Codes may be 3,4,5,6 or upto 7 characters.Hence the , ICD cm 10 codes have up to 7 characters is the answer
The ICD-10-CM utilizes a placeholder character"X" at certain codes for allow for future expansion. Hence, A placeholder Character is the correct answer
What is ICD-10?The World Health Organization approved the ICD-10 Clinical Modification, a modification of the ICD-10 that is used in the United States of America as a source for diagnosis codes.
It is a system used by doctors and other healthcare professionals in the United States to categorize and code all diagnoses, symptoms, and procedures recorded in connection with hospital care. The 4 headings of SOAP notes are Subjective, Objective, Assessment and Plan
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Acute drug effects are those that
Acute drug effects are those that are caused by the immediate presence of the drug in the body. Drugs include any substance that, when eaten, modifies an organism's physiology or psychology.
Drugs are typically kept separate from foods and other nutrient-supporting items. Drugs may be consumed topically using a patch or suppository, smoked, injected, inhaled, applied topically, applied topically, or broken down sublingual. A drug is a chemical that, when administered to a living thing, has a biological effect. A drug is often a chemical molecule with a recognized pharmacological structure. Chemicals are employed in pharmaceutical treatments to treat, prevent, or diagnose illnesses as well as to enhance health. It may also be referred to as a thing or medicine.
The complete question is:
Acute drug effects are those that
-are dangerous.
-are caused by the immediate presence of the drug in the body.
-are unrelated to dose.
-last more than a day.
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according to the icd-10-cm coding guidelines which condition has a causal relationship with hypertension?
I16. The ICD-10-CM Alphabetic Index assumes a causal linkage between hypertension and heart involvement and assigns hypertension and heart problems to category
I11 (hypertensive heart disease) since the two conditions are linked by the phrase "with" in the Alphabetic Index.
When assigning hypertension (HTN) diagnostic codes, there is a hypothesized causal association between hypertension and cardiac involvement, as well as hypertension and kidney involvement.
ICD-9 codes for essential hypertension were 401.0 (malignant), 401.1 (benign), or 401.9. (unspecified). Individuals who match the criteria for hypertension but do not have concomitant heart or renal illness are assigned a single code in ICD-10. That designation is I10, which stands for Essential (primary) hypertension.
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Does Medicare cover glasses
Answer:Medicare will only pay for contact lenses or eyeglasses from a supplier enrolled in Medicare, no matter if you or your supplier submits the claim.
Explanation:
Hope this helps
Human milk (breast milk) is perfectly formulated for the developing infant's body. Cow's milk is not advisable for children under age one because its nutritional profile does not match a human infant's needs. Determine whether human milk or cow's milk has more of each of the following nutrients
More lipids and carbs are found in human milk.
More nutrients and protein are found in cow milk.
Which of the following actions is advised to reduce morning sickness during pregnancy?Drink 6 to 8 glasses of caffeine-free liquids per day. Be aware of what makes you feel sick. Refrain from eating or breathing anything that seems to make you sicker. Be cautious when using prenatal vitamins.
Which of the following statements regarding the relationship between metabolic efficiency and longevity is true?Which of the following statements on the effect that metabolic efficiency has on longevity is true? People with a quick metabolism tend to accumulate less fat and are less prone to chronic diseases that are weight-related; Less calories are needed for metabolic processes in a "thrifty" metabolism.
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Cancer susceptibility can run in families due to ________
A germline mutation can cause cancer susceptibility to run in families.
When your cells split and duplicate, countless genetic changes are conceivably possible. There are two different kinds of genetic mutations:
Germline mutationsSomatic mutationsA genetic alteration occurs in a reproductive cell (egg or sperm) and is absorbed into the DNA of every cell in the offspring’s body. A variation (or mutation) present in the germline that can be passed from parent to child is said to be inherited. Also known as a germline variation.
Somatic mutations are modifications to a person’s DNA that take place in any cell that isn’t a germ cell after conception (egg or sperm cell). Somatic mutations, which are not hereditary and occur sporadically or randomly, are unrelated to a person’s family history and are not passed down from parents to children. They also cannot be passed on to subsequent generations.
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, Which of the following electrolytes could form a precipitate if mixed closely together? A. Potassium chloride and potassium phosphate
B. Potassium chloride and calcium gluconate
C. Calcium gluconate and potassium chloride
D. Potassium phosphate and calcium gluconate
E. Calcium chloride and magnesium sulphate
Potassium phosphate and calcium gluconate will given precipitation. The correct option is D.
What is precipitation reaction?Precipitation is the process of changing a dissolved substance from a super-saturated solution to an insoluble solid in an aqueous solution. Precipitate refers to the produced solid.
Sometimes, combining a solution having a certain cation (a positively charged ion) with another solution containing a specific anion will result in the formation of an insoluble combination (a negatively charged ion). Precipitate refers to the solid that separates.
When the calcium and phosphate concentrations were high enough, calcium phosphate precipitation happened in every system. Precipitation will be given calcium gluconate and potassium phosphate.
Thus, the correct option is D.
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When the clinic of Dr. Lewi and King agreed to accept individual covered by a large managed care organization, the deciion of the provider-owner wa baed on a computer financial analyi and projection of expected effect the new patient load would have on the practice. A a reult, the practice added a econd office manager and a new clinical medical aitant. A the practice aborb the new patient, what can the provider-owner do to determine whether their financial analye and projection were correct?
When determining the credibility of different types of sources, including academic articles and websites, it is necessary to focus on certain criteria. These criteria include authority, currency, accuracy, relevance, and objectivity. Thus, it is important to ensure that the source is written by a specialist in the area; the source is published within the past five years.
Information presented in the article should be accurate, and the peer-review process is important for scholarly works. Content needs to be relevant and include only factual and credible data on the topic. Objectivity is important to be noted because a paper needs to be free of bias. These criteria work for website and academic articles, but in the field of scholarly writing, much attention is also paid to peer-reviewing
Timeliness
Your resources need to be recent enough for your topic. If your paper is on a topic like cancer research, you would want the most recent information, but a topic such as World War II could use information written in a broader time range.
Authority
Does the information come from an author or organization that has authority to speak on your topic? Be sure there is sufficient documentation to help you determine whether the publication is reliable including footnotes, bibliographies, credits, or quotations.
Audience
Who are the intended readers and what is the publication's purpose? There is a difference between a magazine written for the general public and a journal written for professors and experts in the field.
Relevance
Does this article relate to your topic? What connection can be made between the information that is presented and your thesis? An easy way to check for relevance is by reviewing the Abstract or Summary of the article before downloading the entire article.
Perspective
Biassed sources can be helpful in creating and developing an argument, but make sure you find sources to help you understand the other side as well. Extremely biased sources will often misrepresent information and that can be ineffective to use in your paper.
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This large, fan-shaped muscle of the upper chest is the prime mover of arm flexion:
A)pectoralis major
B)external oblique
C)deltoid
D)serratus anterior
A) Pectoralis major is large, fan-shaped muscle of the upper chest is the prime mover of arm flexion.
The pectoralis major is that the superior most and largest muscle of the anterior chest wall. it's a thick, fan-shaped muscle that lies beneath the breast tissue and forms the anterior wall of the axillary fossa.
It is important to focus on each heads of the pec major if you wish a balanced overall look. Clavicular Head is additional unremarkably referred to as the upper chest; it begins at the bone, as you will have guessed. This upper chest space makes up roughly 20-30 p.c of the entire mass of the pectoral muscle.
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most hormones are taken up and degraded by the __________ and __________.
A. adrenal glands; intestines
B. liver; kidneys
C. blood; kidneys
D. liver; spleen
E. spleen; kidneys
based on both usual intake and physiological changes, older adults should make the following changes to their diets. select all that apply.
Older adults should make the following changes to their diets as Reduced energy intake may also be caused by physiological or hormonal changes brought on by aging, such as slower stomach emptying, altered hormone responses.
How do I know if I'm being hormonal?Heavy or irregular periods, missed periods, interrupted periods, or frequent periods are signs of a hormonal imbalance unique to AFAB individuals. Abundant hair on the face, chin, or other areas of the body is known as hirsutism. acne on the upper back, chest, or face.What age do you become hormonal?Most females begin puberty between the ages of 8 and 13, while most boys begin between the ages of 9 and 14. But starting earlier or later can also be OK. Puberty begins when certain brain hormones began to release. Chemical messengers called hormones direct the body's actions.To know more about hormonal visit
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Change in the U.S. healthcare system typically occurs via: a. federal legislation by the dominant political party b. massive changes in funding policy c. special memorandum voted on during scheduled elections d. compromise led by moderates who look for common ground
Answer: A- federal legislation by the dominant political party!:)
CVS does not currently bill medicare part b for?
CVS does not currently bill medicare part b for the Continuous glucose monitors and nebulizers. The American government oversees the Medicare health insurance program.
The Social Security Administration (SSA), founded by Lyndon B. Johnson in 1965, is currently managed by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS). It provides health insurance for Americans 65 and older, individuals with end-stage renal disease, as well as some younger disabled persons. Part A of Medicare, which is divided into three parts, covers hospice care, inpatient hospital treatment, skilled nursing facility care, and some home health care (Hospital Insurance).
Medicare Part B covers preventative care, outpatient care, medical supplies, and doctor visits (Medical Insurance).
All prescription medications, flu shots, and other immunizations are covered by Medicare Part D. (prescription drug).
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What are the 4 unintentional injuries in the home?
Answer:
Drowning – in tubs, lakes, and pools
Poisoning – from snakes, carbon monoxide, pesticides, chemicals in the home, alcohol
Accidental drug overdose – from prescribed drugs, hard drugs or mixed substances
Car accidents – including motorcycles, bikers, and pedestrians
Explanation:
I don't need much to explain but just be careful
Choosing a diet low in sodium means knowing which foods are high in sodium and which foods are low in sodium. Classify each of the following foods based on its sodium content.
High- Sodium Food
- Deli meat
- Canned Soup
- Cheese
Low- Sodium Food
- Brown rice
- Pears
- Asparagus
Choosing the high -sodium foods like deli meat, canned soup, and processed cheese are not recommended, whereas low-sodium foods like brown rice, pears, and asparagus are.
What are the consequences of eating high-sodium foods?High sodium can have negative effects on health, such as high blood pressure, a diet high in sodium can increase blood pressure, which can increase the risk of heart disease and stroke, dehydration, kidney problems, etc, and is generally high in processed foods, such as frozen dinners and snack foods.
As a result, high-sodium foods like deli meat, canned soup, and processed cheese are not recommended, whereas low-sodium foods like brown rice, pears, and asparagus are.
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for which of the following substance use disorders are there fda-approved pharmacologic treatments?
Safe and effective medications are currently available and approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for the treatment of alcohol use disorder, opioid use disorder, and tobacco use disorder.
A drug is any synthetic, natural, or endogenous (produced by the body) molecule that affects a cell, tissue, organ, or organism biochemically or physiologically.
Pharmacology is a branch of medicine, biology, and pharmaceutical sciences that studies how drugs or medications work (sometimes the word pharmacon is used as a term to encompass these endogenous and exogenous bioactive species).
More specifically, it is the study of how interactions between a living thing and chemicals impact whether biochemical activity is normal or pathological. Pharmaceuticals are chemicals that have therapeutic qualities.
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when viewed from the perspective of transfer of learning, the inclusion of movement and context variability in practice can be seen as a means of enhancing positive transfer from the practice to the test contexts.
Historical context always serves as the base for modern business practice when viewed from the perspective of transfer of learning.
What are the radical changes in the business?The radical changes has been the business can be clearly understood from the historical context and it can even make the present business trend understands better.
To connect this with a famous proverb, "Change is constant", so a change in business trend cannot be stopped, it actually shows the growth of the country / universe. Even if it changes, it has happened by studying and practicing the history of business only.
Therefore, Historical context always serves as the base for modern business practice when viewed from the perspective of transfer of learning.
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An investigator proposes a study to determine the clinical relevance of a new assay technique to measure minimal residual disease (MRD) in adolescent (age 14-16) cancer patients undergoing chemotherapy. The study requires that two additional bone marrow aspirates be performed during the course of chemotherapy. The subject's chemotherapy will not be altered based on the results of the assay technique measures. However, future patients with cancer would benefit from improved interventions based on study findings. The IRB determined that the activity was a minor increase over minimal risk. Which of the following statements best describes the IRB approval requirements for involving adolescent cancer patients in the research study?
Assent of the child and permission of both parents are required is the statements best describes the IRB approval requirements for involving adolescent cancer patients in the research study.
For initiatives that: Comply with the criteria for research, IRB evaluation and approval are necessary. use human beings as well. include any interaction or intervention involving the use of identifiable private information involving human people. In accordance with this method, studies are allocated to one or more IRB members for a thorough examination of all materials. The study is then presented by the principal reviewer(s) at the IRB meeting that has been called, and after discussion among IRB members, a decision is made. IRB approval is only permitted by federal regulations if it occurs before the start of the study activities. Without first obtaining IRB approval, the IRB cannot order the investigator to destroy data or forbid them from reviewing or disseminating the information gathered.
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A client is admitted to the hospital with reports of chest pain. the nurse is monitoring the client and notifies the physician when the client exhibits: _________
A client is admitted to the hospital with reports of chest pain and the nurse is monitoring the client and notifies the physician when the client exhibits adventitious breath sounds.
Chest pain is discomfort within the chest together with a boring ache, a crushing or burning feeling, a pointy stabbing pain and pain that radiates to the neck or shoulder. It will have causes that are not because of underlying malady. Examples embrace work, weight, trauma to the chest or swallowing an oversized piece of food.
Adventitious breath sounds see sounds that are detected additionally to the expected breath sounds mentioned higher than. the foremost unremarkably detected extrinsic sounds embrace crackles, rhonchi, and wheezes.
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please, in the space provided below, list the 7 factors mentioned in the lecture that have prevented effective action against non-communicable diseases .
Anxiety and diabetes The WHO has recognized high blood pressure, high cholesterol, obesity, poor diet, smoking, physical inactivity, and excessive alcohol intake.
What is diabetes' primary underlying cause?Most diabetes kinds have an unknown specific etiology. Sugar accumulates in the blood in every situation. Due to inadequate insulin production by the pancreas, this occurs.
Can you lose diabetes?Diabetes type 2 has no known cure. However, it could be feasible to treat the illness in such a way that you no longer require medication to control it and your body is no longer negatively affected by having blood sugar levels that are too high.
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18. which of the following statements indicates that the nurse that client is progressing towards recovery from a somatic disorder:
A statement to a caregiver that a client is recovering from a somatic/somatoform disorder is: "I understand that if worry about my divorce it will make the pain more worse."
What are the physical symptoms of somatoform disorder?Somatic symptom disorder is diagnosed when the emphasis is on physical symptoms such as pain, weakness, or shortness of breath, to the extent that they cause significant distress or disability. Excessive thoughts, feelings, and behaviors associated with physical symptoms.
What are the most common somatoform disorders?Hypochondriasis and body dysmorphic disorder are probably more common. It is not clear why some people develop somatoform disorder. Both genetic "talents" and environmental factors may play a role.
What are the three somatic disorders?These include Somatization Disorder (with multisystem somatic symptoms), Undifferentiated Somatoform Disorder (fewer symptoms than Somatization Disorder), Conversion Disorder (symptoms of spontaneous motor or sensory functions), Pain Disorder ( pain with strong psychological involvement), hypochondria (fear of having).
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In addition to the Nutrition Facts panel, consumers may find various claims on food labels. These claims include nutrient claims, health claims, and structure-function claims. Identify the following as a nutrient claim, a health claim, or a structure-function claim. (Note: There may be more than one type of claim.) Label Claim "Low in sodium." "Antioxidants protect brain health" "Made with 100% whole-grain oats" "Adequate folate in healthful diets may reduce a woman's risk of having a child with a brain or spinal cord birth defect." "Fiber promotes regularity." Nutrient claim Health claim Nutrient claim Structure-function claim Nutrient claim
The low in sodium is nutrition claim, the antioxidants protect brain health is structure-function claim, the made with 100% whole-grain oats is nutrition claim, the folate statement is health claim, and then the fiber statement is structure function claim.
Nutrition claim is a claim about nutrition take body must take or nutrition status in a product. Structure-function claim is a claim about how the nutrition or other component can affects the function of the body. Then, the health claim is a claim about the health condition including the disease.
For statement "Low in sodium" and "Made with 100% whole-grain oats" it consider as nutrition status in a product, so this is nutrition claim.
For statement "Antioxidants protect brain health" and "Fiber promotes regularity" it tell how the nutrition can affect the function of the body, so this is structure-function claim.
For statement "Adequate folate in healthful diets may reduce a woman's risk of having a child with a brain or spinal cord birth defect." it tell the diseases that can infect babies, so this is health claim.
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Which of the following sets of vital signs depicts Cushing's triad?
A. blood pressure, 190/110 mm Hg pulse, 55 beats/min respirations, 30 breaths/min
B. blood pressure, 90/50 mm Hg pulse, 120 beats/min respirations, 10 breaths/min
C. blood pressure, 200/100 mm Hg pulse, 140 beats/min pulse, 140 beats/min respirations, 28 breaths/min
D. blood pressure, 80/40 mm Hg pulse, pulse 30 beats/min respirations, 32 breaths/min
The sets of vital signs that depicts Cushing's triad is blood pressure, 80/40 mm Hg pulse, pulse 30 beats/min respirations, 32 breaths/min.
Option D is correct,
What is Cushing's triad?Cushing's triad is referred to a set of signs that are indicative of increased intracranial pressure (ICP), or increased pressure in the brain.
The Cushing's triad is made up of bradycardia (also known as a low heart rate), irregular respirations, and a widened pulse pressure.
The resting blood pressure is 120/80 millimeters of mercury (mm Hg) and the pulse pressure is 40 and this is generally seen as a healthy pulse pressure. A pulse pressure greater than 40 mm Hg is considered unhealthy.
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james is a 35-year-old carpenter who weighs 154 lbs. how many grams of protein will he need per day?
Jalisa has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder. During treatment, the therapist indicates Jalisa also meets the diagnostic criteria for another disorder. Which of the following is Jalisa LEAST likely to have, based on comorbidity rates?
According to comorbidity rates, Jalisa is LEAST likely to have major depressive disorder.
A mental health disorder characterized by the a persistently low mood or loss of interest in activities, resulting in significant impairment in daily life. Possible causes of distress include a combination of biological, psychological, as well as social factors. According to new research, these factors could result in changes in brain function, such as altered activity from certain neural circuits in the brain.
Major depression is characterised by a persistent feeling of sadness or lack of interest, which can result in a variety of physical and behavioral symptoms. Changes throughout sleep, appetite, energy level, ability to focus, daily behaviour, or self-esteem are examples of these. Ideation is also associated with depression. Medication, talk therapy, or a combination of the two is usually the mainstay of treatment. According to new research, these treatments may help to normalize changes to the brain associated with depression.
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Which documents outline the curriculum standards for all DNP programs?
Question 26 options:
Essentials of Doctoral Education for Advanced Nursing Practice and Position Statement on the Practice Doctorate
Essentials of Doctoral Education for Advanced Nursing Practice and Practice Doctorate Nurse Practitioner Entry-Level Competencies
Position Statement on the Practice Doctorate and Practice Doctorate Nurse Practitioner Entry-Level Competencies
Practice Doctorate Nurse Practitioner Entry-Level Competencies and Middle-Range Theory in Principle and Practice
Question 27 (5 points)
Saved
Which "essential" is primarily concerned with the scientific foundations of nursing practice?
Question 27 options:
Essential I
Essential III
Essential IV
Essential VI
Question 28 (5 points)
Saved
How does Essential V pertain to advanced practice nurses?
Question 28 options:
Interprofessional collaboration in a multitiered healthcare environment
Evaluation, integration, translation, and application of evidence-based practice
Analysis of environmental data in the evaluation of population health
Involvement in healthcare policy and advocacy
Question 29 (5 points)
Saved
Essential II describes preparation of the DNP nurse in organizational and systems leadership. Which two other Essentials involve utilization of the leadership concepts presented in Essential II?
Question 29 options:
Essential III and Essential IV
Essential III and Essential V
Essential V and Essential VI
Essential V and Essential VIII
Question 30 (5 points)
Saved
How is focusing on the scientific underpinnings of nursing practice paradoxical in terms of discipline development?
Question 30 options:
It requires practitioners to adopt practice values of other disciplines rather than the unique knowledge of their specialty.
It requires nursing to emerge from other academic disciplines rather than from its own professional discipline.
It requires nurses to adopt the logical positivist viewpoint in their study even though the must adopt a humanistic viewpoint in their practice.
It requires collaboration with professionals in other discipline rather than relationship building within nursing itself.
Question 31 (5 points)
Saved
Middle-range theories in nursing can best be described as:
Question 31 options:
simplistic and general in focus.
abstract and broad in type.
concrete and narrow in scope.
didactic and restrictive in practice.
The document that outline the curriculum standards for all DNP programs is option B: The Essentials of Doctoral Education for Advanced Nursing Practice and the Practice Doctorate Nurse Practitioner Entry-Level Competencies
What are the DNP programs ?The Essentials of Doctoral Education for Advanced Nursing Practice and the Practice Doctorate Nurse Practitioner Entry-Level Competencies outline the curriculum standards for all Doctor of Nursing Practice (DNP) programs.
The Essentials of Doctoral Education for Advanced Nursing Practice is a document published by the American Association of Colleges of Nursing (AACN) that provides guidelines for the content and structure of DNP programs.
Therefore, The Practice Doctorate Nurse Practitioner Entry-Level Competencies are a set of standards developed by the National Organization of Nurse Practitioner Faculties (NONPF) that outline the knowledge and skills that DNP-prepared nurse practitioners should possess upon graduation.
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a client with enteritis reports frequent diarrhea. what assessment should the nurse should anticipate?
Metabolic acidosis is the client's condition. Normal or high anion gap conditions define metabolic acidosis.
The anion gap is typical if the main issue is a direct loss of bicarbonate, a chloride gain, or a decrease in ammonia synthesis. The disease is referred to as high anion gap acidosis if the main issue is the buildup of organic anions (such ketones or lactic acid). Increased breathing to expel extra CO2, an increase in ammonia production, acid excretion (H+) by the kidneys, with salt and bicarbonate retention, are just a few compensatory mechanisms to correct this imbalance.The nurse may anticipate lethargy, weariness, muscle weakness etc.
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a triple option plam is also called a _______?
Answer:
cafeteria plan
Explanation:
serious signs and symptoms of unstable tachycardia are usually not seen with ventricular rates less than:
sedatives are given to __________.
The administration of sedatives slows brain activity.
A sedative is a medication that has a calming, relaxing effect; it may cause drowsiness in the patient but rarely results in sleep. Anxiety, tension, seizures, panic disorders, and sleep disturbances are a few frequent ailments that are treated using sedatives. The majority of sedatives that are used recreationally were originally intended for medicinal use.
CNS depressants make people drowsy; sedatives and hypnotics are frequently given to treat sleep problems like insomnia, while tranquilizers are used to treat anxiety or ease muscle spasms.
Sedative drugs include tranquilizers like sleeping pills. They consequently slow down how well your body and mind work. This could include things like your heartbeat, breathing, and mental patterns.
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What are 4 ways you can protect and secure the computerized medical records?
5 Ways To Protect Medical Records
Secure Cloud Storage Many medical practices keep their electronic records in a cloud storage space. ...
Locked File Cabinets Many medical practices have filing systems that do not involve locks. ...
Secure Paper Folders When people want to protect the paper documents inside a file, it is might be wise to use secure folders. ...
Locked Computers ...
Immediate Closure ...