A bowl holds 4 cups of rice if I use a measuring cup that holds 1/8 of a cup how many times will I need to fill the measuring cup in order to fill the entire bowl

Answer:

26 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

Diagonal of the box using Pythagorean Theorem can be calculated using the formula:

a² + b² + c² = d²

Where,

d = diagonal of the box = ??

a = length = 24 cm

b = width = 8 cm

c = height = 6 cm

Plug in the value into the formula

24² + 8² + 6² = d²

576 + 64 + 36 = d²

676 = d²

√676 = d

d = 26 cm

Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Yes he is

Step-by-step explanation:

9/18

Divide by 9

9/9=1

18/9=2

Answer : 1/2

Answer:

b

Step-by-step explanation:

Transition because it mirrored but not exactly

Answer:

Nvm misread question

Step-by-step explanation:

one second please

Answer:

2

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex] \frac{x}{8} = \frac{3}{12} \\ \\ x = \frac{8 \times 3}{12} \\ \\ x = \frac{24}{12}\\ \\ x = 2[/tex]

Answer:

Since the calculated value of t= 2.8782 does not fall in the critical region so we accept H0 and may conclude that  the drug is not effective in increasing sleep.

Step-by-step explanation:

d              d²

1.0,          1

0.8,         0.64

1.1,           1.21

0.1,          0.01

- 0.1,       0.01

4.4,        19.36

1.5,          2.25

1.6,          2.56

4.6,         21.16

3.4          11.56

∑18.4      ∑59.76

1: We state our null hypothesis  as

H0 : μd= 0     against the claim Ha: μd ≠ 0  

2: The significance level is set at ∝  = 0.01

3: The test statistic under H0 is

        t= d`/ sd /√n

4:The critical region is t ≥ t ( 0.005) 9 = 3.250

5:Computation:

d`= ∑d/n= 18.4/10= 1.84

Sd² = ∑(di- d`)²/n-1 = 1/n-1 [∑di²- (∑di)² /n]

       = 1/9 [59.76 - (18.4)²/10]

        =(59.76 - 33.856)/9

          = 25.904/9

          = 2.8782

6: Conclusion:

Since the calculated value of t= 2.8782 does not fall in the critical region so we accept H0 and may conclude that  the drug is not effective in increasing sleep.

This is because we have taken H0 as the mean of the difference is zero.

This can only be zero when the drug is not effective.

Answer:

1.08.

Step-by-step explanation:

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  $124,200

Step-by-step explanation:

We have ...

  staffing cost = (direct cost) + 0.15·(direct cost)

  staffing cost = (direct cost) · 1.15 = ($108,000)(1.15)

  staffing cost = $124,200

Answer:

A. (1, 2) and (4, 3)

B. Slope (m) = ⅓

C. y - 2 = ⅓(x - 1)

D.[tex] y = \frac{1}{3}x + \frac{5}{3} [/tex]

E. [tex] -\frac{1}{3}x + y = \frac{5}{3} [/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

A. Two points on the line from the graph are: (1, 2) and (4, 3)

B. The slope can be calculated using two points, (1, 2) and (4, 3):

[tex] slope (m) = \frac{y_2 - y_1}{x_2 - x_1} = \frac{3 - 2}{4 - 1} = \frac{1}{3} [/tex]

Slope (m) = ⅓

C. Equation in point-slope form is represented as y - b = m(x - a). Where,

(a, b) = any point on the graph.

m = slope.

Substitute (a, b) = (1, 2), and m = ⅓ into the point-slope equation, y - b = m(x - a).

Thus:

y - 2 = ⅓(x - 1)

D. Equation in slope-intercept form, can be written as y = mx + b.

Thus, using the equation in (C), rewrite to get the equation in slope-intercept form.

y - 2 = ⅓(x - 1)

3(y - 2) = x - 1

3y - 6 = x - 1

3y = x - 1 + 6

3y = x + 5

[tex] y = \frac{1}{3}x + \frac{5}{3} [/tex]

E. Convert the equation in (D) to standard form:

[tex] y = \frac{1}{3}x + \frac{5}{3} [/tex]

[tex] -\frac{1}{3}x + y = \frac{5}{3} [/tex]

Answer:

The answer is C

Step-by-step explanation:

I say this because you have to simplify and  plug in the numbers to get answer choice c

Answer:

3.

Step-by-step explanation:

3 divided by 1 equals 3.

Please mark me brainliest I need it!!!

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

G is the incenter of ΔABC,

Incenter of a triangle is defined by the point where angle bisectors of the interior angles intersect.

