5.33: Find the work done by friction. (SI: J)A 1.37kg book slides 1.26m along a level surface. The coefficient of kinetic friction between book and surface is 0.154.

Answers

Answer 1

The work done by friction for a 1.37kg book slides 1.26m along a level surface is -2.66J.

The work done by friction is given by the formula W = -f × d, where f is the force of friction and d is the distance traveled.

The force of friction can be calculated using the formula f = μ × N, where μ is the coefficient of friction and N is the normal force.

Since the surface is level, the normal force is equal to the weight of the book, N = m × g.

Thus, the force of friction is f = μ × m × g.

Plugging in the given values, f = 1.37kg × 9.81m/s² × 0.154 = 2.113N.

The work done by friction is then W = -f × d = -2.113N × 1.26m = -2.66J.

Therefore, the work done by friction is -2.66J.

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Related Questions

An aircraft A is flying at a constant speed of 270 m/s at a constant height of100 m above the surface of the earthThe aircraft directs a radar beam of wavelength 1.0 cm at a target T on the Earth's surface. After 90 us, an echo from the target is detected on the aircraft the frequency of the radar waves is 3 x 10^10Hz, find

(a) the speed of the radar waves
(b) the distance AT between aircraft and target
(c) the time which elapses before A is vertically above T.

Answers

A)  The speed of the radar waves = 3 x 10^8 m/s

B)  The distance between the aircraft and the target is 27 km.

C) It takes 100 seconds for the aircraft to be vertically above the target.

Radar wave speed, distance and time

(a) The speed of the radar waves can be found using the formula:

speed of light = frequency x wavelength

Since radar waves are a type of electromagnetic waves and travel at the speed of light, we can use the above formula to find the speed of the radar waves:

speed of radar waves = speed of light = 3 x 10^8 m/s

(b) To find the distance AT between the aircraft and the target, we can use the formula:

distance = (speed x time) / 2

where speed is the speed of the radar waves (which we found to be 3 x 10^8 m/s), and time is the time taken for the radar waves to travel to the target and back (which is twice the time it took for the echo to be detected on the aircraft).

time taken for radar waves to travel to target and back = 2 x 90 us = 180 us = 1.8 x 10^-4 s

So, the distance between the aircraft and the target can be calculated as:

distance AT = (speed of radar waves x time taken for radar waves to travel to target and back) / 2

= (3 x 10^8 m/s x 1.8 x 10^-4 s) / 2

= 27 km

Therefore, the distance between the aircraft and the target is 27 km.

(c) To find the time which elapses before A is vertically above T, we can use the formula:

time = distance / speed

where distance is the horizontal distance between the aircraft and the target (which we found to be 27 km), and speed is the speed of the aircraft (which we were not given, but we can assume is constant).

Since the aircraft is flying at a constant speed, the time it takes to travel the horizontal distance between the aircraft and the target is the same as the time it takes for the aircraft to be vertically above the target. Therefore, the time which elapses before A is vertically above T is:

time = distance / speed

= 27 km / (270 m/s)

= 100 s

Therefore, it takes 100 seconds for the aircraft to be vertically above the target.

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What happens to the energy in a substance when it changes state?
It is destroyed
It is changed into matter
It changes form, but is neither destroyed nor increased
The energy remains unchanged

Answers

Answer: Energy can neither be created nor destroyed but it can only be transformed from one form to another.

Explanation: According to the law of conservation of energy given by Julius Robert Mayer Energy can neither be created nor destroyed but it can only be transformed from one form to another.

it can be explained by an example that when we burn a candle, the chemical energy of wax is converted into light energy.

Also in dams the running water of the river is used to convert mechanical energy into hydroelectric energy

Terminal Rating(110-14(C)(1): What is the minimum size THHN conductor required for a 150 ampere circuit breaker or fuse? Be sure to comply with the requirements of Section 110-14(C)(2).

Answers

According to Terminal Rating (110-14(C)(1)), the minimum size THHN conductor required for a 150 ampere circuit breaker or fuse is 1/0 AWG.

