The antisense strand of the DNA containing the gene serves as the template for the creation of an mRNA. Consequently, transcribed this small's transcribed mRNA sequence.
An amino acid codon for methionine appears at the start of a gene, and one of three stop codons appears at the translated. The codons that come in translated between the start and stop signals code for the different amino acids that make up the gene product, but none of the three stop codons are present. Genes are a set of transcribed that parents transmit to their children. They have the knowledge that establishes a person's unique physical and biological characteristics, such as blood type, eye color, and hair color.
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a pheochromocytoma is a(n): a.accumulation of ketone bodies. b.pituitary cachexia. c.trade name for thyroid hormone. d.tumor of the adrenal medulla.
Pheochromocytoma is a tumor that produces hormones that can develop in the adrenal glands. Typically, pheochromocytomas form in the little glands above the kidneys (adrenal glands). Although they can happen at any age, they most frequently afflict people between the ages of 20 and 50.
The adrenal medulla contains a tumor called a pheochromocytoma (the inner part of the adrenal gland). Adrenaline (epinephrine) and noradrenaline are produced by the adrenal medulla (norepinephrine). It's possible for too many of these hormones to be produced if a tumor develops in this region. Due to the extremely high blood pressure it creates, this can be highly dangerous. Although pheochromocytoma in the adrenal gland is uncommonly malignant, it may be connected to thyroid and other glandular cancers
Early diagnosis of this issue is crucial. Unsafe blood pressure may be cured by locating and treating it. If left untreated, it can result in a heart attack, stroke, and clogged arteries.
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1. the 2nd portion (5' long) of small intestine that means to empty is the:
The 2nd portion (5' long) of small intestine that means to empty is the jejunum.
The small intestine, also known as the small bowel, is an organ inside the gastrointestinal tract that is responsible for the majority of nutrient absorption from food. It is located between the stomach and the large intestine and receives bile as well as pancreatic juice via the bile ducts to aid in digestion.
The small intestine is divided into three sections: the duodenum, the jejunum, and the ileum. The duodenum, the shortest, is where absorption preparation begins with small finger-like protrusions called villi.
The jejunum is specialised for enterocyte absorption through its lining of small nutrient particles digested by enzymes with in duodenum. The ileum's primary function is to absorb vitamin B12, bile salts, as well as any digestive products that were not absorbed by the jejunum.
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If a tuna fish farm required 26 pounds of fish to produce 1 pound of tuna is this a sustainable farm?
Answer:
no it's not.
Explanation:
since youre consuming a 26 pounds compared to its original weight of the fish
ollowing a biopsy, a 54-year-old man has been diagnosed as having a benign neoplastic tumor. which characteristic most likely applies to his tumor?
His tumor exhibits the characteristic of well-differentiated, cancerous cells grouped together into a single mass.
How does a pathologist identify a malignant tumor?The fact that they are uniformly spherical, with sharp edges and distinct centers, enables pathologists to identify them as normal. The cells are becoming more oblong and then irregular as the malignancy spreads.
What do all the result of such a biopsy mean?Twelve samples of your prostate tissue have just been examined under the microscope by the pathologist. What is inside? There are healthy cells first. The fact that they are uniformly spherical, with sharp edges and distinct centers, enables pathologists to identify them as normal.
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Suppose researchers are studying biodiversity in tide pool ecosystems. The researchers study two tide pools and identify 10 tide pool species at each site. Develop a set of questions researchers could investigate to compare species diversity, genetic diversity, and functional diversity for both sites.
The question that what a researcher is trying to answer is known as a research question. Original data should be used to address a sound research topic, and the interpretations should do so.
What does the term "biodiversity" mean?The variety that animals, plants, fungal, and even germs like bacteria that make up our ecological landscape are all included in what is known as biodiversity. These many species and critters collaborate in complicated web-like ecosystems to keep things in balance & support life.
Briefing:To compare species richness, genetic diversity, and functional diversity for the location, researchers might look into the following questions:
How is the ecosystem's climate?
How much sunshine is received by each ecosystem?
Which species are present in each ecosystem?
What ecological functions are demonstrated in each ecosystem?
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what cortical region is represented by the area at d? what cortical region is represented by the area at d? primary visual cortex visual association area primary olfactory cortex multimodal association area
The area marked “D” in the diagram represents the Primary Visual Cortex, also known as V1. This area is an important part of the brain located in the occipital lobe and is responsible for processing visual information. The Primary Visual Cortex receives input from the eyes, processes it, and then sends signals to other parts of the brain to create a visual representation.
It is the first area of the brain to receive visual information and is involved in a wide range of visual functions, including recognizing patterns, discerning shapes and colors, and recognizing movement.
The area marked “D” is also part of a larger region known as the Visual Association Area. This region, located in the temporal and parietal lobes, is responsible for the recognition and interpretation of visual information. The Visual Association Area is involved in higher-level visual processes, such as facial recognition, object recognition, and spatial awareness. It is also responsible for the integration of visual information with other senses to create a more complex representation of the environment.
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briefly describe how transcription results in the production of messenger rna (mrna). what is a primary transcript?
The DNA-transcribed single-stranded RNA product known as a primary transcript is then processed to produce numerous mature RNA products like mRNAs, tRNAs, and rRNAs.
In order to be ready for translation, the primary transcripts identified as mRNAs undergo modifications. An illustration of a main transcript that undergoes processing to become a messenger RNA (mRNA) is a precursor mRNA (pre-mRNA). The creation of main transcripts involves a number of procedures. The transcription of DNA in the nucleus of eukaryotes is started and finished by a series of interactions that take place throughout all these processes.
In the activation and inhibition of transcription, where they control the creation of main transcripts, specific variables are crucial. The original transcripts created by transcription are later altered by a number of different mechanisms. The 5' cap, 3'-polyadenylation, and alternative splicing are some of these procedures. Alternative splicing in particular directly adds to the variety of mRNA found in cells. In order to understand the function and importance of these main transcripts, more research has been done on their changes.
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During a storm, an island reptile is transplanted to the mainland. Which description predicts the most likely outcome for the island reptile?
- The island reptile adapts to the mainland and thrives in the new habitat.
- The island reptile is unable to compete with mainland reptiles for food sources.
- Due to the island adaptations it got through speciation, the island reptile does not recognize mainland food sources.
- Due to the island adaptations it got through speciation, the island reptile quickly adapts to mainland food sources.
The most likely consequence for an island reptile is speciation since it swiftly adapts to mainland food sources after being transported to the mainland during a storm.
What is a storm?An intense disturbance of the atmosphere is referred to as a storm when it is accompanied by lightning, a strong wind, and typically heavy or light rain, snow, hail, sleet, or thunder. 64 to 72 miles per hour (103 to 117 kilometers per hour) is the speed of the wind during a storm. Whenever severe weather is predicted, they do this to alert people. Storm Francis, Storm Denis, & Storm Ophelia are just a few of the many storms with various names that have previously occurred. The names for 2022 are shown below.
How storm is formed and who invented it?Thunderstorms are produced when warm, humid air rises into a cold environment. Condensation, or the creation of minute water droplets form water vapor, happens as that of the heated air cools. The atmosphere's cooled air sinks, warms, and then rises once more.
The Breakthrough Prize Foundation awarded Professor Xiaowei Zhuang $3 million for developing stochastic optical reconstructions microscopy, a technique for super-resolution microscopy. Just over ten years ago, Zhuang from Harvard University and the Howard Hughes Medical Institute created STORM.
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pathogens of the skin often enter via hair follicles and ducts of the sweat glands. t or f
It is accurate to say that sweat gland ducts and hair follicles are common entry points for skin pathogens.
What three types of sweat glands are there?Eccrine sweat glands, which open directly onto the skin's surface, cover the bulk of the body. Apocrine glands emerge from the skin's surface through the hair follicle. Apocrine glands develop in areas with a lot of hair follicles, like the scalp, armpits, and groin.
What use do sweat glands serve?Despite the fact that sweat glands are found all over the body, the forehead, armpits, palms, and soles of the feet have the most of them. Although certain salts are present in perspiration, water makes up the majority of it.
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when a scientific study yields the same results when it is repeated by the original or other researchers, it is said to exhibit:
When a scientific study yields the same results when it is repeated by the original researcher or other researchers, it is said to exhibit repeatability. The scientific study is sometimes repeated for a better result.
What is the scientific study?The scientific study is done to prove the hypothesis or to observe the result of the experiments, and sometimes one scientific study is done many times for better results because in a scientific study there is some chance of getting false results, although the procedure is taken care of.
Hence, when it is repeated by the original researcher or other researchers, it is said to exhibit repeatability.
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which method or methods of controlling eukaryotic gene expression is noot employed in prokaryotic cells? select all that apply.
The following methods of controlling eukaryotic gene expression are NOT employed in prokaryotic cells:
controlling how an RNA transcript is splicedcontrolling which mRNAs are exported from the nucleus to the cytosolRibonucleic acid (RNA) is a nucleic acid found in any and all living cells that is structurally similar to DNA. RNA, unlike DNA, is typically single-stranded. An RNA molecule has a foundation made of varying phosphate groups and sugar ribose, instead of the deoxyribose that exists in DNA.
There are several varieties of RNA. The term "messenger RNA" refers to mRNA which is read by ribosomes to construct proteins. While all forms of RNA are responsible for protein construction, mRNA serves as the messenger.
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Complete question :
Which of these method(s) of controlling eukaryotic gene expression is NOT employed in prokaryotic cells?
A. controlling how often a gene is transcribed
B. controlling how an RNA transcript is spliced
C. controlling which mRNAs are exported from the nucleus to the cytosol
D. controlling which mRNAs are translated into protein by the ribosomes
E. controlling how rapidly proteins are destroyed once they are made
Which correctly identifies how natural selection causes a change in species over time?answer choices- People choose mating pairs based on desirable characteristics.- The environment favors those individuals with the best phenotypes for survival.- If an anatomical feature is not used for several generations, offspring will cease to inherit that trait.- There is a trend towards homozygous dominant genotypes becoming the most common in the population.
The terrain favors those individualities with the stylish phenotypes for survival. The terrain rewards those who have the stylish survival traits.
What about natural selection?The process through which populations of living effects acclimatize and evolve is known as natural selection.A population's members are naturally varied, which means that they're all distinctive in some felicitations.This variety indicates that some people have characteristics that are more terrain-applicable than others.Natural selection is a process in which more terrain- acclimated organisms tend to survive and reproduce more constantly than lower terrain- acclimated bones .For example, catcalls and snakes sometimes consume tree frogs.Darwin also proposed natural selection as a process for elaboration, in which inheritable features that prop organisms in surviving and propagating grow more current in a population over time.Only the fit individualities live to pass on their genes to the ensuing generation, according to natural selection.The capacity to tolerate the sugar, lactose, in milk, is one case of recent natural selection in humans.Because their bodies stop producing lactase, an enzyme that breaks down the sugar in milk, after weaning, the utmost individuals in the world are unfit to consume milk.Learn more about natural selection here:
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the function of genes is to control the production of a. amino acids. b. structural proteins. c. all proteins. d. enzymes.
The function of genes is to control the production of all proteins. The process of replication, followed by transcription and translation are responsible for the production of all proteins.
What function do proteins serve in the human body?A few of the crucial biological functions of proteins include: Many proteins operate as catalysts to speed up certain metabolic pathways' chemical processes. Collagen, a structural component of connective tissues, is one of the fibrous proteins that make up the tissues holding the skeletal components together.
How do amino acids work?The fundamental chemical that forms the basis of proteins is an amino acid. Twenty distinct amino acids exist. A protein is made up of one or more polypeptide chains, or chains of amino acids, the sequence of which is encoded by a gene. While the body can synthesis some amino acids, others cannot and must be received from diet.
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The nucleotide sequence ACTAAG represents the fragment or DNA segment for which this mRNA was transcribed.
What is the cell process of genetic transcription?The cell process of genetic transcription makes reference to the generation of an RNA sequence by using a DNA template which must be complementary in its nucleotides, for example, Adenine is complementary to Thymine (uracil in RNA).
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the cell process of genetic transcription is based on the complementarity of nucleotide bases in order to create a given nucleotide RNA sequence.
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True or False? When IPM is implementedthe need for chemical pesticides is eliminated
Answer:
False
Explanation:
False. IPM, or Integrated Pest Management, is a pest control strategy that aims to minimize the use of chemical pesticides and instead utilizes a combination of techniques to manage pest populations. These techniques can include cultural controls (such as crop rotation and sanitation), biological controls (such as the use of natural predators to control pest populations), and the use of chemical pesticides only when necessary. While the goal of IPM is to reduce the need for chemical pesticides, it does not eliminate the need for them completely. Instead, it aims to use chemical pesticides only when necessary and in a way that minimizes their impact on the environment and human health.
Answer:
the correct answer to the question is true
why was he only able to travel at night in the second part of the movie the martian
In the second part of the movie, Mark Watney (the Martian) had to travel at night in order to conserve power and to avoid detection by Martian rovers. Traveling during the day would have required the use of solar energy which would have been too risky due to the risk of detection. Additionally, the night-time temperatures were cooler which allowed for more efficient use of his limited power supply.
in the united states, there has been relatively little experimentation involving the insertion of genes from other species into human dna. one reason for the lack of these experiments is that
The lack of experimentation involving the insertion of genes can be attributed to a number of factors. One of the primary reasons for the lack of these experiments is the fear of the unknown.
There is a great deal of uncertainty surrounding the potential consequences of genetic modification, and the ethical implications of such experiments are far-reaching. The potential health risks of gene insertion are not fully understood, and this lack of knowledge has led to a great deal of fear and caution among the scientific community.
While some studies have indicated that gene insertion could have the potential to treat or cure certain diseases or illnesses, there is a lack of conclusive evidence demonstrating the safety of the process. Moreover, there is concern that gene insertion could lead to the development of new diseases or mutations, with unknown consequences.
Furthermore, the ethical implications of gene insertion are highly contested. Due to the fact that genetic modification can be passed down across generations, there is a fear that the modification could be inherited by future generations. This has led to heated debates about the morality of gene insertion and its potential implications for generations to come.
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Animals that are segmented and have jointed appendages and an exoskeleton are members of the phylum
a. True
b. False
Answer: True
have a good day.
Explanation:
a sudden, traumatic, complete transection of the spinal cord results in what type of injury below the site?
A complete transection of the spinal cord occurs as a result of a sudden, traumatic transection Flaccid paralysis.
what is Flaccid paralysis ?
Flaccid paralysis is a neurological illness characterised by weakness or paralysis and decreased muscle tone for no apparent reason (e.g., trauma). This aberrant situation can be caused by illness or damage to the nerves that control the implicated muscles. If the somatic nerves to a skeletal muscle are severed, the muscle will show flaccid paralysis. Muscles become limp and unable to contract when they reach this stage. This illness can be lethal if it affects the breathing muscles, causing asphyxia. It also happens at the spinal shock stage in total transection of the spinal cord caused by accidents such as gunshot wounds.
A complete transection of the spinal cord occurs as a result of a sudden, traumatic transection Flaccid paralysis.
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compared to peas, fruit flies were thought to have no variations, until the discovery of a __________ fly by __________.
Morgan was able to recognize the connection between eye color and biological sex with great clarity. White-eyed male; Morgan.
Do fruit flies differ genetically from people in additional ways?For instance, compared to humans, penguins have double the genetic diversity. Fruit flies possess ten times more. Even the chimpanzee, who is the closest living relative to us, has existed for at least a few million years.
Give three reasons why Morgan chose to conduct his experiment using fruit flies.The following are the reasons why Morgan preferred to work with fruit flies: It is possible to cultivate it in an easy synthetic media. It has a brief life cycle because it can finish it in two weeks. To create more offspring, it just needs to mate once.
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what are potential outcomes when a plant's stomata close in response to heat and water stress? select all that apply.
Ion- and water-transport mechanisms across membranes work to regulate changes in guard cell turgor pressure and promote stomatal closure in response to a water deficit stress.
What are stomata and what do they do?On the epidermis of the leaves, there are tiny openings called stomata. Under a light microscope, stomata can be seen. On the stems and other parts of different plants, stomata can be seen.
What eucatrioid elements make up stomata?The pore, which is located in the centre of the kidney-shaped epidermal cell, is what makes up the stomata. The stomata are surrounded by two guard cells, specialised parenchyma. These are responsible for regulating the size of their.
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Complete question:
What are potential outcomes when a plant's stomata close in response to heat and water stress? Select all that apply.
CO2 and O2 may compete for the active site of rubisco.Photorespiration is more likely to occur. Photosynthesis is more efficient. Gas exchange comes to a halt.
identify each of the following reactions as an isomerization, phosphorylation, or phosphate transfer.
The final compound from the reaction of isomerization is fructose-6-phosphate, phosphorylation is fructose-1,6-bisphosphate and phosphate transfer is 3-phosphoglycerate.
Isomerization: Isomerization is required for the transformation of n-butane to isobutane, which serves as extra feedstock to alkylation units, as well as the conversion of conventional pentanes and hexanes to higher branching isomers for gasoline blending.
glucose-6-phosphate → fructose-6-phosphate
dihydroxy acetone phosphate--> glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dihydroxy acetone phosphate → glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
Phosphorylation: The process of attaching a phosphoryl molecule to a peptide is known as phosphorylation. This process is essential in biological systems for free energy storage and transfers via the energy transport mechanism.
fructose-6-phosphate → fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
glucose ÷ right arrow glucose-6-phosphateglucose→glucose-6-phosphate
Phosphate Transfer: When one phosphate group is eliminated by dissolving a phosphoanhydride bond, a process known as hydrolysis occurs, releasing energy and converting ATP to adenosine diphosphate (ADP).
phosphoenolpyruvate → pyruvate;
1,3-bisphosphoglycerate → 3-phosphoglycerate
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How do the photoperiodism and vernalization affect the flowering and dormancy of plants?
The modulation of physiology or development in relation to day duration is known as photoperiodism. Some plant species can only blossom and go into reproductive times of the year due to photoperiodism.
What is photoperiodism ?Plants may adjust to seasonal variations in their surroundings through photoperiodism, which is a reaction to changes in daylength. Although blooming is the most well-studied manifestation of photoperiodism in plants, additional reactions to daylength include bud hibernation and bulb or tubers initiation.
What influences the photoperiodism?Although photoperiodic responses may be adequately anticipated, an organism's response can also vary depending on temperature, food, and other external conditions. Animals' usual migration, reproduction, and coat or plumage changes can be generated out of season by manipulating the length of the day artificially.
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which cells function as professional antigen presenting cells? multiple answers apply and all should be chosen.
Professional antigen-presenting cells (APCs) are immune cells specialized in presenting antigens to T cells. The main types of professional APCs are dendritic cells (DC), macrophages, and B cells.
Dendritic cells have the broadest spectrum of antigen presentation and are required for the activation of naive T cells. DCs present antigens to both helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells. It can also perform cross-presentation, the process of presenting exogenous antigens on MHC class I molecules to cytotoxic T cells.
Antigen-presenting cells are the first cells to interact with antigens and are involved in the processing, presentation, and interaction of antigens with the immune system. T cell antigen receptor.
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Look at the highlighted condons on the mrna. Use the menus to select the proper base pairs and make the anticodons
The correct base pairs and the anticodons are UAC, CUU, AUC.
Anticodon is defined as a succession of the three bases present on the exchange RNA (tRNA). Anticodon is free to the bases on courier RNA (mRNA). During interpretation, anticodon matches with the codon on a strand of mRNA. Anticodon on the tRNA guarantee that the right amino corrosive will be added for the making of polypeptide chain during interpretation interaction of the protein combination.
It is consequently, the anticodon are the integral nucleotide base succession of the codons on mRNA. For the codes given on mRNA are AUG GAA and UAG, then the anticodons will be UAC, CUU and AUC on tRNA.
Hence, correct base pairs are UAC,CUU,AUC.
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(Complete question) is:
Look at the highlighted condons on the mrna. Use the menus to select the proper base pairs and make the anticodons.m RNA has a sequence of GAU ,CUA, AGU, AAU ,GCC ,GGA ,AUA ,CUA, GCC . The first highlighted codon is AUG. The second is GAA. The third is UAG.
seals in an aquarium often will repeat behaviors, such as slapping and barking, that prompt people to toss them some fish. this best illustrates:
By throwing a herring to the seals in the aquarium, he has trained them to imitate specific actions like slapping and barking. Operant conditioning is best illustrated by this.
What does the following example best demonstrate? How often do seals in aquariums perform actions like slapping and barking that cause humans toss them fish?In an aquarium, seals will repeat actions like slapping and barking that make humans want to throw them a herring. Conventional Conditioning With this kind of learning, one learns to anticipate events, link two or more stimuli, and link two or more stimuli together.
What one of the following represents a respondent behavior?The actions that are prompted by earlier stimuli and unaffected by their effects are known as respondent behaviors. Examples include gagging when meal is cooking, feeling uneasy when watching a scary movie, and blushing when informed that your blouse or fly is undone.
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Which best explains why a satellite accelerates?
It is always changing direction.
It is constantly slowed by gravity.
It does not have forces acting on it.
It is weightless when it is in orbit.
the chordate group includes these animals. a. arthropods b. mollusks c. invertebrates d. cnidarians e. vertebrates
The chordate group includes (c) vertebrates.
Any animal that belongs to the phylum Chordata, which also contains the most highly evolved animals, the vertebrates (subphylum Vertebrata), as well as the tunicates (subphylum Tunicata) and cephalochordates, is referred to as a chordate (subphylum Cephalochordata). Some classifications pair the chordates with the phylum Hemichordata.
As the name suggests, a chordate has a strong, dorsal supporting rod at some point in its life cycle (the notochord). The gill openings that open from the throat to the external, a tail that extends behind and above the anus, a hollow nerve cord above (or dorsal to), and an endostyle (a mucus-secreting structure) or its derivative between the gill slits are further characteristics of chordates. (A distinguishing trait might only exist in the developing embryo and vanish when the embryo develops into the adult form.) The nearly allied phylum Hemichordata has a relatively similar body arrangement.
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Which table best compares the events that occur during different stages of the cell cycle?.
S phase/DNA replication and M phase/Nuclear division Option A is best compares the events that occur during different stages of the cell cycle.
What is the cell cycle, and what are its phases?The cell cycle is a four-step process in which the cell grows in size (gap 1, or G1, stage), duplicates its DNA (synthesis, or S, stage), gets ready to divide (gap 2, or G2, stage), and divides (gap 3, or S, stage) (mitosis, or M, stage). The period between cell divisions is represented by the phases G1, S, and G2, which together make up interphase.
What are the cell cycle's four primary phases?There are four distinct stages of the cell cycle in eukaryotes: G1, S, G2, and M. DNA replication takes place during the S phase, also known as synthesis, whereas cell division takes place during the M phase, also known as mitosis. Less spectacular but no less significant are the other two phases, G1 and G2, sometimes known as the "gap phases."
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The complete question is,
Which table best compares the events that occur during different stages of the cell cycle? A Phase. event. S. Phase. DNA replication. M. Phase. Nuclear division. B Phase. Event. S. Phase. Nuclear division. M. Phase. Cytoplasm division. C phase. event. S. Phase. cytoplasm division. M. phase. cell growth. D phase. event. s. phase. cell growth. m. phase. DNA replication.
you've just had a near miss in your car. your pulse is racing and you notice your pupils are wide open when you look in your rearview mirror. what part of your autonomic nervous system is activated?
The part of the autonomic nervous system that is activated when you have a near miss in your car is the sympathetic nervous system.
The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the activation of the “fight or flight” response. This response is triggered when the body perceives a threat, such as a near miss in a car. When the sympathetic nervous system is activated, it causes the heart rate to increase, the pupils to dilate, and other physical and mental reactions that prepare the body to either fight or run away from the perceived danger.
In the case of a near miss in a car, the body is preparing for either a fight to defend itself, or an escape from the perceived danger. This response is essential for survival and is controlled by the autonomic nervous system.
Our sympathetic nervous system also releases hormones like adrenaline and cortisol, which increase our alertness and help us focus on the task at hand. This is why we feel so tense and alert after a near miss in our car – our body is preparing us for possible danger.
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