholate also exhibited a modest inhibitory effect on calcium carbonate precipitation.
Conclusions: We conclude that bilirubin, cholesterol, and phospholipids incrementally interfere with calcium carbonate precipitation in supersaturated solutions through the preferential formation of a soluble calcium complex.
Q.162.A 10 years old girl presented with fever and bruises for last 2 weeks. On examination she is pale; however there is no evidence of lymphadenopathy or hepatosplenomegaly. Her Hb is 6g/dl, TLC is 2700 and platelets are 90000. The most appropriate investigation to clinch the diagnosis is:
a)Bone marrow aspiration
b)Retics count
c)Bleeding time
d)PT and APTT
e)Factor VIII assay
Answer:
In a bone marrow aspiration, a health care provider uses a thin needle to remove a small amount of liquid bone marrow, usually from a spot in the back of your hipbone (pelvis).
A normal PT with an abnormal aPTT means that the defect lies within the intrinsic pathway, and a deficiency of factor VIII, IX, X, or XIII is suggested. A normal aPTT with an abnormal PT means that the defect lies within the extrinsic pathway and suggests a possible factor VII deficiency
Bleeding time is a medical test done on someone to assess their platelets function. It involves making a patient bleed, then timing how long it takes for them to stop bleeding using a stopwatch or other suitable devices.
if sylvia gonzales tells you that she ate breakfast before coming in for the test, what should you do?
Answer:
See below
Explanation:
Check to see if the test requires a fasting period ( NPO ) before proceeding.
If SYLVIA had breakfast before coming for the blood test, It doesn't mean it the test will not be performed.
As there are different types of blood tests, the fasting before the blood test is depend on what you want to test.
What are the different types of blood tests?Blood glucose fasting test refers to check the sugar level in an individual specifically in case of diabetic person, fasting sugar level detect the exact sugar level.
It is prescribed to patient to be on fast before 8 t0 10 hours of blood withdrawal.
For blood cholesterol test, is to detect the concentration of fatty substance mainly three types of cholesterol in body like high density, low density cholesterol and triglycerides.
Low density cholesterol are bad cholesterol for body, if the amount increases, then the person go for blood test at least for 10 hours before blood test.
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A drug dose that delivers 800 mg has a half-life of 5 hours. Identify how much drug will remain in the body after one half-life
A drug dose that delivers 800 mg has a half-life of 5 hours. after a half-life the body will have 400 mg.
What is the half-life of a drug?Half-life (t 1/2): is the time required for the amount of a substance to be reduced by half. More specifically, when dealing with drugs we say that the half-life is the time taken for the plasma concentration of a drug in the body to be reduced by half.
With this information, we can conclude that a drug dose that delivers 800 mg has a half-life of 5 hours. after a half-life the body will have 400 mg.
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which factor can be used to determine the source of infection of a client who tests positive for giardia
Answer:
Short-term symptoms include:
Diarrhea
Gas
Foul-smelling, greasy stools (poop) that tend to float
Stomach cramps or pain
Upset stomach or nausea
Vomiting
Dehydration (loss of fluids)
Explanation:
Giardia infection is an intestinal infection marked by stomach cramps, bloating, nausea and bouts of watery diarrhea. Giardia infection is caused by a microscopic parasite that is found worldwide, especially in areas with poor sanitation and unsafe water. You can get giardiasis if you swallow the Giardia parasite (germ). Giardia—or stool (poop) from people or animals infected with Giardia—can contaminate anything it contacts. Giardia spreads very easily; even getting tiny amounts of poop in your mouth could make you sick.
If Mary takes two 325mg tablets of Tylenol every 4 hours for pain, how many milligrams has
Mary taken after three doses?
Select one:
O a. 375mg
O b. 650mg
O c. 1,300mg
O d. 1,950mg
Answer:
ddddd
Explanation:
A busy student, with very few financial resources, has body aches, a fever, cough and nasal congestions and difficulty breathing through their nose. The direct pathophysiologic etiology of these symptoms is most likely related to
According to the context, the direct pathophysiologic etiology of these symptoms is most likely related to common cold.
What is a common cold?It is a mild condition of an infectious nature and viral origin that is also known as a catarrh and that affects the upper respiratory structure.
Its symptoms include sore throat, sneezing, nasal congestions, headache, cough, malaise, and low-grade fever.
Therefore, we can conclude that according to the context, the direct pathophysiologic etiology of these symptoms is most likely related to common cold.
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A client with Crohn's disease is scheduled for a barium enema. What should the plan of care include today to prepare for the test tomorrow
Answer:
Encourage plenty of fluids.
Explanation:
The nurse should encourage plenty of fluids because adequate fluid intake is necessary to avoid dehydration that may be caused by the bowel preparation and to prevent fecal impaction after the procedure. The client may be placed on a low-residue diet 1 to 2 days before the procedure to reduce the contents in the GI tract. Fiber intake is limited in a low-residue diet. Because dairy products leave a residue, they aren't allowed the evening before the test. Clear liquids only are allowed the evening before the test.
Mention at least 2 diseases managed by Obstetrics and Gynecology
Answer:
Pelvic pain
Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)
Explanation:
Pelvic pain- Pelvic pain can arise from your digestive, reproductive or urinary system
Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)- a hormonal disorder common among women of reproductive age
The nursing instructor is teaching a class on the nutritional needs of the pregnant client. The instructor determines the session is successful when the students correctly choose which supplement as being known to prevent up to 70% of CNS birth defects
Folic acid is the supplement which is known as being able to prevent up to 70% of CNS birth defects.
What is Folic acid?This is known as Vitamin B9 and is soluble in water. It helps in the production of new healthy erythrocytes in the body.
This prevent CNS birth defects due to it favoring adequate production of healthy cells in a fetus.
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Mycetoma, which is a painless long-lasting infection characterized by swelling, pus production, and draining sores, is commonly caused by:
Answer:
Nocardia.
Explanation:
Mycetoma, which is a painless long-lasting infection characterized by swelling, pus production, and draining sores, is commonly caused by : Nocardia.