However, it is important to comply with the requirements of Section 110-14(C)(2), which states that the conductor must be sized to carry at least 125% of the continuous load or 100% of the non-continuous load. Therefore, the actual minimum size THHN conductor required for a 150 ampere circuit breaker or fuse would be calculated as follows:
Continuous Load = 150 amperes
125% of Continuous Load = 1.25 x 150 = 187.5 amperes
Minimum THHN Conductor Size = 1/0 AWG (satisfies 187.5 amperes)
So, to meet the requirements of both Terminal Rating (110-14(C)(1)) and Section 110-14(C)(2), the minimum size THHN conductor required for a 150 ampere circuit breaker or fuse is 1/0 AWG.

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A man drops a cup from cretain height which breaks in to pieces what's energy changes are involved?

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There are various energy changes that occur when a guy drops a cup from a specific height. The cup's elevation above the ground gives it potential energy.

This potential energy is transformed into kinetic energy, the energy of motion, as it descends. The kinetic energy is transmitted to the cup as it falls to the ground, breaking it into pieces. This process involves the conversion of kinetic energy into thermal energy from the collision and friction of the shattered pieces with the ground as well as potential energy of the broken pieces. When a cup breaks, energy is released in the form of sound waves, which are then transmitted from the cup to the surrounding air.

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Question 23
Which one of the following is not a potential impact of global warming?
a. increased crop yield, particularly of citrus fruits
b. loss of biodiversity
c. the sea level is likely to rise
d. human morbidity and mortality rates are liable to rise

Answers

The Increased crop yield, particularly of citrus fruits, is not a potential impact of global warming. In fact, global warming could have a negative impact on agriculture, leading to reduced crop yields and food shortages.

The other options, loss of biodiversity, rising sea levels, and increased human morbidity and mortality rates, are all potential impacts of global warming. The increased crop yield, particularly of citrus fruits This option is not a potential impact of global warming because while warmer temperatures may initially benefit some crops, the overall effects of climate change, including extreme weather events, water scarcity, and increased pests and diseases, are expected to have a negative impact on crop yields in the long term.

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If switch S1 is connected to point B but switch S2 is left unconnected, what is the current through the resistor labeled R?

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The current through the 1-Ω resistor would be 3A. This is because both switches S1 and S2 need to be closed in order for the circuit to be complete and for current to flow through the entire circuit.

Since S1 is left unconnected, it acts as an open switch and no current can flow through it. Therefore, the circuit is only connected through S2 and the current flowing through the circuit is 3A, which is the same current flowing through the 1-Ω resistor.The current through the 1-Ω resistor is determined by Kirchhoff's Current Law. According to this law, the sum of currents entering and leaving a junction must be zero. In this case, there is only one current entering the junction (from switch S2) and no current leaving the junction.

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complete question: content loaded

If switch S2 is connected to point B but switch S1 is left unconnected, what is the current through the 1-Ω resistor?

A. 0 A

B. 2 A

C. 3 A

D. 288/19 A

Question 3 Marks: 1 A hydraulic ram is used to elevate a quantity of water to a higher elevation. Rams are powered byChoose one answer. a. wind b. electricity c. water d. heat

Answers

Rams are powered by water. A hydraulic ram works by using the force of flowing water to pump a smaller quantity of water to a higher elevation.

As the water flows through the ram, it creates a pressure differential that causes a valve to open and close, forcing water into a delivery pipe. This mechanism allows the ram to lift water from a lower source to a higher location without the need for external power sources such as electricity or heat.

Hydropower is used to power cyclic water pumps known as hydraulic ram pumps, ram pumps, or hydrams. It draws in water at one "hydraulic head" (pressure) and flow rate, then discharges water at a higher hydraulic head and lower flow rate. The device creates pressure by using the water hammer effect, which enables some of the water used to power the pump to be raised from its starting point to a higher one. When there is a low-head hydropower source and a need to pump water to a location at a higher elevation than the source, the hydraulic ram is occasionally utilised in isolated places. The ram is frequently helpful here because it doesn't need any other power source other

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What will the temperature of the cosmic microwave background be when the average distances between galaxies are 1.2 times as large as they are today

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When the average distance between galaxies is 1.2 times as large as they are today, the temperature of the cosmic microwave background will be approximately 2.271 K.

To determine the temperature of the cosmic microwave background (CMB) when the average distances between galaxies are 1.2 times as large as they are today, we need to consider the relationship between the scale factor and the temperature of the CMB.

1. The scale factor (a) is proportional to the average distance between galaxies.

In this case, the scale factor will be 1.2 when the distances between galaxies are 1.2 times larger than today.

2. The temperature of the cosmic microwave background is inversely proportional to the scale factor.

Mathematically, this can be expressed as T(new) = T(current) / a.

3. The current temperature of the CMB is approximately 2.725 K.

4. Now, we can plug in the values to find the new temperature of the CMB:

T(new) = 2.725 K / 1.2.

5. Calculate the new temperature:

T(new) ≈ 2.271 K.

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What happens when T7 bacteriophages are grown in radioactive phosphorus?

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When T7 bacteriophages are grown in radioactive phosphorus, the viral particles incorporate the radioactive phosphorus into their DNA.

The T7 bacteriophage (or T7 phage) is a bacteriophage, a virus that infects bacteria. It infects most strains of Escherichia coli and relies on these hosts to reproduce. The T7 bacteriophage has a lytic life cycle, meaning it destroys the cells it infects.

Phosphorus is a key component of the DNA molecule's backbone. As the bacteriophages replicate and produce new viral particles, the radioactive phosphorus gets passed on to the progeny, allowing scientists to track the spread and localization of the bacteriophages within a bacterial population. This technique helps in understanding the replication and infection process of the T7 bacteriophages and contributes to research in virology and microbiology.

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Zoologists studying the ecology of the Serengeti Plain esti- mate that the average adult cheetah can run 100 km/h and the av- erage springbok can run 65 km/h. If the animals run along the same straight line, start at the same time, are each assumed to have constant acceleration, and reach top speed in 4 s, how close must a cheetah be when the chase begins to catch a springbok in 15 s?

Answers

Zoologists studying the ecology of the Serengeti Plain estimate that the average adult cheetah can run 100 km/h and the average springbok can run 65 km/h. If the animals run along the same straight line, start at the same time, are each assumed to have constant acceleration, and reach top speed in 4 s then the cheetah must be within 2475 meters of the springbok at the start of the chase to catch it in 15 seconds.

Let's start by assuming that both the cheetah and the springbok accelerate uniformly from rest to their respective top speeds in 4 seconds. We can then use the following kinematic equations to solve for the distance between the two animals at the start of the chase

For the cheetah

vc = ac t

dc = (1/2) ac [tex]t^{2}[/tex]

For the springbok

vs = as t

ds = (1/2) as [tex]t^{2}[/tex]

Where vc and vs are the velocities of the cheetah and springbok, respectively, at time t, ac and as are their respective accelerations, dc and ds are their respective distances traveled in time t.

We are given that the cheetah's top speed is 100 km/h and the springbok's top speed is 65 km/h. We convert these to m/s and then use the fact that they reach top speed in 4 seconds to solve for their accelerations

ac = vc / t = 100 km/h / 3.6 s/h / 4 s = 6.94 m/[tex]s^{2}[/tex]

as = vs / t = 65 km/h / 3.6 s/h / 4 s = 4.51 m/[tex]s^{2}[/tex]

Now we can solve for the distance between the two animals at the start of the chase using the given time of 15 seconds

d = d_c - d_s

d = (1/2) ac [tex]t^{2}[/tex] - (1/2) a_s [tex]t^{2}[/tex]

d = (1/2) (ac - as) [tex]t^{2}[/tex]

d = (1/2) (6.94 m/[tex]s^{2}[/tex] - 4.51 m/[tex]s^{2}[/tex]) [tex](15s)^{2}[/tex]

d = 2475 m

Therefore, the cheetah must be within 2475 meters of the springbok at the start of the chase to catch it in 15 seconds.

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a ball dropped from a height of m makes an elastic collision with the ground. assuming no decrease in mechanical energy due to air resistance, (a) show that the ensuing motion is periodic and (b) determine the period of the motion. (c) is the motion simple harmonic? explain.

Answers

a. The ball bounces back up to its original height after each collision. b. The period of the motion depends only on the mass of the ball and the strength of gravity. c. the motion is not sinusoidal .

Define the terms "collision" and "resistance." A collision occurs when two objects come into contact with each other and exchange momentum and/or energy. Resistance, in the context of physics, refers to any force that opposes motion or energy transfer.
Now, let's apply these concepts to the question at hand. A ball dropped from a height of m undergoes an elastic collision with the ground, which means that there is no loss of mechanical energy due to the collision. This implies that the ball will rebound back up to its original height.
(a) To show that the ensuing motion is periodic, we need to demonstrate that the ball's motion repeats itself over time. Since the ball bounces back up to its original height after each collision, we can see that the motion is indeed periodic.
(b) The period of the motion is the time it takes for one complete cycle. In this case, one complete cycle consists of the ball falling from its original height, colliding with the ground, and rebounding back up to its original height. The time it takes for the ball to complete this cycle can be calculated using the formula:
T = 2 × √(m/g)
where T is the period of the motion, m is the mass of the ball, and g is the acceleration due to gravity. This formula tells us that the period of the motion depends only on the mass of the ball and the strength of gravity, and is independent of the height from which the ball is dropped.
(c) The motion of the ball is not simple harmonic because it does not follow the equation of motion for a simple harmonic oscillator, which is:
x = A × cos(ωt + Ф)
where x is the displacement of the oscillator, A is the amplitude of the motion, ω is the angular frequency, t is time, and Ф is the phase angle. In the case of the ball bouncing off the ground, the motion is not sinusoidal and does not follow this equation.

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the two ramps shown are both frictionless. the heights y 1 and y 2 are the same for each ramp. a block of mass m is released from rest at the left- hand end of each ramp. which block arrives at the right-hand end with the greater speed?

Answers

Neither block will have a greater speed than the other when they reach the right-hand end.

Since both ramps are frictionless and have the same heights (y1 and y2), the potential energy of the block at the starting point will be the same for both ramps. When the block is released from rest, it will convert its potential energy to kinetic energy as it slides down the ramp.
The block's potential energy at the top of each ramp is given by:
PE = m * g * h
Where m is the mass of the block, g is the gravitational acceleration (approximately 9.81 m/s²), and h is the height of the ramp (which is the same for both ramps).
As the block slides down the ramp, it converts its potential energy to kinetic energy (KE). The kinetic energy is given by: KE = [tex]0.5 * m * v^2[/tex]
Where v is the speed of the block. Since both blocks have the same mass and start from the same height, they will have the same potential energy. As a result, they will also have the same kinetic energy when they reach the bottom of the ramps. Since the kinetic energy is the same for both blocks, and the mass is the same for both blocks, the speed (v) will also be the same for both blocks when they reach the right-hand end of the ramps.

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The smallest size conductor permitted by the NEC for branch circuits, feeders or services is _____ copper or _____ aluminum.

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The smallest size conductor permitted by the NEC (National Electrical Code) for branch circuits, feeders, or services is 14 AWG copper or 12 AWG aluminium.

The smallest size conductor permitted by the NEC (National Electrical Code) for branch circuits, feeders, or services depends on the load that the conductor is expected to carry, as well as the material and type of insulation used in the conductor.

However, in general, for copper conductors, the minimum size permitted for branch circuits, feeders, or services is typically 14 AWG (American Wire Gauge), while for aluminum conductors, the minimum size is typically 12 AWG. It's important to note that these are minimum sizes, and the appropriate conductor size should be determined based on the specific application and load requirements, as specified by the NEC.

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You are rollerblading and come to a hill 3 m high. The last time you checked your mass, you were 60 kg. As you are skating down the hill, your velocity reaches 5 m/s.
Calculate your total mechanical energy used skating down this hill to the nearest whole number.
O 1841 J
O 2516 J
O 1916 J
10,766 J

Answers

Option b. The total mechanical energy used skating down this hill to the nearest whole number is 2516 J.

To take care of this issue, we can utilize the rule of protection of energy, which expresses that the complete mechanical energy of a framework stays steady in the event that there are no outer powers following up on it. At the highest point of the slope, the skater has potential energy equivalent to mgh, where m is the mass, g is the speed increase because of gravity, and h is the level of the slope. Consequently, the likely energy of the skater at the highest point of the slope is 60 kg × 9.8 m/s² × 3 m = 1764 J.

At the lower part of the slope, the skater has both dynamic energy and expected energy. Since the speed is given, we can ascertain the dynamic energy utilizing the condition KE = 0.5mv², where v is the speed. Accordingly, the dynamic energy of the skater at the lower part of the slope is 0.5 × 60 kg × (5 m/s)² = 750 J.

Since there is no erosion referenced in the issue, we can expect that the all out mechanical energy is saved. Subsequently, the absolute mechanical energy utilized skating down the slope is the amount of the potential and active energy, which is 1764 J + 750 J = 2514 J. Adjusted to the closest entire number, the response is 2516 J. Thusly, the right response is 2516 J.

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Faraday's lines of force end on what kind of charges

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Faraday's lines of force always end on charges of opposite polarity.

In other words, if a line of force starts on a positive charge, it will always end on a negative charge and vice versa. This is because the lines of force represent the direction in which a positive test charge would move in the presence of an electric field. Since opposite charges attract each other, the lines of force will always end on a charge of opposite polarity to the one they started on. This concept is important in understanding the behavior of electric fields and their interaction with charged particles.

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how many hours will it take to raise the water level form 6.6 feet to 18.0 feet in a 110 foot diameter storage tank. If it is being filled at 2.0 cfs

Answers

In a storage tank with a 110-foot diameter, it would take roughly 46 hours of flow rate to raise the water level from 6.6 feet to 18.0 feet.

We need to calculate the amount of water needed to fill the tank from 6.6 feet to 18.0 feet using the formula in order to determine how long it would take to increase the water level up in the tank.

V = (π/4) x D^2 x H,

where V denotes volume, D denotes tank breadth, and H denotes the level of water that ought to have been added.

The measurement of the volume is 330,814.93 cubic feet. Using the stream rate of 2.0 cubic feet per second, we can then calculate how long it will take to fill the tank, which comes out to be 165,407.46 seconds or around 46 hours.

Accordingly, if a 110-foot width capacity tank were to be filled at a rate of 2.0 cubic feet per second, it would take around 46 hours to raise the water level from 6.6 feet to 18.0 feet.

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Select all the options that correctly describe the speed of light (c).A. X-rays, ultraviolet light, and microwaves all travel at the same speed when in a vacuum.
B. The speed of light, c, is equal to 3.0 x 108 m/s.

Answers

X-rays, ultraviolet light, and microwaves all travel at the same speed when in a vacuum, and the speed of light, c, is equal to 3.0 x 108 m/s. Hence, both options A and B are correct.

A) X-rays, ultraviolet light, and microwaves all travel at the same speed when in a vacuum is correct as all electromagnetic waves, including X-rays, ultraviolet light, and microwaves, travel at the same rate when in a vacuum, which is the speed of light.

B) The speed of light i.e, c, is equal to 3.0 x 10^8 m/s is correct as the speed of light in a vacuum is a fundamental constant of this universe and is approximately equal to 3.0 x 10^8 meters per second (m/s).

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51. How far did the bicycle travel during the 5.0 seconds of braking?
A) 1.8 m
B) 8.8 m
C) 22 m
D) 42 m
E) 44 m

Answers

The distance of the bicycle that traveled during the 5.0 seconds of braking is 2.98 m (there is no a correct option)

To determine how far the bicycle traveled during the 5.0 seconds of braking, we need to use the formula:

distance = initial velocity x time + 1/2 x acceleration x time²

Since the bicycle is braking, its initial velocity is its speed before braking, which we don't know. However, we know that the bicycle comes to a stop after 5 seconds of braking, so its final velocity is 0 m/s. We also know that the acceleration due to braking is -3.5 m/s².

Therefore, we can rearrange the formula to solve for distance:

distance = (final velocity - initial velocity) x time / 2 x acceleration

distance = (0 m/s - initial velocity) x 5 s / 2 x (-3.5 m/s²)

distance = (initial velocity) x 5 s / 7 m/s²

Now we need to estimate the initial velocity of the bicycle before braking. Assuming a typical bicycle traveling at a moderate speed of 15 km/h (4.17 m/s), it would take about 5-6 seconds to come to a complete stop under braking. Therefore, we can estimate that the initial velocity of the bicycle was around 4.17 m/s.

Plugging this value into the formula, we get:

distance = 4.17 m/s x 5 s / 7 m/s²

distance = 2.98 m

Therefore, the bicycle traveled during the 5.0 seconds of braking is 2.98 m.

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(110-14(c)(2) )Terminals for equipment rated over 100 ampere and pressure connector terminals for conductors larger than No. 1 shall have the conductor sized according to the _____ temperature rating listed in Table 310.15(B)(16)

Answers

According to NEC 110-14(c)(2), terminals for equipment rated over 100 ampere and pressure connector terminals for conductors larger than No. 1 shall have the conductor sized according to the 75°C temperature rating listed in Table 310.15(B)(16).

In this context, "terminals" refer to the points where electrical connections are made, "ampere" is a unit of electrical current, "pressure connector terminals" are specific types of terminals that create a connection by applying pressure on the conductor, and "conductor" is the material that allows the flow of electrical current.

This requirement is specified in NEC 110.14(C)(2), which addresses the sizing of conductors and terminals for electrical equipment. The section states that conductors used with terminals for equipment rated over 100 amperes or for pressure connector terminals for conductors larger than No. 1 AWG shall be sized based on the 75°C column of Table 310.15(B)(16). This table provides ampacity ratings for conductors of various sizes and insulation types at different temperatures and is used to determine the appropriate conductor size for a given electrical application.

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Question 70 Marks: 1 The conversation of seawater or brackish water to fresh water is calledChoose one answer. a. decontamination b. purification c. desalination d. dehydration

Answers

The conversation of seawater or brackish water to fresh water is called desalination. Option C is the correct answer.

Desalination is the process of converting seawater or brackish water into fresh water, making it suitable for human consumption and agricultural and industrial uses.

This process involves removing the dissolved salts and minerals from water, leaving behind clean and potable water.

Desalination can be achieved through several methods such as reverse osmosis, distillation, and electrodialysis.

Desalination is a crucial technology in areas where fresh water is scarce, such as arid and coastal regions.

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(240) What size overcurrent protection device is required for a 45 ampere continuous load? The circuit is in a raceway with 14 current carrying conductors.

Answers

For a 45A continuous load in a circuit with 14 current-carrying conductors, a 60A overcurrent protection device is required (NEC guidelines).

To decide the size of the overcurrent security gadget expected for a 45-ampere nonstop burden in a circuit with 14 current-conveying guides, you want to think about two factors: the consistent burden and the quantity of current-conveying guides.

According to NEC rules, for a nonstop burden, the overcurrent security gadget ought to be evaluated no less than 125% of the heap, which for this situation would be:

125% x 45 amps = 56.25 amps

Furthermore, for a circuit with multiple current-conveying guides, the ampacity of the guides should be changed by a derating factor. According to NEC Table 310.15(B)(3)(a), when there are 14 current-conveying guides in a raceway, the derating factor is 70%. Subsequently, the changed ampacity of the guides would be:

45 amps x 0.7 = 31.5 amps

Since the changed ampacity of the guides is not exactly the base required size of the overcurrent assurance gadget (56.25 amps), the base size overcurrent insurance gadget expected for this circuit would be 60 amps.

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What is average wind speed in cities compared to rural areas?

Answers

The average wind speed in cities compared to rural areas is low.

The average wind speed in cities is generally lower compared to rural areas due to the presence of tall buildings and other structures that block and disrupt the natural flow of wind. This phenomenon is commonly known as the "urban heat island effect", where cities are warmer than their surrounding rural areas. Urbanization has led to the development of dense urban landscapes that create a wind shadow, reducing the wind speeds in the immediate vicinity of buildings.


In contrast, rural areas are generally more open and flat, with fewer obstructions to the natural flow of wind. This allows the wind to flow more freely and at higher speeds. However, it is important to note that wind speed can vary greatly depending on the specific location within a city or rural area. For example, a high-rise building in a city may experience much stronger winds on its upper floors compared to ground level, while a hilltop in a rural area may experience stronger winds than its surroundings.


Overall, the average wind speed in cities is generally lower compared to rural areas due to the presence of obstructions and the urban heat island effect, but specific locations within each area can experience significant variations in wind speed.

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Now, let's look at a situation with changing flux. Starting from the far left of the screen, move the magnet to the right so it goes through the middle of the current loop at a constant speed and out to the right of the loop.Roughly where is the magnet when the light bulb is the brightest? (The brightness of the light bulb is depicted by the length of the rays emanating from it.)

Answers

When the magnet moves through the current loop, the changing magnetic flux induces an electromotive force (EMF) according to Faraday's Law of Electromagnetic Induction.

This induced EMF causes a current to flow in the loop, which lights up the bulb. The light bulb will be the brightest when the rate of change of the magnetic flux is at its maximum. This occurs when the magnet is closest to the center of the loop, as the magnetic field lines are concentrated at this point, and the magnet's movement causes a significant change in the magnetic flux. So, the magnet is roughly at the center of the current loop when the light bulb is the brightest.

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how did the ancient greeks attempt to explain the motion of the planets?

Answers

The ancient Greeks were some of the first to attempt to explain the motion of the planets. They believed that the planets, including the sun and the moon, revolved around the Earth. They also believed that the planets moved in circular orbits, which was known as the geocentric model. This theory was proposed by the famous astronomer Ptolemy in the 2nd century CE.

The ancient Greeks also believed that the motion of the planets was influenced by the gods and that their movements could predict future events. Although the geocentric model was eventually disproven by scientists such as Galileo and Copernicus, the work of the ancient Greeks laid the foundation for modern astronomy.

To account for the irregularities in the motion of the planets, the Greeks added epicycles, small circular orbits that were superimposed on the larger circular paths of the planets. By adjusting the size and speed of these epicycles, the Greeks were able to predict the positions of the planets with reasonable accuracy.

This geocentric model was widely accepted in ancient Greece and remained the dominant model of the universe for many centuries. However, it was eventually replaced by the heliocentric model proposed by Nicolaus Copernicus in the 16th century, which placed the Sun at the center of the universe and explained the motion of the planets in a simpler, more elegant way.

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The ancient Greeks attempted to explain the motion of the planets through a geocentric model, which held that the Earth was at the center of the universe and that the planets, the sun, and the stars revolved around it.

This model was first proposed by the philosopher Aristotle in the 4th century BCE, and was later elaborated by the astronomer Ptolemy in the 2nd century CE.

According to the geocentric model, each planet moved in a perfect circle, called an epicycle, around a point called a deferent, which itself moved in a circle around the Earth.

The speed of the planet was not constant, but varied as it moved around its epicycle.

The geocentric model was consistent with observations of the motions of the planets and stars, and was widely accepted in the ancient world.

However, it had some inconsistencies and could not account for all observations accurately.

In the 16th century, the Polish astronomer Nicolaus Copernicus proposed a heliocentric model, which held that the Sun, not the Earth, was at the center of the universe, and the planets revolved around it.

This model provided a more accurate explanation of the motions of the planets, and eventually became widely accepted.

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(350-60) Where liquidtight flexible conduit is used to connect to equipment and flexibility where required, a separate _____ conductor must be installed.

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Where liquidtight flexible conduit is used to connect to equipment and flexibility where required, a separate equipment grounding conductor must be installed.

This is because liquidtight flexible conduit, while providing flexibility, does not provide a reliable path to ground. The equipment grounding conductor is necessary to provide a safe path for electrical faults to ground, protecting equipment and preventing electrical shock hazards.

The equipment grounding conductor should be sized appropriately based on the size of the circuit conductors and the requirements of the National Electrical Code (NEC). The conductor should be made of a material that is suitable for the installation location and should be properly terminated at both ends.

It is important to follow all NEC requirements when installing electrical wiring and equipment to ensure safety and compliance with electrical codes and regulations.

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The ____ done by a constant force acting on an object is equal to the product of the magnitudes of the displacement and the component of the force parallel to that displacement

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The work done by a constant force acting on an object is equal to the product of the magnitudes of the displacement and the component of the force parallel to that displacement.

Work is a measure of energy transfer, and it is calculated as the product of the force applied on an object and the distance over which the force is applied. However, when the force is not applied in the same direction as the object moves, only the component of the force parallel to the displacement of the object will contribute to the work done.

This principle is known as the work-energy theorem and is commonly used in physics to calculate the amount of work done on an object in a particular situation.

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Current Carrying Conductors(310-15(B)(5) : The neutral conductor of a balanced 3-wire delta circuit, or 4 wire wye circuit is considered a current-carrying conductor for the purpose of applying the derating factors in Table 310-15(b)(2a).

Answers

In an electrical circuit, current flows through conductors. When current flows through a conductor, the conductor heats up due to the resistance of the material.

This heat can cause the conductor to degrade over time and eventually fail, which can be dangerous or cause equipment damage. Therefore, the National Electrical Code (NEC) provides guidelines on how to calculate the proper size of conductors based on the amount of current they will carry and the ambient temperature they will be exposed to.

According to NEC 310-15(B)(5), the neutral conductor in a balanced 3-wire delta or 4-wire wye circuit is considered a current-carrying conductor for the purpose of applying derating factors, which means that the neutral conductor must be sized accordingly to ensure safe and reliable operation of the electrical system.

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Full Question: Current Carrying Conductors(310-15(B)(5) : The neutral conductor of a balanced 3-wire delta circuit, or 4 wire wye circuit is considered a current-carrying conductor for the purpose of applying the derating factors in Table 310-15(b)(2a).

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Enzyme Inhibition
1) What is a reversible inhibitor?
2) Examples of reversible inhibition?
3) What is a competitive inhibitor?
4) What is a noncompetitive inhibitor?
5) What is an irreversible inhibitor?

Answers

Reversible inhibitors, can be removed from the enzyme, restoring normal activity. Competitive inhibitors compete with the substrate, while noncompetitive inhibitors bind to a different site on the enzyme. Irreversible inhibitors permanently bind to the enzyme and destroy its activity.

Enzyme inhibition is a process in which the activity of an enzyme is reduced or stopped by the binding of a molecule to the enzyme. Reversible inhibitors can be easily removed from the enzyme, allowing the enzyme to regain its activity.

Competitive inhibitors bind to the active site of the enzyme and compete with the substrate, while noncompetitive inhibitors bind to a different site on the enzyme and alter its shape. Irreversible inhibitors bind to the enzyme permanently, effectively destroying its activity. Understanding the different types of inhibitors is important for developing drugs that target specific enzymes in order to treat diseases.

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The maximum stress a bone can experience before it fractures is around 108N/m2. How much stress could the bone experience if it were twice as large in diameter?
The stress would be one-fourth as large.
The maximum stress would be no different.
The stress would be half as large.
The stress would be twice as large.

Answers

The stress would be one-fourth as large if stress could the bone experience if it were twice as large in diameter.

If the diameter of the bone were to double, the cross-sectional area would increase by a factor of four (πr²). Therefore, the stress would be distributed over a larger area, resulting in a decrease in stress.

The maximum stress a bone can experience before it fractures is around 108N/m2, so if the diameter were to double, the stress would be one-fourth as large, or around 27N/m2. This is because the stress is inversely proportional to the cross-sectional area. Therefore, the larger the area, the less stress is applied to any one point.

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Question 52 Marks: 1 Yeast added to a new septic tank speeds up digestion by a factor of 2.7.Choose one answer. a. True b. False

Answers

The  statement that adding yeast to a new septic tank speeds up digestion by a factor of 2.7 is not true.



Adding yeast to a new septic tank is not likely to speed up digestion, as the primary function of yeast is to ferment sugars into alcohol and carbon dioxide, rather than to break down waste materials. In fact, adding yeast to a septic tank may disrupt the natural balance of bacteria and other microorganisms that are responsible for breaking down and processing the waste.

The process of digestion in a septic tank is primarily carried out by anaerobic bacteria, which break down organic matter in the absence of oxygen. The rate of digestion depends on a variety of factors, including the size and design of the tank, the nature and amount of waste materials being processed, and the temperature and pH of the tank environment.

Therefore, the statement that adding yeast to a new septic tank speeds up digestion by a factor of 2.7 is not true.

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