10). m∠ABG = m∠CBG = 25°

11). m∠BCG = m∠ACG = 18°

  Therefore, m∠BCA = m∠BCG + m∠ACG = 2×18° = 36°

12). m∠ABC + m∠BAC + m∠ACB = 180°

  2(25)° + m∠BAC + 36° = 180°

    m∠BAC = 180° - 86° = 94°

13). m∠BAG = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex](m∠BAC) = 47°

14). Since, incenter is equidistant from all sides of the triangle,

     Therefore, DG = GF = FE = 4 units

15). In right triangle BEG,

     tan(25)° = [tex]\frac{\text{GE}}{\text{BE}}[/tex]

     BE = [tex]\frac{\text{GE}}{\text{tan}25}[/tex]

           = [tex]\frac{4}{\text{tan}25}[/tex]

     BE = 8.6

16). In right triangle BEG,

     cos(25)° = [tex]\frac{\text{4}}{\text{BG}}[/tex]

     BG = [tex]\frac{4}{\text{cos}25}[/tex] = 4.4

17). In right triangle GEC,

    sin(18)° = [tex]\frac{\text{GE}}{\text{GC}}[/tex]

    GC =  [tex]\frac{\text{4}}{\text{sin}(18)}[/tex] = 12.9

Answer:

Opposite

Step-by-step explanation:

The given figure has the same orientation.

Figures are shown, Do these figures have the same or the opposite orientation is to be determined.

the action or process of orienting or the circumstances of existing oriented. placement or position in relation to the points of the compass or other precise directions. the adjustment or alignment of oneself.

As per definition, let's assume the point at mid of H and mid of o when joined that point a line will form on both the hello, across that line thing between two images is same that why these two images have the same orientation. Each point on both the images has a fixed distance and angle to the imaginary line formed(we assumed).

Thus, the given figure has the same orientation.

Get more information about orientation here:
https://brainly.com/question/12049504
#SPJ5

Answer:

4 Packs

Step-by-step explanation: 24 put into groups of 7: there will be 3 full groups (three groups of seven) and one group will have only three in it. Therefore, 4 packs will be emptied. Hope this helps you !

Answer:

Y2-y1

X2-×1 = m

-12-(-10)

11-5     = -2/3

m= -2/3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

84/4=21/1 vs 28/1

Answer:

Slower

Step-by-step explanation:

If you divide 84/4, you get 21. This is the amount that she types per minute. 21 words per minute is less than 28.

Answer:

what sequence bruv

Step-by-step explanation:

theres nofin there

Answer:

ertg4b4tgedx3sfqawe ctxdsfawectdfsqeretcxf

Step-by-step explanation:

rt4wqcxdewqcrxfxdfewccrxweccsfcdsxdcrcwe

Answer:

0.45134

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that :

p = 0.6

n = 400

Probability that sample. Proportion falls between 0.59 and 0.62

Using Normal approximation :

Mean (m) = n * p = 400 * 0.6 = 240

Standard deviation (s) = sqrt(pq/n)

q = 1 - p = 1 - 0.6 = 0.4

s = sqrt((0.6 * 0.4) / 400) = 0.0244948

P(0.59 < p < 0.62) :

(x - m) / s

P((0.59 - 0.6) / 0.0244948) < p < P((0.62 - 0.6) / 0.0244948)

P(Z < −0.408249) < p < P(Z < 0.8164998)

Using the Z probability calculator :

0.79289 - 0.34155 = 0.45134

Answer:

16 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

If it takes Jada 20 minutes and it takes Andre 80% as long, then you multiply 20 by %80

20 * .80 = 16 minutes

Answer:

It takes Andre 16 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

I know this because 80% of 20 is 16 minutes

Answer:

Ben and Jill travel exactly the same distance to the school

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

Because they took the correct steps to answer the equation.They also got the right answer (-2).

At the begining they added 4 to both sides (to cancel out the 4)

C would be wrong because they subtracted 4 from a negative four and this does NOT cancel it out.

Have a Supercalifragilisticexpialidocious day, I hope you like my explination. If you do please give rating or brainliest :)

Answer:

angle 7= 66

Step-by-step explanation:

Angle 1 is equal to the 114 degrees. And angle 1 + angle 7 = 180. So it would be 114 + angle 7 = 180. So you do 180-114 = 66. So angle 7= 66.

The other way is that 114 + angle 6 = 180, so you do 180-114= 66.

And agle 6 is equal to angle 7, so that's another way you can know that angle 7= 66

Answer:

b

c

40

Step-by-step explanation:

I have already had this question before.

Given:

Total number of spins = 100

Probability that he would spin a prime number to be 0.35.

To find:

The theoretical probability of spinning a prime number.

Solution:

Total numbers from 1 to 100 = 100

Total prime numbers from 1 to 100 are 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, 43, 47, 53, 59, 61, 67, 71, 73, 79, 83, 89, 97.

So, the prime numbers from 1 to 100 = 25

Now, the probability of spinning a prime number is

[tex]\text{probability}=\dfrac{\text{Total prime numbers from 1 to 100}}{\text{Total numbers from 1 to 100}}[/tex]

[tex]\text{probability}=\dfrac{25}{100}[/tex]

[tex]\text{probability}=0.25[/tex]

Therefore, the theoretical probability of spinning a prime number is 0.25.

Answer:68.055

Step-by-step explanation:Google said so ;))

Answer:

no it is not a fuction

Step-by-step explanation: